Tag: NCERT Question Answers

  • Chapter 1: India – Size and Location, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
    (a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tripura
    Answer: (b) Odisha

    Q2. The easternmost longitude of India is:
    (a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E
    Answer: (a) 97°25′E

    Q3. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
    (a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
    Answer: (c) Nepal

    Q4. If you visit Kavaratti, which Union Territory will you go to?
    (a) Puducherry (b) Lakshadweep (c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Daman and Diu
    Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

    Q5. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
    (a) Bhutan (b) Tajikistan (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
    Answer: (b) Tajikistan


    Q6. Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.

    Q7. Name the countries which are larger than India.
    → Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia.

    Q8. Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
    → Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

    Q9. Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
    → Sri Lanka and Maldives.

    Q10. Why does the sun rise two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh than Gujarat but watches show the same time?
    → Because of India’s great longitudinal extent (30°). To avoid confusion, 82°30′E (near Mirzapur, UP) is taken as the Standard Meridian, and one uniform IST is followed.

    Q11. Why is India’s central location at the head of the Indian Ocean significant?
    → It gives India a strategic advantage for trade and cultural exchange with West Asia, Africa, and Europe (from west coast) and with Southeast Asia and East Asia (from east coast). India’s location makes it a central hub of ocean routes.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the size and extent of India.
    Answer: India has an area of 3.28 million sq. km, about 2.4% of world’s land area, making it the seventh largest country. The mainland stretches between latitudes 8°4′N and 37°6′N and longitudes 68°7′E and 97°25′E. Its north-south extent is 3,214 km and east-west extent is 2,933 km. India has a land boundary of 15,200 km and coastline of 7,516.6 km. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides the country into almost two halves.


    Q2. Describe India’s neighbours and its political boundaries.
    Answer: India shares boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan (northwest), China, Nepal, Bhutan (north), and Bangladesh and Myanmar (east). Across the sea, India’s neighbours are Sri Lanka and Maldives. In South Asia, India occupies a central position with 28 states and 8 Union Territories. Its vast boundary connects it politically, economically, and culturally with neighbouring countries.


    Q3. How has India’s central location helped in establishing cultural and trade contacts?
    Answer: India’s location between East and West Asia made it a crossroads of trade and culture. Ancient land routes across mountain passes helped exchange of goods, like spices, muslin, and ideas like numerals and the decimal system. Sea routes via the Indian Ocean linked India with Southeast Asia, Africa, and Europe. India influenced and absorbed cultures such as Greek sculpture and West Asian architectural styles, making it a centre of interaction.


    Q4. Discuss the importance of Standard Meridian of India.
    Answer: India’s vast longitudinal spread (30°) causes time differences of about 2 hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. To avoid confusion, 82°30′E longitude (through Mirzapur, UP) is chosen as the Standard Meridian. It ensures uniformity of time across India and is called Indian Standard Time (IST). Without it, time differences would disrupt communication, travel, and administration.


    Q5. Explain how India’s geographical features influence its contacts with the world.
    Answer: The Himalayas in the north provide a natural barrier but also mountain passes for ancient contacts. The long coastline facilitated maritime trade. India’s peninsular location makes it project into the Indian Ocean, linking West Asia, Africa, and Europe with Southeast Asia and East Asia. This strategic location allowed India to play a major role in global trade, culture, and history.


    MCQs

    1. India’s total area is:
      (a) 2.4 million sq. km (b) 3.28 million sq. km (c) 4.5 million sq. km (d) 5.2 million sq. km
      Answer: (b)

    2. India is the ___ largest country in the world.
      (a) 5th (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
      Answer: (c)

    3. India accounts for about ___ of world’s land area.
      (a) 1.8% (b) 2.4% (c) 3.2% (d) 4%
      Answer: (b)

    4. India’s latitudinal extent is:
      (a) 8°4′N to 37°6′N (b) 6°4′N to 36°6′N (c) 10°N to 38°N (d) 9°N to 37°N
      Answer: (a)

    5. India’s longitudinal extent is:
      (a) 68°7′E to 97°25′E (b) 65°E to 95°E (c) 70°E to 98°E (d) 60°E to 95°E
      Answer: (a)

    6. India’s north-south extent is about:
      (a) 2,933 km (b) 3,214 km (c) 2,500 km (d) 3,500 km
      Answer: (b)

    7. India’s east-west extent is about:
      (a) 2,500 km (b) 3,000 km (c) 2,933 km (d) 3,214 km
      Answer: (c)

    8. India’s land boundary length:
      (a) 12,000 km (b) 13,500 km (c) 15,200 km (d) 16,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    9. India’s coastline length:
      (a) 5,216 km (b) 6,500 km (c) 7,516.6 km (d) 8,200 km
      Answer: (c)

    10. Southernmost point of India is:
      (a) Kanyakumari (b) Indira Point (c) Minicoy (d) Palk Strait
      Answer: (b)

    11. Indira Point submerged during:
      (a) Cyclone 1999 (b) Tsunami 2004 (c) Flood 2013 (d) Earthquake 2015
      Answer: (b)

    12. India’s Standard Meridian is:
      (a) 82°30′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 77°6′E
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which city does Standard Meridian pass through?
      (a) Delhi (b) Allahabad (c) Mirzapur (d) Lucknow
      Answer: (c)

    14. Which sea lies west of India?
      (a) Bay of Bengal (b) Arabian Sea (c) Red Sea (d) Caspian Sea
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which sea lies east of India?
      (a) Mediterranean (b) Caspian (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (c)

    16. Sri Lanka is separated from India by:
      (a) Gulf of Khambhat (b) Palk Strait (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Both b & c
      Answer: (d)

    17. Maldives lie to the:
      (a) South of Lakshadweep (b) East of Andamans (c) North of Kanyakumari (d) West of Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    18. India’s central location helped spread:
      (a) Greek numerals (b) Indian numerals & decimal system (c) Roman architecture (d) Chinese language
      Answer: (b)

    19. The Suez Canal reduced India–Europe distance by:
      (a) 5,000 km (b) 6,000 km (c) 7,000 km (d) 8,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    20. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
      (a) 28 states, 8 UTs (b) 29 states, 7 UTs (c) 27 states, 9 UTs (d) 30 states, 6 UTs
      Answer: (a)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s total area is 3.28 million sq. km.

    2. India is the 7th largest country in the world.

    3. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides India into two halves.

    4. The southernmost point of India is Indira Point.

    5. Indira Point submerged in 2004 Tsunami.

    6. India’s north-south extent is 3,214 km.

    7. India’s east-west extent is 2,933 km.

    8. The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′E.

    9. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar.

    10. India shares land boundaries with 7 countries.

  • Chapter 5: Democratic Rights, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a Fundamental Right?
    a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on farms ✅
    b) Christian missions set up schools ✅
    c) Men and women govt. employees get same salary ✅
    d) Parents’ property is inherited by children ❌ (This is a legal right, not a Fundamental Right.)


    Q2. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
    a) Freedom to criticise the government ✅
    b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution ❌
    c) Freedom to start a movement to change government ✅
    d) Freedom to oppose central values of Constitution ❌


    Q3. Which of the following rights is available under Indian Constitution?
    a) Right to work ❌
    b) Right to adequate livelihood ❌
    c) Right to protect one’s culture ✅
    d) Right to privacy ❌


    Q4. Name the Fundamental Right under which these fall:
    a) Freedom to propagate religion → Right to Freedom of Religion
    b) Right to life → Right to Freedom (Article 21)
    c) Abolition of untouchability → Right to Equality
    d) Ban on bonded labour → Right against Exploitation


    Q5. Which statement about democracy and rights is more valid? Why?
    Answer: (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
    Because rights are essential for democracy; without rights, elections and institutions are meaningless.


    Q6. Are these restrictions on freedom justified?
    a) Permission for border areas → ✅ Yes, for national security.
    b) Outsiders not allowed property in tribal areas → ✅ Yes, to protect locals.
    c) Ban on a book against ruling party → ❌ No, it curbs freedom of expression.


    Q7. Manoj denied MBA admission for being sweeper’s son. Which rights violated?
    Answer: Right to Equality (Article 14) and Right to Freedom (Article 19(1)(g) – freedom to profession).


    Q8. Madhurima asked to change surname after marriage. Who is right?
    Answer: Madhurima is right. Forcing her violates Right to Equality and Right to Personal Liberty.


    Q9. Tribals protesting displacement. Write petition, govt response, NHRC report.
    Answer:

    • Petition (Tribals): Displacement violates our Right to Livelihood and Cultural Rights.

    • Govt Response: Needed for development & wildlife protection.

    • NHRC Report: Govt must provide compensation, rehabilitation, and balance development with rights of tribals.


    Q10. Draw a web of rights (example):

    • Freedom of movement ↔ Freedom of occupation ↔ Livelihood.

    • Freedom of religion ↔ Cultural & Educational Rights.

    • Right to Life ↔ Right to Health, Education, Environment.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.
    Answer:

    1. Right to Equality – equality before law, no discrimination, abolition of untouchability.

    2. Right to Freedom – freedom of speech, movement, residence, occupation.

    3. Right against Exploitation – prohibits child labour, bonded labour, trafficking.

    4. Right to Freedom of Religion – freedom to practice, profess, and propagate religion.

    5. Cultural and Educational Rights – protection of language, culture of minorities, right to establish institutions.

    6. Right to Constitutional Remedies – to move courts if rights violated.


    Q2. Why are Fundamental Rights called the “heart and soul” of the Constitution?
    Answer:
    Because they guarantee citizens’ freedoms against misuse of power by state or majority. They make democracy meaningful by ensuring equality, dignity, and justice. Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies the “heart and soul” as it protects all rights.


    Q3. Differentiate between Fundamental Rights, Legal Rights, and Human Rights.
    Answer:

    • Fundamental Rights: Guaranteed by Constitution (equality, freedom, etc.).

    • Legal Rights: Given by laws (like Right to Information, Right to Vote).

    • Human Rights: Universal moral claims (right to food, health, livelihood).
      Fundamental Rights are enforceable in court; human rights may or may not be.


    Q4. How does the judiciary safeguard Fundamental Rights?
    Answer:
    Judiciary checks laws and govt actions through judicial review. It can strike down unconstitutional laws, enforce rights via writs, and even take up cases as Public Interest Litigation (PIL). Courts protect citizens against both govt and private violations.


    Q5. Discuss how the scope of rights has expanded in India.
    Answer:
    Courts and legislatures have widened rights:

    • Right to Education (2002) became a Fundamental Right.

    • Right to Information Act (2005) derived from freedom of expression.

    • Right to Life expanded to include right to food, health, environment.
      Human rights movements also demand rights like privacy, livelihood, and minimum wages.

    MCQs

    1. Fundamental Rights are given in Part:
      (a) II (b) III (c) IV (d) V
      Answer: (b)

    2. Untouchability is abolished under:
      (a) Art. 14 (b) Art. 17 (c) Art. 19 (d) Art. 21
      Answer: (b)

    3. Child labour is prohibited below age:
      (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 16
      Answer: (c)

    4. Right to Constitutional Remedies is under Article:
      (a) 32 (b) 19 (c) 14 (d) 21
      Answer: (a)

    5. Chairman of Drafting Committee:
      (a) Nehru (b) Ambedkar (c) Patel (d) Rajendra Prasad
      Answer: (b)

    6. Right to Education became Fundamental in:
      (a) 1995 (b) 2002 (c) 2010 (d) 2005
      Answer: (b)

    7. Who called Art. 32 the “heart and soul”?
      (a) Gandhi (b) Nehru (c) Ambedkar (d) Patel
      Answer: (c)

    8. Right to Information Act passed in:
      (a) 2002 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2010
      Answer: (c)

    9. Which right is not Fundamental in India?
      (a) Right to Property (b) Right to Equality (c) Right to Freedom (d) Right against Exploitation
      Answer: (a)

    10. National Human Rights Commission set up in:
      (a) 1989 (b) 1993 (c) 2000 (d) 1995
      Answer: (b)

    11. PIL means:
      (a) Public Interest Law (b) Public Interest Litigation (c) Public Information Law (d) People in Law
      Answer: (b)

    12. Secularism means:
      (a) State religion (b) Equality of all religions (c) Promotion of majority religion (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    13. Freedom of speech is restricted for:
      (a) Security (b) Public order (c) Decency (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    14. Which Fundamental Right protects minorities’ culture?
      (a) Right to Equality (b) Cultural & Educational Rights (c) Right to Freedom (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    15. Right to Life is under Article:
      (a) 14 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21
      Answer: (d)

    16. Who can issue writs for Fundamental Rights?
      (a) PM (b) Parliament (c) President (d) Courts
      Answer: (d)

    17. Right to Property is now a:
      (a) Fundamental Right (b) Legal Right (c) Human Right (d) Customary Right
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which organisation campaigns for human rights globally?
      (a) WHO (b) UNESCO (c) Amnesty International (d) UNDP
      Answer: (c)

    19. Which Fundamental Right allows forming unions?
      (a) Equality (b) Freedom (c) Remedies (d) Exploitation
      Answer: (b)

    20. Which right is not suspended during Emergency?
      (a) Right to Life (b) Freedom of Expression (c) Freedom of Assembly (d) Freedom of Movement
      Answer: (a)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Fundamental Rights are given in Part III of the Constitution.

    2. The Right to Equality includes abolition of untouchability.

    3. Article 21 guarantees Right to Life and Liberty.

    4. Right to Education is for children up to 14 years.

    5. Amnesty International works for human rights globally.

    6. PIL stands for Public Interest Litigation.

    7. NHRC was set up in 1993.

    8. Cultural and Educational Rights protect minorities.

    9. Right to Property is now a legal right.

    10. Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.

  • Chapter 4: Working of Institutions, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

    • (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister ❌

    • (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has majority in Lok Sabha ❌

    • (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both Houses ✅

    • (d) Nominate leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers ❌


    Q2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

    • (a) District Collector ❌

    • (b) Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs ❌

    • (c) Home Minister ✅

    • (d) Director General of Police ❌


    Q3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
    (a) Every law passed by Parliament needs approval of Supreme Court ❌ (False)
    (b) Judiciary can strike down a law against the Constitution ✅ (True)
    (c) Judiciary is independent of Executive ✅ (True)
    (d) Any citizen can approach courts if rights are violated ✅ (True)
    Answer: (a) is false.


    Q4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
    (a) Supreme Court ❌
    (b) President ❌
    (c) Prime Minister ❌
    (d) Parliament ✅


    Q5. Match the ministry with the news:

    • (a) Increase jute exports → (iv) Ministry of Commerce & Industry

    • (b) Telephone services in rural areas → (v) Ministry of Communications & IT

    • (c) Price of rice/wheat in PDS ↓ → (ii) Ministry of Agriculture, Food & Public Distribution

    • (d) Pulse polio campaign → (iii) Ministry of Health

    • (e) Allowances of soldiers ↑ → (i) Ministry of Defence


    Q6. Institutions and powers:
    a) Allocation of money for development → Parliament
    b) Committee on stock exchange law → Parliament
    c) Dispute between two state governments → Supreme Court
    d) Relief for earthquake victims → Political Executive (Government/Ministry)


    Q7. Why is the Prime Minister not directly elected by people?
    Answer:

    • (a) is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, only leader of majority in Lok Sabha becomes PM.

    • Direct election would be costly and may cause conflict between PM and Parliament.

    • Lok Sabha can remove PM before term ends, so accountability is ensured.


    Q8. Film showing CM ruling for one day:
    Imran → Wrong: one-man rule is dangerous.
    Rizwan → Correct: Personal rule without institutions is harmful.
    Shankar → Also correct: No minister can change everything in one day.


    Q9. Mock Parliament choice – Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?
    Answer: Lok Sabha, because it has greater powers in money matters, controls Council of Ministers, and can dismiss government.


    Q10. Reservation order – students’ views:

    • Srinivas: Wrong, judiciary is independent even if it agreed.

    • Anjaiah: Correct, judiciary showed independence and directed modification.

    • Vijaya: Also reasonable, judiciary acted as mediator.
      Best Answer: Anjaiah’s view is most accurate.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of Parliament in a democracy.
    Answer:
    Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It makes, changes, and abolishes laws. It controls the executive through questions, debates, and no-confidence motions. It controls finances by approving budgets. It is also the highest forum for discussion and debate on national issues. Lok Sabha, being directly elected, holds more power than Rajya Sabha, especially in money matters and government accountability. Parliament thus represents the voice of the people.


    Q2. What are the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India?
    Answer:
    The PM is head of government and leader of majority party in Lok Sabha. He chairs Cabinet meetings, coordinates ministries, settles disputes, and supervises work of ministers. He distributes portfolios and can dismiss ministers. All ministers work under his leadership. The PM represents India internationally and influences party and parliamentary affairs. His power depends on majority strength, coalition politics, and his personality.


    Q3. Distinguish between the political executive and the permanent executive. Why is political executive more powerful?
    Answer:

    • Political executive → Elected representatives like PM, ministers; hold office for limited period.

    • Permanent executive → Civil servants/bureaucrats; work for long term irrespective of government.
      Civil servants have expertise, but ministers take final decisions because they are accountable to people. Ministers reflect the will of the people in democracy, hence they are more powerful.


    Q4. Describe the composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
    Answer:
    The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body. It settles disputes between citizens, between citizens and government, and between governments. It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It has the power of judicial review – it can strike down unconstitutional laws. It protects fundamental rights and allows PILs. Judges are appointed by President in consultation with judiciary, and can be removed only by impeachment. Its independence makes it guardian of the Constitution.


    Q5. Why are political institutions necessary in a democracy?
    Answer:
    Institutions like Parliament, Executive, and Judiciary ensure smooth governance. They divide responsibilities: Parliament makes laws, Executive implements them, Judiciary interprets and checks them. Institutions prevent misuse of power and ensure accountability. They provide space for debate and consultation, making decisions more democratic. Though institutions cause delays, they protect democracy by preventing hasty and unfair decisions.


    MCQs

    1. Which body makes laws in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PM
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who is head of state in India?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Speaker (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    3. Who is head of government in India?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) CJI (d) Governor
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who chairs Cabinet meetings?
      (a) President (b) PM (c) Speaker (d) Vice President
      Answer: (b)

    5. Which House controls money matters?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both equally (d) President
      Answer: (a)

    6. Which House is permanent?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Who is Supreme Commander of defence forces?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Defence Minister (d) Army Chief
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who appoints judges of Supreme Court?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament (d) CJI alone
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tenure of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (b)

    10. Tenure of Rajya Sabha members:
      (a) 4 yrs (b) 5 yrs (c) 6 yrs (d) 7 yrs
      Answer: (c)

    11. Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) President (c) PM (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    12. Who heads Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) PM (c) Vice President (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    13. Which body can strike down unconstitutional laws?
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    14. Judicial review is power of:
      (a) President (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    15. Who makes final decisions in ministries?
      (a) Civil servants (b) Ministers (c) Secretaries (d) Courts
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which institution ensures accountability of Executive?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Judiciary (d) Election Commission
      Answer: (a)

    17. PM is appointed by:
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who can remove Supreme Court judges?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament via impeachment (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (c)

    19. “Guardian of Constitution” is:
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) PM (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    20. Parliamentary democracy is also called:
      (a) Presidential govt (b) Cabinet govt (c) Federal govt (d) Dictatorship
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Parliament is the supreme law-making body in India.

    2. The President of India is the head of state.

    3. The Prime Minister is the head of government.

    4. Lok Sabha has greater power in money matters.

    5. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.

    6. The President appoints the Prime Minister and judges.

    7. The Supreme Court has power of judicial review.

    8. Political executive is elected, permanent executive is appointed.

    9. Parliament controls finances and approves budgets.

    10. Judiciary protects Fundamental Rights of citizens.

  • Chapter 3: Electoral Politics, 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
    a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government. ✅ True
    b) People select the representative of their choice in an election. ✅ True
    c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary. ❌ False
    d) People can indicate which policies they prefer. ✅ True


    Q2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
    a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. ❌ Not a valid reason.
    b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful. ✅ Valid.
    c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote. ✅ Valid.
    d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict. ✅ Valid.


    Q3. Match the following:

    a) It is necessary to keep the voters’ list up to date → (iv) Some people may have moved away from the area.
    b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that → (i) There is fair representation of all sections.
    c) Everyone has one and only one vote so that → (ii) Everyone has equal opportunity to elect.
    d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because → (iii) All candidates must have a fair chance.


    Q4. List all election-related activities in sequence.

    1. Making of voters’ list

    2. Announcing election schedule

    3. Filing nominations

    4. Releasing election manifestos

    5. Election campaign

    6. Casting of votes

    7. Counting of votes

    8. Declaration of results

    9. Ordering of repoll (if required)


    Q5. Suppose Surekha is an election officer. What should she focus on?
    a) Election campaign – Ensure parties follow Model Code of Conduct, no bribery or misuse of power.
    b) Polling day – Ensure free and fair voting, no rigging or intimidation, secrecy of ballot maintained.
    c) Counting day – Ensure accurate and transparent counting in presence of agents.


    Q6. Should the US have reservations in Congress?
    Answer: Yes, because Blacks and Hispanics are underrepresented compared to their population. A system of reservation would ensure inclusiveness and fair representation, like India’s SC/ST reservations.


    Q7. Can we draw these conclusions?
    a) ECI does not have enough powers → ❌ Wrong, it has very wide powers.
    b) High participation in elections → ✅ True, turnout in India is higher than many countries.
    c) Easy for ruling party to win → ❌ Wrong, ruling parties often lose.
    d) Many reforms are needed → ✅ True, issues like money power, criminalisation remain.


    Q8. Chinappa and Satbir were disqualified. Does it go against democracy?
    → No, it supports democracy. People guilty of crimes like dowry torture and untouchability should not contest. It ensures clean politics.


    Q9. Reports of malpractices:
    a) Nigeria – Counting manipulation → Learn from India’s independent EC and transparency.
    b) Fiji – Threats to voters → Learn from India’s law against intimidation.
    c) USA – Different state procedures → Learn from India’s uniform nationwide election system.


    Q10. Malpractices in India:
    a) Minister promising aid → Misuse of government position. Correct: Model Code of Conduct enforcement.
    b) Opposition denied media → Bias in coverage. Correct: Ensure equal access.
    c) Fake names in rolls → Flawed voter list. Correct: Regular updates and verification.
    d) Party hoodlums with guns → Violence. Correct: Strong police and EC monitoring.


    Q11. Correct Ramesh’s misconceptions:
    a) Women always vote as told → ❌ Wrong. Women make independent choices.
    b) Elections by consensus, not competition → ❌ Wrong. Competition ensures accountability.
    c) Only graduates should contest → ❌ Wrong. Democracy allows equal opportunity.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional body that conducts elections. It supervises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and presidential elections. It ensures free and fair elections by preparing voter lists, monitoring campaigns, enforcing the Model Code of Conduct, and preventing misuse of power. It can order repolls, transfer officials, and punish violators. Its independence is protected by the Constitution, making it a strong guardian of democracy.


    Q2. Describe the election process in India step by step.
    Answer (160 words):

    1. Constituencies are demarcated.

    2. Voters’ list is prepared and updated.

    3. Candidates file nominations with security deposits.

    4. Election campaigns are conducted, parties release manifestos.

    5. Polling takes place using EVMs, voters cast votes secretly.

    6. Counting is done under EC supervision.

    7. Results are declared, winners form government.
      This process ensures participation, fairness, and accountability.


    Q3. What are the major challenges of Indian elections?
    Answer (150 words):

    • Use of money power.

    • Criminalisation of politics.

    • Family dominance in parties.

    • Unequal playing field for independents.

    • Misuse of government resources.
      Despite these, Indian elections remain largely free and fair. Reforms like stricter expenditure limits, banning criminals, and more transparency are needed.


    Q4. Why are elections considered essential in a democracy?
    Answer (150 words):
    Elections are the means through which people choose representatives, change governments, and influence policies. They ensure accountability, equality (one person, one vote), and peaceful transfer of power. Without elections, democracy cannot function. They act as a mechanism for people’s consent and provide legitimacy to the government.


    Q5. “Elections in India are both free and fair but face limitations.” Discuss.
    Answer (160 words):
    Indian elections are largely free and fair due to the independent Election Commission, universal franchise, secret ballot, and regular participation. Ruling parties often lose, showing fairness. However, limitations exist: money power, muscle power, fake voters, and lack of choice. Thus, while the system is democratic, reforms are needed to make it fully fair.


    MCQs

    1. Who conducts elections in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Election Commission (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    2. Minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b)

    3. Minimum age to contest elections in India:
      (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30
      Answer: (c)

    4. What is an electoral roll?
      (a) Candidate list (b) Voters’ list (c) Party list (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lok Sabha constituencies in India:
      (a) 500 (b) 543 (c) 550 (d) 552
      Answer: (b)

    6. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for SCs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 100 (d) 90
      Answer: (a)

    7. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for STs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b)

    8. Model Code of Conduct prevents use of:
      (a) Religion, caste (b) Money, bribery (c) Government resources (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    9. Who can order a repoll?
      (a) Government (b) Election Commission (c) High Court (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which voting system is used in India?
      (a) Open ballot (b) Secret ballot (c) Lottery (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    11. When was EVM first used?
      (a) 1977 (b) 1982 (c) 2004 (d) 1999
      Answer: (b) (Kerala, 1982)

    12. A by-election means:
      (a) National election (b) State election (c) Election for one seat due to vacancy (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    13. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Judiciary
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which law caps candidate spending in Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Representation of People Act (b) Election Reform Act (c) Parliament Act (d) None
      Answer: (a)

    15. Election day is when voters:
      (a) Count votes (b) Cast votes (c) Campaign (d) File nomination
      Answer: (b)

    16. Independent candidates are given:
      (a) Party ticket (b) Party symbol (c) EC allotted symbol (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    17. “Garibi Hatao” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1967 (b) 1971 (c) 1977 (d) 1980
      Answer: (b)

    18. “Save Democracy” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1977 (b) 1980 (c) 1984 (d) 1991
      Answer: (a)

    19. Which organisation introduced EPIC (Voter ID)?
      (a) EC (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PMO
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who supervises polling inside booths?
      (a) Police (b) Candidate agents (c) Election officials (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India has 543 Lok Sabha constituencies.

    2. Election Commission of India conducts elections.

    3. Minimum age to contest elections is 25 years.

    4. The voters’ list is also called the electoral roll.

    5. 84 seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for SCs.

    6. 47 seats are reserved for STs.

    7. The ruling party cannot use government resources for campaigning.

    8. EVMs are used for voting in India.

    9. The process of holding elections in one seat due to vacancy is called by-election.

    10. Model Code of Conduct guides election campaigns.

  • Chapter 2: Constitutional Design, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite correctly.
    a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about democracy.
    → Mistake: They were committed to democracy.
    Correct: Leaders were committed to making India a democracy.

    b) Members of the Constituent Assembly held the same views.
    → Mistake: They had diverse opinions.
    Correct: Members had many different views but reached consensus.

    c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.
    → Mistake: Some non-democracies also have constitutions.
    Correct: All democracies have constitutions, but not all countries with constitutions are democratic.

    d) Constitution cannot be amended.
    → Mistake: It can be amended.
    Correct: Constitution can be amended to suit changing needs.


    Q2. Most salient conflict in South Africa’s constitution-making?
    → Conflict between the white minority and the black majority.


    Q3. Which provision is not found in a democratic constitution?
    → (d) Name of the country.


    Q4. Match the leaders:

    • Motilal Nehru → (iv) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

    • B.R. Ambedkar → (iii) Chairman of the Drafting Committee

    • Rajendra Prasad → (i) President of the Constituent Assembly

    • Sarojini Naidu → (ii) Member of the Constituent Assembly


    Q5. Read Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ and answer:
    a) Why “not wholly or in full measure”?
    → Because India had achieved independence, but social and economic challenges remained.

    b) What pledge?
    → To dedicate themselves to service of India, end poverty, ignorance, and inequality.

    c) “The greatest man of our generation”?
    Mahatma Gandhi.


    Q6. Guiding values – Match:

    • Sovereign → (ii) People have supreme right to make decisions.

    • Republic → (iii) Head of state is elected.

    • Fraternity → (iv) People should live like brothers and sisters.

    • Secular → (i) Government does not favour any religion.


    Q7. Constitution Day celebration report (example):
    On 26 November, our school organised a special assembly. Students read the Preamble aloud. Teachers explained its meaning. Poster-making and essay competitions were held. We pledged to follow constitutional values.


    Q8. Opinions about India’s democracy:
    a) Gift of British → Limited importance, since democracy in India was shaped by freedom struggle.
    b) Freedom struggle → Very important, it rooted democracy in Indian soil.
    c) Leadership → Equally important, as leaders ensured democratic principles.


    Q9. Extract about women (1912 conduct book). Does it reflect constitutional values?
    → No. It goes against constitutional values of equality, dignity, and gender justice.


    Q10. Statements about constitution – True or Not True:
    a) Authority same as other laws → ❌ Not true, Constitution is supreme.
    b) Constitution lays down government organs → ✅ True.
    c) Rights of citizens and limits on power in Constitution → ✅ True.
    d) Constitution is about institutions, not values → ❌ Not true, it is about both.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Why do we need a Constitution?
    Answer: A constitution provides basic rules for governance. It establishes trust among diverse groups, specifies how governments are formed, limits powers of rulers, and guarantees rights of citizens. It also reflects aspirations of people for justice, equality, and liberty. Without a constitution, democracy cannot function smoothly.


    Q2. Explain the circumstances in which the Indian Constitution was made.
    Answer: India’s Constitution was drafted under difficult conditions:

    • Partition violence killed lakhs.

    • Over 500 princely states had to be integrated.

    • Citizens were moving from being subjects to citizens.
      Yet leaders had the advantage of shared ideals from the freedom struggle and prior experience of legislatures under colonial rule. They drew inspiration from global democratic ideals but adapted them to Indian needs.


    Q3. Describe the role of the Constituent Assembly.
    Answer: The Constituent Assembly of India, elected in 1946, had 299 members. It represented diverse social groups, regions, and ideologies. It functioned in a democratic, open, and consensual way. Under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, it debated for 3 years, considered over 2000 amendments, and finally adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949. This ensured its legitimacy.


    Q4. Discuss the guiding values of the Indian Constitution as reflected in the Preamble.
    Answer: The Preamble expresses foundational values:

    • Sovereign – India is free from external control.

    • Socialist – Aim of reducing inequality.

    • Secular – Equal respect to all religions.

    • Democratic – Rule by elected representatives.

    • Republic – Head of state is elected.
      It also ensures justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens. These values guide governance and serve as a standard to judge laws.


    Q5. How did South Africa achieve its democratic constitution?
    Answer: South Africa suffered under apartheid, where the black majority was oppressed. Nelson Mandela and the ANC led protests. Finally, the white regime agreed to majority rule, while blacks assured whites of property rights. A new constitution (1994) granted equal rights to all, ending apartheid. This constitution became a global model of reconciliation, justice, and democracy.


    MCQs

    1. The supreme law of a country is called:
      (a) Legislature (b) Constitution (c) Preamble (d) Parliament
      Answer: (b)

    2. Apartheid was practiced in:
      (a) India (b) USA (c) South Africa (d) China
      Answer: (c)

    3. Nelson Mandela was imprisoned for:
      (a) 15 years (b) 27 years (c) 20 years (d) 30 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. Which party led the anti-apartheid struggle?
      (a) African Unity Party (b) ANC (c) Communist Party of India (d) PAC
      Answer: (b)

    5. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:
      (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 2 October 1950
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
      (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Nehru (d) Patel
      Answer: (b)

    7. President of the Constituent Assembly was:
      (a) Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) Patel (d) Ambedkar
      Answer: (b)

    8. Universal adult franchise means:
      (a) Only men vote (b) Only rich vote (c) All adults vote equally (d) Only educated vote
      Answer: (c)

    9. Indian Constitution was influenced by:
      (a) French Revolution (b) US Bill of Rights (c) British Parliament (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    10. India celebrates Republic Day on:
      (a) 15 Aug (b) 26 Jan (c) 2 Oct (d) 14 Nov
      Answer: (b)

    11. Constitution can be changed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament through amendments (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    12. Preamble reflects:
      (a) Philosophy of Constitution (b) Rules of election (c) Economic policy (d) Budget
      Answer: (a)

    13. “Tryst with Destiny” speech was given by:
      (a) Ambedkar (b) Nehru (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Patel
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which value was added by 42nd Amendment?
      (a) Socialist & Secular (b) Democratic & Republic (c) Sovereign & Equality (d) Justice & Liberty
      Answer: (a)

    15. How many amendments were discussed in Constituent Assembly?
      (a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 2000+ (d) 100
      Answer: (c)

    16. Constitution was adopted on:
      (a) 15 Aug 1947 (b) 26 Nov 1949 (c) 26 Jan 1950 (d) 2 Oct 1947
      Answer: (b)

    17. Who gave the slogan to wipe every tear from every eye?
      (a) Gandhi (b) Nehru (c) Patel (d) Ambedkar
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which right was emphasised in South Africa’s constitution?
      (a) Racial privilege (b) Equal rights for all (c) Dictatorship (d) Censorship
      Answer: (b)

    19. “We, the People of India…” appears in:
      (a) Directive Principles (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Preamble (d) Schedule
      Answer: (c)

    20. Number of members in Indian Constituent Assembly?
      (a) 500 (b) 299 (c) 450 (d) 350
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Apartheid was the system of racial segregation in South Africa.

    2. The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.

    3. It came into effect on 26 January 1950.

    4. The Constituent Assembly had 299 members.

    5. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

    6. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly.

    7. Preamble is called the soul of the Constitution.

    8. The South African struggle was led by the African National Congress.

    9. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic are key words of the Preamble.

    10. India celebrates Republic Day on 26 January every year.

  • Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9th, Political Science

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote. Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years. Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections. Country D: There is no independent Election Commission. Classify them.
    Answer:

    • Country A – Undemocratic (excludes people on religious basis).

    • Country B – Not sure (could be democratic, but repeated wins may hint unfairness).

    • Country C – Democratic (shows ruling party can lose).

    • Country D – Undemocratic (elections not free and fair).


    Q2. Country P: Parliament cannot pass a law about the army without army chief’s consent. Country Q: Parliament cannot pass a law reducing judiciary’s powers. Country R: Leaders cannot sign treaties without neighbouring country’s permission. Country S: Economic decisions are taken only by central bank officials. Classify.
    Answer:

    • Country P – Undemocratic (army controls government).

    • Country Q – Democratic (judiciary’s independence is protected).

    • Country R – Undemocratic (loss of sovereignty).

    • Country S – Not sure (technical experts may decide, but ministers must remain accountable).


    Q3. Which of these is not a good argument for democracy?
    a) People feel free and equal
    b) Democracies resolve conflict better
    c) Democratic government is more accountable
    d) Democracies are more prosperous
    Answer: (d) Democracies are not always more prosperous than others.


    Q4. Separate democratic and undemocratic elements in the statements:
    a) WTO requires laws – Undemocratic; Parliament passes laws – Democratic.
    b) Re-polling ordered – Democratic; Rigging happened – Undemocratic.
    c) Women’s demand for 1/3 seats – Democratic; Only 10% women present – Undemocratic.


    Q5. Which is not a valid reason that famines are less likely in democracy?
    Answer: (d) People are free to believe in any religion. (Religion is unrelated to famine.)


    Q6. Villagers without drinking water used methods to pressure government. Which is not democratic?
    Answer: (d) Paying bribes to officials.


    Q7. Write responses to arguments against democracy:
    a) Army rule is better – Wrong, because armies are not accountable to people.
    b) Rule of majority = ignorant rule – Wrong, democracy respects equality and collective wisdom.
    c) Religious leaders should rule – Wrong, politics mixed with religion excludes others and becomes undemocratic.


    Q8. Are these statements democratic?
    a) Father denies daughter’s opinion – Undemocratic.
    b) Teacher stops student’s questions – Undemocratic.
    c) Employee demands legal working hours – Democratic.


    Q9. A country with elections, but loans dictate policy, only one language used, leaders arrested, and press censored. Is it a democracy?
    Answer: No, because despite elections, freedom, equality, and rights are denied.


    Q10. Write an essay on Democracy and Poverty (based on US & Indian examples).
    Answer (short):
    Democracy allows participation, but poverty often limits it. In the US, wealthier people influence politics more. In India too, the poor struggle to make their voices heard. Yet democracy gives the poor opportunities through elections, protests, and court petitions. Democracy must reduce inequality to be meaningful.


    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain four major features of democracy with examples.
    Answer:

    1. Elected rulers – Leaders chosen by citizens (India, not Myanmar under military).

    2. Free and fair elections – Real choice of parties (India vs. China’s one-party rule).

    3. One person, one vote, one value – Universal adult franchise (India vs. Fiji’s unequal votes).

    4. Rule of law and rights – Leaders bound by Constitution and rights (Zimbabwe lacked this).


    Q2. Why is democracy considered the best form of government?
    Answer:

    • Ensures accountability of rulers.

    • Improves decision-making through consultation.

    • Peacefully resolves conflicts in diverse societies.

    • Enhances dignity of citizens.

    • Allows correction of mistakes.


    Q3. Explain any five arguments against democracy. Do you agree?
    Answer:

    1. Frequent changes cause instability.

    2. Decision-making is slow.

    3. Leaders may lack knowledge.

    4. Corruption due to elections.

    5. Ordinary people may not know best.
      While these are challenges, they can be improved within democracy. Other forms like dictatorship remove freedom and accountability, so democracy is still better.


    Q4. Distinguish between a democracy and dictatorship with examples.
    Answer:

    • Rulers: Elected by people in democracy (India), by force in dictatorship (Hitler’s Germany).

    • Elections: Free and fair in democracy, sham in dictatorship.

    • Rights: Citizens enjoy freedom in democracy; restricted in dictatorship.

    • Accountability: Governments answerable to people in democracy, not in dictatorship.


    Q5. “Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.” Explain.
    Answer:
    In democracy, every citizen has equal status regardless of wealth or education. People are rulers of their own destiny, not subjects of a monarch. This equality enhances dignity. Even the poorest voter’s choice counts as much as the richest. Citizens participate in decision-making and can criticise or replace leaders, which gives them self-respect.


    MCQs

    1. The word democracy comes from Greek words meaning:
      (a) Rule by law (b) Rule by the people (c) Rule by king (d) Rule by priests
      Answer: (b)

    2. In Pakistan, power rested finally with:
      (a) Parliament (b) General Musharraf (c) People (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    3. Elections in China are held every:
      (a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. PRI dominated elections in which country till 2000?
      (a) Mexico (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    5. Women got voting rights in Saudi Arabia only after:
      (a) 1950 (b) 2000 (c) 2015 (d) 1995
      Answer: (c)

    6. In Fiji, whose votes had more value?
      (a) Indian-Fijians (b) Indigenous Fijians (c) Women (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Robert Mugabe ruled which country?
      (a) Zambia (b) Zimbabwe (c) South Africa (d) Nigeria
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which feature ensures equality in democracy?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Universal adult franchise (c) Federalism (d) Elections
      Answer: (b)

    9. In democracy, rulers must:
      (a) Be nominated by king (b) Be elected by people (c) Be chosen by army (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which body ensures constitutional limits on government?
      (a) Army (b) Judiciary (c) Police (d) Media
      Answer: (b)

    11. Democracy in India is:
      (a) Direct (b) Representative (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
      Answer: (b)

    12. The famine in China (1958–61) showed failure of:
      (a) Dictatorship (b) Democracy (c) Army (d) Market
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which argument is NOT valid for democracy?
      (a) Provides dignity (b) Ensures accountability (c) More prosperous (d) Resolves conflicts
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who said democracy is “government of the people, by the people, for the people”?
      (a) Lincoln (b) Aristotle (c) Plato (d) Gandhi
      Answer: (a)

    15. In democracy, people are:
      (a) Subjects (b) Rulers themselves (c) Slaves (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which feature of democracy protects minorities?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Free elections (c) Equality of vote (d) Consultation & constitutional limits
      Answer: (d)

    17. Which is NOT an example of free and fair elections?
      (a) China’s one-party system
      (b) India’s multi-party elections
      (c) Mexico post-2000 elections
      (d) USA elections
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which feature distinguishes democracy from monarchy?
      (a) King rules by birth (b) Rulers elected by people (c) Both a & b (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    19. The principle “one person, one vote, one value” is linked to:
      (a) Equality (b) Liberty (c) Justice (d) Sovereignty
      Answer: (a)

    20. Democracy allows correction of:
      (a) Natural disasters (b) Its own mistakes (c) Poverty automatically (d) None
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Democracy means rule by the people.

    2. In Pakistan, General Musharraf held power through a coup.

    3. Elections in China allow only the Communist Party candidates.

    4. The PRI ruled Mexico continuously till 2000.

    5. Universal adult franchise means one person, one vote, one value.

    6. Robert Mugabe was the leader of Zimbabwe.

    7. Democracy ensures rule of law and citizens’ rights.

    8. The Judiciary protects fundamental rights.

    9. The famine in China killed nearly 3 crore people.

    10. Abraham Lincoln gave the famous definition of democracy.

  • Chapter 7: Factors of Production, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. How are the factors of production different from each other? What are the difficulties you faced in classifying the factors of production in the exercise given in-text?
    Answer:
    Factors of production differ in nature:

    • Land: Natural resources like soil, water, minerals.

    • Labour: Human effort, both physical and mental.

    • Capital: Man-made resources like tools, machinery, and money.

    • Entrepreneurship: The initiative to organise the other three factors.

    Difficulties: Some resources overlap. For example, technology can be classified as capital, but it also acts as a facilitator. Similarly, knowledge belongs to labour but is also counted under human capital.


    Q2. How does human capital differ from physical capital?
    Answer:

    • Human capital: Knowledge, skills, health, and abilities of people that make them productive.

    • Physical capital: Tangible assets like machinery, tools, and buildings.
      Human capital cannot be seen or touched but is vital for using physical capital effectively. Without skilled workers, machines remain underutilised.


    Q3. How do you think technology is changing how people develop their skills and knowledge?
    Answer:
    Technology has transformed learning and skill development by:

    • Providing online courses (like SWAYAM, MOOCs).

    • Offering virtual training and simulations for jobs.

    • Allowing access to global resources via the internet.

    • Helping people upgrade skills flexibly while working.
      Thus, technology has made knowledge more accessible, affordable, and widespread.


    Q4. If you could learn one skill today, what would it be and why?
    Answer (sample):
    If I could learn one skill, it would be coding. Coding is important in today’s digital world. It opens opportunities in jobs like app development, robotics, and artificial intelligence. Learning coding would also help me solve real-life problems with technology and keep pace with modern innovations.


    Q5. Do you think entrepreneurship is the ‘driving force’ of production? Why or why not?
    Answer:
    Yes, entrepreneurship is the driving force because entrepreneurs bring together land, labour, and capital to create goods and services. They take risks, make decisions, and innovate to solve problems. Without entrepreneurship, the other factors remain unused or poorly utilised. However, entrepreneurship needs support like finance, skills, and favourable policies.


    Q6. Can technology replace other factors like labour? Is this good or bad? Support your answer with the help of an example.
    Answer:
    Technology can replace some labour, e.g., machines harvesting crops instead of farmers. This increases efficiency but can reduce jobs. However, technology also creates new opportunities, such as software development or drone operation. Thus, it is both good and bad—good for productivity but challenging for employment unless workers upgrade skills.


    Q7. How do education and skill training affect human capital? Can they substitute for each other, or do they complement each other?
    Answer:
    Education builds knowledge, while skill training develops practical abilities. They complement each other because:

    • Education provides theory, training provides application.

    • Both are needed for a productive workforce.
      For example, a doctor requires medical education (theory) and hospital training (practice). They cannot substitute for each other.


    Q8. Imagine you want to start a business that produces steel water bottles. What kind of inputs are needed? How would you obtain them? Suppose one of the factors is missing; what happens to your business operations?
    Answer:
    Inputs needed:

    • Land (factory space),

    • Labour (skilled workers),

    • Capital (machines, money),

    • Entrepreneurship (to organise).

    If any factor is missing:

    • No land → no place for production.

    • No labour → machines remain unused.

    • No capital → cannot buy raw materials.

    • No entrepreneurship → no vision to run the business.
      Thus, all factors are interconnected and essential.


    Q9. Interview an entrepreneur or founder to understand their motivation to start a business and the opportunities and challenges they saw.
    Answer (sample):
    I interviewed a bakery owner. She said her motivation was her love for baking and demand for fresh bread in the area. Opportunities included a growing customer base and scope for online delivery. Challenges were lack of funds, rising raw material costs, and competition. Her success came from innovation (unique cakes) and good customer service.


    Q10. Think like an economist. Suppose you are Ratna (restaurant owner). How would you handle these situations?

    • Rent doubles: Shift to a cheaper place or raise prices slightly.

    • Worker quits: Hire a replacement quickly or distribute tasks temporarily.

    • Loan for new technology: Invest in modern kitchen equipment to improve quality and efficiency.

    • New restaurant nearby: Improve service, maintain quality, and innovate with new dishes.

    • Ease of business laws: Advocate for simpler licensing and lower taxes to help small businesses grow.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Name the four main factors of production.
      → Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneurship.

    2. What is human capital?
      → Skills, knowledge, and health of people that make them productive.

    3. Give one example of capital.
      → Machinery in a factory.

    4. Who is called an entrepreneur?
      → A person who takes risks, innovates, and organises factors of production.

    5. Name two facilitators of human capital.
      → Education and healthcare.


    🔹 Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the interdependence of factors of production with suitable examples.
    Answer (150 words):
    All factors of production—land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship—are interdependent. For example, in agriculture, land is required for farming, labour for cultivation, capital for tractors, and entrepreneurship to manage resources. In industries, machines (capital) cannot function without skilled workers (labour). Similarly, an entrepreneur cannot succeed without land, funds, and skilled people. Modern technology further links all these factors by increasing efficiency. If one factor is missing, production suffers. Hence, production is a teamwork of all factors.


    Q2. Discuss the role of human capital in production.
    Answer (150 words):
    Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge, health, and abilities of people. It is the most important factor because it decides how effectively land, labour, and capital are used. For example, skilled farmers produce more from the same land than unskilled ones. Engineers use machines more productively than untrained workers. Education, training, and healthcare improve human capital, making workers efficient. Without healthy and educated people, machines and resources remain underutilised. Thus, human capital drives innovation, productivity, and economic growth.


    Q3. “Entrepreneurship is the engine of economic growth.” Justify this statement.
    Answer (160 words):
    Entrepreneurship is the driving force of production because entrepreneurs take risks and combine land, labour, and capital to produce goods and services. They innovate by creating new products and services that improve people’s lives. For example, J.R.D. Tata built industries in steel, airlines, and automobiles, contributing to India’s development. Entrepreneurs also create jobs, support supply chains, and generate income for society. They promote competition, efficiency, and global trade. Without entrepreneurship, resources remain idle, and economic growth slows. Thus, entrepreneurship acts as the engine of growth.


    MCQs

    1. Which is not a factor of production?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Money spent in markets
      Answer: (d)

    2. Human capital refers to:
      (a) Machines (b) Money (c) Skills and knowledge (d) Raw materials
      Answer: (c)

    3. Which factor of production is called “nature’s gift”?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who among the following is an entrepreneur?
      (a) Worker (b) Factory owner (c) Innovator taking risks (d) Engineer only
      Answer: (c)

    5. Which of these is physical capital?
      (a) Education (b) Healthcare (c) Machines (d) Training
      Answer: (c)

    6. Who was the founder of Air India?
      (a) Tata Sons (b) J.R.D. Tata (c) Birla (d) Narayana Murthy
      Answer: (b)

    7. Which system trains people in specific job skills?
      (a) Education (b) Training (c) Culture (d) Motivation
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which country applies the concept of kaizen for continuous improvement?
      (a) India (b) China (c) Japan (d) Germany
      Answer: (c)

    9. Which resource includes soil, forests, and minerals?
      (a) Labour (b) Land (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (b)

    10. SWAYAM platform is used for:
      (a) Banking (b) Online courses (c) Farming (d) Trading
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship are the main factors of production.

    2. Skills, knowledge, and health are part of human capital.

    3. Machines and tools are examples of physical capital.

    4. Entrepreneurs are the risk-takers and organisers.

    5. J.R.D. Tata received the Bharat Ratna in 1992.

    6. The Japanese concept of continuous improvement is called kaizen.

    7. The Great Famine of 1876–78 showed the dangers of poor agricultural systems.

    8. Online courses under the Government are available on SWAYAM.

    9. The Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha.

    10. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) became mandatory in 2014.


    True/False

    1. Land includes natural resources like water, soil, and minerals. ✅

    2. Human capital and physical capital mean the same thing. ❌

    3. Entrepreneurs only work for profit. ❌

    4. Technology can act as a facilitator of production. ✅

    5. SWAYAM is an online education platform. ✅

    6. Capital includes both money and man-made resources. ✅

    7. Kaizen refers to a German work ethic. ❌ (It is Japanese)

    8. India is the world’s largest mobile phone manufacturer. ❌ (Second after China)

    9. CSR requires companies to spend part of their profits on social activities. ✅

    10. A healthy and skilled population increases productivity. ✅

  • Chapter 6: The Parliamentary System – Legislature and Executive, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Find out how many representatives from your state are in each House of the Parliament.
    Answer:
    The number of representatives from each state in the Lok Sabha depends on its population. For example:

    • Uttar Pradesh has the maximum with 80 Lok Sabha MPs.

    • Smaller states like Sikkim, Nagaland, and Mizoram have 1 Lok Sabha MP each.

    • In the Rajya Sabha, representation is also based on population. For example, Uttar Pradesh sends 31 members, while smaller states like Goa send 1 member.
      (Students must check their own state’s Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha representation for the most accurate number.)

    Q2. What makes the Indian Parliament the “voice of the people”? How does it ensure that different opinions are heard?
    Answer:
    The Indian Parliament is called the “voice of the people” because it directly represents citizens through their elected members. Every citizen above 18 years votes to elect MPs, who then speak for them in Parliament. Different political parties, regional groups, and communities are represented. Parliamentary debates, Question Hour, and committees allow diverse opinions to be discussed before decisions are made. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs ensures even marginalised groups are heard. This inclusiveness makes Parliament a true reflection of India’s diversity.

    Q3. Why do you think the Constitution made the Executive responsible to the Legislature?
    Answer:
    The Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) is responsible to the Legislature (Lok Sabha) to ensure accountability. Since the Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people, making the Executive answerable to it means the government must work according to the people’s will. Mechanisms like Question Hour, motions of no-confidence, and committee reports ensure that ministers explain and justify their actions. This prevents misuse of power and keeps democracy healthy.

    Q4. Why do you think we have chosen the system of bicameral legislature at the Union level?
    Answer:
    India has a bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to balance representation and ensure better law-making.

    • The Lok Sabha represents people directly.

    • The Rajya Sabha represents the states and ensures their interests are not ignored.
      This system provides checks and balances, prevents hasty decisions, and reflects India’s federal structure. Two houses also allow for deeper debates and review of bills before they become law.

    Q5. Track the journey of a recent bill passed by the Parliament.
    Answer (example: Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023):

    • Introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Lok Sabha on 20 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Rajya Sabha on 21 September 2023.

    • Sent to the President for assent and became law shortly after.
      This bill reserved 33% of seats for women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies. The journey shows how bills are introduced, debated in both houses, and require presidential assent before becoming law.

    Q6. Why might it have taken over 25 years for the Women’s Reservation Bill to be passed, despite wide support?
    Answer:
    The Women’s Reservation Bill was first introduced in 1996 but faced repeated delays due to:

    • Lack of consensus among political parties.

    • Debates about sub-reservation for women from OBC and minority communities.

    • Political hesitation, as many leaders feared losing their constituencies.
      Only in 2023, after decades of discussions, was there enough agreement to pass it. This shows that even popular reforms take time because Parliament must balance many different interests.

    Q7. Sometimes Parliament is disrupted and does not function for the number of days it is supposed to. What impact does this have?
    Answer:
    Disruptions reduce the productivity of Parliament. Important bills get delayed or passed without proper debate. People lose trust in their representatives, as time and taxpayer money are wasted. Healthy discussions, which are the essence of democracy, are lost. This weakens the quality of laws and prevents Parliament from being the true “voice of the people.”

    Q8. What is the role that the Judiciary plays in Indian democracy? What could happen if we didn’t have an independent judiciary?
    Answer:
    The Judiciary interprets laws, protects Fundamental Rights, and checks the powers of the Legislature and Executive. It ensures that government actions follow the Constitution. Without an independent judiciary, there would be no safeguard against misuse of power, corruption, or violation of rights. Democracy would collapse into dictatorship.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. What is a bicameral legislature?
      → A system with two houses, e.g., Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

    2. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
      → The Speaker.

    3. Who is the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha?
      → The Vice President of India.

    4. What is Question Hour?
      → The first hour of a Parliamentary session when MPs question ministers about government policies.

    5. What is a Money Bill?
      → A bill related to taxation or government expenditure that can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the law-making process in the Indian Parliament.
    Answer (150–170 words):
    A law begins as a bill. It can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, except a Money Bill which can only start in the Lok Sabha.

    1. The bill is introduced and goes through its first reading.

    2. It is then debated and discussed clause by clause.

    3. It may be referred to a standing committee for detailed study.

    4. After discussion, it is put to vote.

    5. If passed, the bill moves to the other House where the process is repeated.

    6. After both houses pass it, the bill goes to the President for assent.
      Once signed, it becomes a law and is published in the Gazette of India.

    This process ensures thorough scrutiny, debate, and accountability, reflecting the democratic spirit of Parliament.


    Q2. Compare the Legislature and the Executive in India.
    Answer (150–160 words):
    The Legislature (Parliament) makes laws, while the Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) implements them.

    • Composition: The Legislature consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The Executive consists of the President, Vice President, and Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister.

    • Role: The Legislature debates, passes laws, and controls finances. The Executive runs the government, enforces laws, and prepares policies.

    • Accountability: The Executive is responsible to the Lok Sabha and must answer questions or face a no-confidence motion.

    • Checks: The Legislature monitors the Executive through Question Hour and committees, while the Executive introduces most bills.

    Thus, while both are interconnected, the Legislature represents the people and checks the Executive, ensuring democratic balance.


    Q3. What challenges does the Indian Parliament face today? Suggest measures to overcome them.
    Answer (150–180 words):
    Challenges include frequent disruptions, low productivity, absenteeism of MPs, and poor quality of debates. Many bills are rushed without proper discussion. Another challenge is the presence of MPs with criminal cases, which reduces public trust. Excessive influence of money and power in elections also affects representation.

    Measures:

    • Strict rules against disruptions and stronger enforcement by the Speaker/Chairman.

    • Encouraging MPs to attend and participate in debates.

    • Ensuring pre-legislative consultations and referring more bills to committees.

    • Banning candidates with serious criminal charges.

    • Strengthening transparency and public involvement.

    By tackling these issues, Parliament can truly become the voice of the people and a model of democratic governance.


    MCQs

    1. The Indian Parliament consists of:
      (a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
      (b) President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      (c) President and Lok Sabha only
      (d) Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      Answer: (b)

    2. The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is:
      (a) Vice President
      (b) Prime Minister
      (c) Speaker
      (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    3. The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Vice President
      (c) President
      (d) Deputy Speaker
      Answer: (b)

    4. A Money Bill can be introduced only in:
      (a) Lok Sabha
      (b) Rajya Sabha
      (c) Either House
      (d) State Assembly
      Answer: (a)

    5. Who gives assent to bills passed by Parliament?
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Speaker
      (c) President
      (d) Chief Justice
      Answer: (c)

    6. Which article provides for Parliament?
      (a) Article 50
      (b) Article 79
      (c) Article 100
      (d) Article 356
      Answer: (b)

    7. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 500
      (b) 550
      (c) 552
      (d) 600
      Answer: (c) 552

    8. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) 250
      (b) 245
      (c) 260
      (d) 270
      Answer: (a) 250

    9. The term of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years
      (b) 5 years
      (c) 6 years
      (d) 3 years
      Answer: (b)

    10. The Rajya Sabha is also called:
      (a) Upper House
      (b) Permanent House
      (c) House of States
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552.

    2. The Vice President of India is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

    3. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    4. The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha sessions.

    5. The Question Hour is the first hour of a Parliamentary session.

    6. The President must give assent before a bill becomes law.

    7. The Rajya Sabha represents the states of India.

    8. Lal Bahadur Shastri resigned as Railway Minister in 1956, showing moral responsibility.

    9. India’s Parliament is based on the British model.

    10. The Judiciary ensures checks and balances in democracy.


    True/False

    1. The Lok Sabha is also called the House of the People. ✅

    2. Rajya Sabha members are elected directly by the citizens. ❌

    3. The President is the real executive authority of India. ❌

    4. The Prime Minister is the de facto head of the Executive. ✅

    5. Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. ❌

    6. Money Bills can be introduced in either House. ❌

    7. The Speaker presides over the Rajya Sabha. ❌

    8. Judiciary protects the Constitution and citizens’ rights. ✅

    9. Disruptions in Parliament increase its productivity. ❌

    10. Question Hour ensures accountability of the Executive. ✅

  • Chapter 5: Universal Franchise and India’s Electoral System, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Why is universal adult franchise important for a healthy democracy?
    Answer:
    Universal adult franchise means that every citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote, regardless of caste, gender, religion, income, or education. It is important because:

    • It ensures equality, giving everyone an equal voice in choosing representatives.

    • It allows people to decide their future by electing leaders of their choice.

    • It makes representatives accountable to all citizens, not just the wealthy or powerful.

    • It strengthens participation and civic engagement, making democracy inclusive.


    Q2. What is the meaning of ‘secret ballot’? Why is this important in a democracy?
    Answer:
    A secret ballot means that no one can know whom a voter has voted for. Each person votes privately inside a booth.
    It is important because:

    • It protects voters from pressure, fear, or bribery.

    • It ensures free choice, as people can vote honestly without influence.

    • It upholds the principle of fairness and strengthens trust in democracy.


    Q3. Give examples of direct and indirect elections.
    Answer:

    • Direct elections: Voters elect representatives directly. Examples: Lok Sabha elections, State Legislative Assembly elections, local body elections.

    • Indirect elections: Representatives are elected by already elected members. Examples: Rajya Sabha elections (by MLAs), President of India (by MPs and MLAs), Vice President of India (by MPs).


    Q4. How is the election of members to the Lok Sabha different from that to the Rajya Sabha?
    Answer:

    • Lok Sabha: Members are elected directly by the people through universal adult franchise, using the first-past-the-post system.

    • Rajya Sabha: Members are elected indirectly by MLAs of state assemblies through a single transferable votesystem. The President also nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.


    Q5. What, in your view, are the advantages of the EVM over paper ballots?
    Answer:

    • Faster counting and quicker results.

    • Reduces invalid or spoiled votes.

    • Portable and less costly than printing large numbers of ballot papers.

    • Helps reduce election fraud like multiple voting.

    • Environment-friendly as it saves paper.


    Q6. Voter turnout has been declining in some urban areas of India. What could be the reasons for this trend, and what steps can be taken to encourage more people to vote?
    Answer:
    Reasons:

    • Urban apathy and busy lifestyles.

    • Lack of trust in candidates.

    • Migration and not updating voter ID.

    • Belief that one vote makes no difference.

    Steps:

    • Voter awareness campaigns.

    • Simplifying voter registration.

    • Use of technology like online registration, voter helplines.

    • Ensuring easy access to polling booths.

    • Encouraging youth and first-time voters.


    Q7. Why do you think a proportion of seats in the Lok Sabha is reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes? Write a short note.
    Answer:
    Reservation of seats for SCs and STs ensures fair representation of historically marginalised groups in Parliament. It prevents their exclusion from decision-making. Out of 543 Lok Sabha seats, 84 are reserved for SCs and 47 for STs. This promotes equality, social justice, and inclusiveness, strengthening democracy.


    Q8. Social media is changing the way we experience elections. Is this strengthening democracy or confusing it?
    Answer:

    • Benefits: Increases youth participation, spreads awareness quickly, provides direct connection between leaders and citizens.

    • Challenges: Fake news, misinformation, divisive propaganda, and emotional manipulation.

    • Future: Social media will remain important, but strong fact-checking and digital literacy are needed to ensure it strengthens democracy instead of confusing voters.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. What is universal adult franchise?
      → Every citizen above 18 has the right to vote without discrimination.

    2. When was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18?
      → In 1988, by the 61st Constitutional Amendment.

    3. Who conducts elections in India?
      → The Election Commission of India (ECI).

    4. What is NOTA?
      → “None of the Above” option for rejecting all candidates.

    5. Who was T.N. Seshan?
      → Chief Election Commissioner (1990–96) who introduced strict reforms for free and fair elections.


    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role and functions of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI), established in 1950, is an independent constitutional body. It ensures free and fair elections in India. Its main functions are:

    • Conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President.

    • Preparing and updating the voter list.

    • Registering political parties and monitoring their activities.

    • Enforcing the Model Code of Conduct to ensure fair campaigning.

    • Using technology such as EVMs and VVPATs to make elections efficient.

    • Introducing reforms like voter ID cards to prevent fraud.
      Through its impartial functioning, the ECI is called the “guardian of democracy” in India.


    Q2. Describe the process of electing the President of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The President of India is not elected directly by the people. Instead, an Electoral College elects the President. This includes:

    • Elected members of both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

    • Elected members of all state and UT legislative assemblies (Delhi and Puducherry).

    Nominated MPs, MLAs, and members of Legislative Councils do not participate.
    The single transferable vote system is used, where voters rank candidates by preference. This ensures proportional representation and that the President has the support of both central and state legislatures.
    The President is elected for 5 years. This indirect election reflects India’s federal structure and ensures that the President represents the entire nation, not just one section of people.


    Q3. What are the main challenges faced by India’s electoral system? Suggest solutions.
    Answer (150–170 words):
    India’s electoral system, the largest in the world, faces several challenges:

    1. Use of money and muscle power – Candidates spend heavily on campaigns, and sometimes criminals contest elections.

    2. Voter apathy – Especially in urban areas, many people do not vote.

    3. Misinformation and fake news – Social media spreads rumours and propaganda.

    4. Booth capturing or vote buying – Though reduced, some malpractice still exists.

    5. Low awareness – Many voters lack knowledge about candidates and their rights.

    Solutions:

    • Strict laws to limit election expenditure and ban candidates with criminal records.

    • Stronger role of the Election Commission in monitoring campaigns.

    • Use of technology like online awareness drives and EVM-VVPAT systems.

    • Voter education campaigns in schools, colleges, and through media.

    • Making voting easier with postal ballots for migrants and digital tools.

    By empowering voters and strengthening institutions, India can safeguard its democracy.


    MCQs

    1. The minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b) 18

    2. When was the voting age reduced to 18?
      (a) 1947 (b) 1988 (c) 2001 (d) 1950
      Answer: (b) 1988

    3. Which Article of the Constitution provides for universal franchise?
      (a) 326 (b) 356 (c) 370 (d) 124
      Answer: (a) 326

    4. Who conducts Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Election Commission of India (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    5. The Rajya Sabha is also called:
      (a) House of People (b) Permanent House (c) Upper House (d) Both b and c
      Answer: (d)

    6. How many seats are there in Lok Sabha?
      (a) 250 (b) 433 (c) 543 (d) 545
      Answer: (c) 543

    7. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for SCs?
      (a) 47 (b) 70 (c) 84 (d) 100
      Answer: (c) 84

    8. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for STs?
      (a) 25 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b) 47

    9. Who was India’s first Chief Election Commissioner?
      (a) Sukumar Sen (b) T.N. Seshan (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) S. Radhakrishnan
      Answer: (a) Sukumar Sen

    10. Which system is used for Rajya Sabha elections?
      (a) First-past-the-post (b) Single transferable vote (c) Lottery (d) Open ballot
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which electoral option allows voters to reject all candidates?
      (a) VVPAT (b) MCC (c) NOTA (d) Proxy vote
      Answer: (c)

    12. Which year saw India’s first general elections?
      (a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1951–52 (d) 1957
      Answer: (c)

    13. Who enforces the Model Code of Conduct?
      (a) Parliament (b) Political parties (c) Election Commission of India (d) High Court
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who nominates 12 members of Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Chief Justice (d) Lok Sabha Speaker
      Answer: (b)

    15. What is the term of Rajya Sabha members?
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (c) 6 years

    16. Who was known for strict election reforms in the 1990s?
      (a) T.N. Seshan (b) Sukumar Sen (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Morarji Desai
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which body supervises panchayat elections?
      (a) Election Commission of India (b) State Election Commissions (c) Parliament (d) High Courts
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which voting technology lets voters verify their vote on paper?
      (a) EVM (b) VVPAT (c) MCC (d) NOTA
      Answer: (b)

    19. The President of India is elected by:
      (a) People directly (b) Parliament only (c) MPs and MLAs in Electoral College (d) Only MPs
      Answer: (c)

    20. The Vice President of India is elected by:
      (a) People directly (b) MPs of both Houses (c) MLAs only (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    21. The Lok Sabha elections use which voting system?
      (a) Proportional representation (b) Lottery system (c) First-past-the-post (d) Preferential voting
      Answer: (c)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 to 18 in 1988.

    2. Article 326 guarantees universal adult franchise.

    3. The Election Commission of India was established in 1950.

    4. India’s first general elections were held in 1951–52.

    5. The Rajya Sabha is also called the Permanent House.

    6. The Model Code of Conduct was first adopted in Kerala in 1960.

    7. T.N. Seshan was a famous Chief Election Commissioner.

    8. There are 543 constituencies in Lok Sabha.

    9. Out of these, 84 are reserved for SCs and 47 for STs.

    10. The voting system used in Lok Sabha elections is called first-past-the-post.


    True/False

    1. India granted women voting rights from the beginning. ✅

    2. Rajya Sabha members are directly elected by people. ❌

    3. The Election Commission of India is an independent body. ✅

    4. Lok Sabha elections use the single transferable vote system. ❌

    5. NOTA allows voters to reject all candidates. ✅

    6. The President is elected by an Electoral College of MPs and MLAs. ✅

    7. The Vice President is directly elected by citizens. ❌

    8. EVMs are slower than paper ballots. ❌

    9. The first Chief Election Commissioner was Sukumar Sen. ✅

    10. T.N. Seshan introduced voter ID cards. ✅

  • Chapter 4: The Colonial Era in India, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. What is colonialism? Give three different definitions based on the chapter or on your knowledge.
    Answer (120 words):
    Colonialism is the practice of one country establishing political, economic, and cultural control over another region.

    1. It means direct domination, where the coloniser sets up settlements and rules over the native people.

    2. It involves exploitation of resources—taking away raw materials, wealth, and labour for the benefit of the coloniser.

    3. It also means imposing foreign cultural, educational, and legal systems while weakening or destroying indigenous traditions.
      In India, colonialism meant that Britain controlled trade, agriculture, industry, and governance, while Indians bore the costs of their own subjugation.


    Q2. Colonial rulers often claimed that their mission was to ‘civilise’ the people they ruled. Based on the evidence in this chapter, do you think this was true in the case of India? Why or why not?
    Answer (130 words):
    The claim of a “civilising mission” was false in India’s case. The British justified their rule by portraying Indians as “backward” or “uncivilised,” but in reality, India had a rich civilisation, flourishing economy, and vibrant culture long before colonisation. Instead of civilising, the British destroyed traditional industries like textiles, dismantled village governance, and imposed a foreign education system to create “brown Englishmen.” They drained wealth through heavy taxation and infrastructure projects funded by Indians themselves. Famines killed millions while grain was exported to Britain. While some modern institutions like railways and courts emerged, they primarily served British interests. Thus, colonialism in India was about exploitation, not civilisation.


    Q3. How was the British approach to colonising India different from earlier European powers like the Portuguese or the French?
    Answer (120 words):
    The Portuguese relied on naval dominance, forced conversions, and brutality, especially in Goa. The Dutch focused mainly on trade and spices, with little political ambition. The French attempted to create an empire through indirect rule, training sepoys and supporting puppet rulers, but were defeated by the British in the Carnatic Wars.
    The British, however, began as traders and slowly transformed into rulers using divide and rule. They exploited rivalries among Indian rulers, as seen in the Battle of Plassey (1757). They introduced policies like Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse to annex states. Their gradual and calculated approach gave them complete dominance, unlike other Europeans who remained limited to trading posts.


    Q4. “Indians funded their own subjugation.” What does this mean in the context of British infrastructure projects in India like the railway and telegraph networks?
    Answer (100–120 words):
    The phrase means that the costs of British rule were borne by Indians themselves. Railways and telegraphs were often shown as gifts of modernity, but they were built mainly to serve British interests—transporting raw materials to ports, moving troops quickly, and distributing British goods. These projects were financed by Indian taxes, not by the British government. Even salaries of British officials and costs of wars were charged to Indian revenues. Thus, while the infrastructure gave India some benefits, it was essentially paid for by Indians to strengthen their own colonial rulers.


    Q5. What does the phrase ‘divide and rule’ mean? Give examples of how this was used by the British in India.
    Answer (120 words):
    “Divide and rule” means creating or exploiting divisions among people to weaken their unity and control them easily. The British often used this strategy in India:

    • At the Battle of Plassey (1757), Robert Clive conspired with Mir Jafar, who betrayed the Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah, ensuring a British victory.

    • They encouraged religious differences between Hindus and Muslims, deepening mistrust.

    • Through the Doctrine of Lapse, they annexed kingdoms without heirs, ignoring Indian traditions of adoption.

    • Subsidiary Alliances forced rulers to depend on British troops, weakening unity among princely states.
      This policy made it difficult for Indians to unite, ensuring British supremacy for nearly two centuries.


    Q6. Choose one area of Indian life, such as agriculture, education, trade, or village life. How was it affected by colonial rule?
    Answer (Agriculture, 120 words):
    Agriculture was deeply affected by colonial rule. The British introduced heavy land revenue systems like Permanent Settlement and Ryotwari, which forced peasants to pay cash taxes regardless of harvest. Farmers lost land to moneylenders and zamindars. They were also forced to grow cash crops like indigo, cotton, and opium instead of food crops, leading to food shortages. The Indigo Revolt (1859–62) was a direct result of this exploitation. Famines became frequent because British policies prioritised exports over local needs. During the Great Famine (1876–78), millions died even as grain was exported to Britain. Thus, colonial agriculture served imperial interests, not Indian welfare.


    Q7. Imagine you are a reporter in 1857. Write a brief news report on Rani Lakshmibai’s resistance at Jhansi.
    Answer (~150 words):
    Jhansi, June 1857 — The flames of rebellion have spread to Jhansi, where Rani Lakshmibai has emerged as a fearless leader against British annexation under the Doctrine of Lapse. When the British besieged Jhansi, the Rani, dressed in armour, fought alongside her soldiers. Despite being heavily outnumbered, her courage inspired both men and women to defend the fort. She formed alliances with Tatia Tope and Nana Saheb, strengthening the rebel forces. After escaping the siege, she regrouped and captured Gwalior fort, seizing its treasury and arsenal. In battle on 18 June 1858, she fought valiantly until she was killed. British officers described her as the “bravest and best” of the rebels. Her martyrdom has turned her into a symbol of resistance, inspiring Indians to fight for freedom.


    Q8. Imagine an alternate history where India was never colonised by European powers. Write a short story of about 300 words.
    .

    It is the year 2023, but the India I live in is very different from the one in your history books. Our land was never colonised by the Portuguese, French, or the British. Instead, India remained a powerful confederation of kingdoms that grew together into a strong, united nation.

    In the 18th century, instead of fighting each other, the Marathas, Sikhs, and Mysoreans formed a Grand Assembly at Delhi after the decline of the Mughals. They agreed to respect each other’s territories and form a joint army to defend the subcontinent. Ports like Surat, Calicut, and Bengal thrived with global trade. Instead of being controlled by the East India Company, India herself became a major shareholder in world commerce.

    Without British rule, India’s industries never collapsed. The Bengal textile mills continued to dominate world markets. Weavers of Dhaka still produce the world’s finest muslin, and Indian silk is worn in Europe and Africa. Farmers grow food crops in abundance, so famines are rare. Science and technology developed through universities founded by Indian rulers, who invited scholars from around the world. Railways and telegraphs came later, but they were built by Indian engineers, not as tools of colonial control.

    Social reform also grew organically. Thinkers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Swami Vivekananda, and Jyotiba Phule still fought against caste discrimination and for women’s rights, but without the shadow of foreign rule. Education combines Sanskrit, Persian, English, and modern sciences, creating a confident new generation.

    Today, India is a leading world power—a nation of prosperity, innovation, and cultural pride. We are not called a “developing country” but a pioneer of global progress. And when we look back, we thank our ancestors for uniting in time, because their vision ensured that India was never chained by colonisation.

    Q9. Role-play: (Discussion between Dadabhai Naoroji and a British official)

    Scene: A public meeting in Bombay, 1870s.

    Naoroji: Good evening, Mr. Thompson. I must speak frankly. India is being drained of her wealth by British policies. Our industries are destroyed, our peasants are starving, and yet the revenues of India go to pay for British officials and wars.

    Thompson: Mr. Naoroji, with respect, you are mistaken. Britain has given India the blessings of railways, telegraphs, and modern law. Surely these are signs of progress, not exploitation.

    Naoroji: Progress? These projects are funded by Indian taxes, not British generosity. Railways transport raw materials from India to your factories, while our own weavers starve. Your so-called modern education is limited to producing clerks, not leaders.

    Thompson: But our presence has brought peace after centuries of wars between Indian princes. We have unified India under one administration. That must count for something.

    Naoroji: Peace without justice is no true peace. Villages are ruined by heavy revenue demands. Famines kill millions while grain is exported to England. You take £30 million annually out of India—this is not peace, it is robbery.

    Thompson (uneasy): You exaggerate, sir. The Empire believes in a civilising mission. We are uplifting India.

    Naoroji (firmly): India does not need civilisation imposed from outside. We have our own heritage and wisdom. What we need is fair opportunity, freedom to trade, and governance by Indians themselves. The so-called “civilising mission” is only a mask for economic exploitation.

    Thompson (after a pause): Perhaps… one day Indians may govern themselves. But for now, the Empire holds the reins.

    Naoroji (to the audience): Friends, let us not be disheartened. The truth must be spoken, and one day, India shall be free of this drain on her wealth and spirit.

    Q10. Explore a local resistance movement (tribal, peasant, or princely).
    Example: Santhal Rebellion (1855–56) → Led by Sidhu & Kanhu Murmu against landlords, moneylenders, and British exploitation. Brutally suppressed but remembered as a symbol of tribal resistance.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Who was the first European to reach India by sea?
      → Vasco da Gama in 1498 at Calicut.

    2. What was the cartaz system?
      → A pass system introduced by the Portuguese requiring ships to get permits for sailing.

    3. Who defeated the Dutch at Colachel in 1741?
      → King Marthanda Varma of Travancore.

    4. What was the Doctrine of Lapse?
      → British policy of annexing states without a male heir, ignoring adoption.

    5. Who were the leaders of the Santhal Rebellion?
      → Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu.

    Q1. Discuss the economic impact of British rule on India.

    Answer (150–180 words):
    The British rule had a devastating impact on India’s economy. Before colonialism, India was known as the “industrial workshop of the world,” famous for textiles, handicrafts, and agriculture. Under the British, India was reduced to a supplier of raw materials and a consumer of British goods. Traditional industries like Bengal muslin and weaving were destroyed due to high British imports and heavy taxation. Farmers were forced to grow cash crops like indigo, cotton, and opium instead of food crops, leading to food shortages. Heavy land revenue systems like Permanent Settlementruined peasants, forcing many into debt. Famines like the Great Famine (1876–78) killed millions even as grain was exported abroad. Railways and telegraphs, though presented as modernisation, were built mainly to serve British trade and troop movement, funded by Indian taxes. Thus, colonial rule drained India’s wealth, turning a prosperous economy into a dependent and impoverished one.


    Q2. Explain how British education policies changed Indian society.

    Answer (150–180 words):
    The British introduced a new system of education in the 19th century. Earlier, India had its own system of pathshalas, madrasas, and gurukuls, focused on traditional knowledge. With the Macaulay Minute (1835) and Lord Bentinck’s reforms, English education was promoted. The aim was to create “a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste.” Schools began teaching European history, science, and literature while sidelining Indian traditions. This policy created a small educated elite who became clerks and officials in the colonial administration. However, it also had unintended effects: educated Indians began questioning colonial exploitation and demanded reforms. Leaders like Raja Ram Mohan Roy used English education to fight social evils and promote modern ideas. Later, this educated middle class formed the backbone of the freedom movement. Thus, while British education was designed to serve colonial needs, it also awakened nationalism in India.


    Q3. Describe the major causes and consequences of the Great Rebellion of 1857.

    Answer (180 words):
    The Revolt of 1857 was India’s first major struggle against British rule. Its causes were many:

    • Political: Policies like the Doctrine of Lapse annexed kingdoms like Jhansi, angering rulers.

    • Economic: Heavy land taxes and destruction of industries impoverished peasants and artisans.

    • Social/Religious: Attempts to reform Indian society were seen as interference in traditions.

    • Military: Indian soldiers (sepoys) faced discrimination and poor pay. The final spark was the introduction of greased cartridges, believed to be coated with cow and pig fat, offending both Hindus and Muslims.

    Consequences:
    The revolt spread across north India under leaders like Rani Lakshmibai, Nana Saheb, Bahadur Shah II, and Tantia Tope. Though suppressed by 1858, it shook British confidence. The East India Company’s rule ended, and India came under direct control of the British Crown. The revolt inspired future struggles, making it the “First War of Independence.”


    Q4. Analyse the role of tribal and peasant uprisings in resisting colonial rule.

    Answer (150–180 words):
    Tribal and peasant communities were among the first to resist colonial exploitation. Tribals lost forests due to British laws, forcing them into bonded labour. Peasants faced heavy land revenue demands, leading to debt and land loss. As a result, uprisings broke out.
    The Santhal Rebellion (1855–56), led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, protested against landlords, moneylenders, and British officials. Similarly, the Indigo Revolt (1859–62) in Bengal arose because farmers were forced to grow indigo under unfair contracts. The Deccan Riots (1875) saw peasants attack moneylenders charging high interest. Though most were brutally suppressed, these movements showed the widespread anger of rural India. They highlighted how colonialism destroyed traditional livelihoods and fuelled exploitation. These struggles also laid the foundation for later nationalist movements, proving that resistance to colonialism came not just from elites, but from ordinary farmers and tribals too.


    Q5. Compare the approaches of Portuguese, Dutch, French, and British in India.

    Answer (180 words):
    European powers came to India mainly for trade, but their methods differed.

    • Portuguese (1498): First to arrive, they used naval force, captured Goa, and tried to spread Christianity. Their cartaz pass system and cruelty made them unpopular.

    • Dutch (1602): Focused mainly on spices, set up factories on the Coromandel coast, but after defeat at Colachel (1741) by Travancore, their power declined.

    • French (1664): Tried to establish an empire through alliances and military support to Indian rulers. Fought the Carnatic Wars with the British but were defeated and limited to trading posts like Pondicherry.

    • British (1600 onwards): Began with trade but slowly took political control through battles like Plassey (1757) and Buxar (1764). They used policies like Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse. Eventually, they ruled most of India.

    Thus, while all came as traders, the British were the most successful because of their military strength, diplomacy, and divide-and-rule strategy.

  • Chapter-3-The Rise of the Marathas, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Analyse how geography (particularly mountains and coastlines) guided Maratha military strategy and state formation.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    The geography of Maharashtra shaped Maratha strategy and power. The rugged Western Ghats and Deccan hills provided natural fort locations like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad, which became centres of resistance. These forts were difficult for larger Mughal and Sultanate armies to capture, giving the Marathas safe bases. Dense forests and valleys allowed them to adopt guerrilla warfare—attacking with speed, surprise, and knowledge of terrain. The long Konkan coastline gave Shivaji access to trade and resources. Recognising the importance of naval security, he built a navy and coastal forts such as Sindhudurg to resist European naval power. Thus, geography gave the Marathas both defence and mobility, helping them survive against stronger empires and expand their rule.


    Q2. Imagine you are creating a short biography of a Maratha leader for younger students. Choose one personality (Kanhoji Angre, Bajirao I, Mahadji Shinde, Ahilyabai Holkar or Tarabai) and write 3–4 paragraphs highlighting what makes them inspirational. Include at least one challenge they overcame.
    Answer (Ahilyabai Holkar, ~150 words):
    Ahilyabai Holkar was one of the most remarkable women rulers in Indian history. Born in 1725, she became queen of Malwa after the death of her husband and son. Despite personal tragedies, she ruled wisely for over 30 years from Indore.
    Her biggest challenge was maintaining peace and prosperity in a time of political instability after the decline of Mughal power. She overcame this by ensuring fair administration, promoting agriculture, and caring for her people.
    Ahilyabai is remembered for her religious devotion and architectural contributions. She rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath in Varanasi and Somnath in Gujarat, and constructed ghats, wells, and dharamshalas across India. She also promoted the Maheshwar weaving tradition, which continues today.
    Her life shows courage, compassion, and devotion to service, making her a true inspiration.


    Q3. If you could visit one Maratha fort today (such as Raigad, Sindhudurg, Gingee, or Pratapgad), which would you choose and why?
    Answer (100–120 words):
    I would choose to visit Raigad Fort, the capital of Shivaji. It was here that Shivaji was crowned Chhatrapati in 1674, marking the formal beginning of the Maratha Empire. The fort is located 820 metres above sea level, with steep cliffs on all sides, making it nearly impossible for enemies to capture. Inside, it had royal palaces, markets, and a grand coronation hall. The fort also symbolises Shivaji’s vision of Swaraj, as it was the centre of Maratha administration and military planning. Visiting Raigad would help me connect with this historic site that witnessed the rise of one of India’s greatest warrior-kings.


    Q4. The chapter states, “The British took India from the Marathas more than from the Mughals or any other power.” What do you think this means? What evidence from the chapter supports this idea?
    Answer (120 words):
    By the late 18th century, the Marathas—not the Mughals—were the strongest power in India. They controlled Delhi, much of central and northern India, and had powerful generals like Mahadji Shinde and Peshwa Bajirao. The British fought three Anglo-Maratha wars (1775–1818), after which Maratha power ended. Unlike the Mughals, who were already declining after Aurangzeb, the Marathas still posed the biggest challenge to British expansion. Leaders like Nana Phadnavis even tried to form anti-British alliances with Mysore and Hyderabad. Thus, the British victory over the Marathas gave them effective control over India, showing that they captured the subcontinent more from the Marathas than from any other Indian power.


    Q5. Compare how Shivaji and later Marathas treated religious places and people of different faiths. What evidence from the chapter shows their approach to religious diversity?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Shivaji respected religious diversity while being a devout Hindu. During the sack of Surat, he carefully avoided harming places of worship and even spared the house of a charitable man. He rebuilt temples destroyed earlier and encouraged Sanskrit and Marathi literature while respecting other religions. His seal carried a Sanskrit inscription but he avoided religious oppression.
    Later Marathas, though sometimes harsh in wars, generally followed similar traditions. Leaders like Ahilyabai Holkarrebuilt important temples across India, including Somnath and Kashi Vishwanath. The Marathas supported the Jagannath temple at Puri and revived many cultural practices. They did not impose religious taxes like jizya.
    Thus, while strongly rooted in Hindu traditions, the Marathas practised tolerance and contributed to cultural revival without discriminating against other faiths.


    Q6. The chapter describes how forts were ‘the core of the state’ for Marathas. Why were they so important? How did they help the Marathas survive against larger enemies?
    Answer (100–120 words):
    Forts were the backbone of Maratha power. Built in hills, forests, and along coastlines, they provided safe bases for the army and civilians. Forts like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad allowed Shivaji to resist Mughal and Sultanate forces. In guerrilla warfare, the Marathas would strike quickly and retreat into these forts, frustrating larger armies. Coastal forts like Sindhudurg helped protect trade and resist European naval power. Even when the Mughals invaded with massive armies, the forts prevented complete defeat. As Ramachandrapant Amatya said, “This kingdom was created from forts alone.” Forts gave the Marathas strategic depth, endurance, and survival power against stronger enemies.


    Q7. After this introduction to the Maratha period, what do you think was their most important contribution to Indian history? Write a paragraph supporting your opinion.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    The Marathas’ most important contribution was their ideal of Swaraj (self-rule). Shivaji showed that a regional power could challenge mighty empires like the Mughals and Europeans through vision, strategy, and people’s support. They built a powerful empire across India, with an organised administration, navy, and cultural revival. Leaders like Tarabai, Bajirao, Mahadji Shinde, and Ahilyabai Holkar kept the spirit of resistance alive. Even though the Marathas were eventually defeated by the British, their struggle inspired later generations. Their fight for independence and their cultural confidence laid the foundation for India’s later freedom movement.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Who was the founder of the Maratha Empire?
      → Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674.

    2. What was guerrilla warfare?
      → A strategy of surprise attacks, speed, and knowledge of terrain against bigger armies.

    3. Name two taxes levied by the Marathas.
      → Chauth (25%) and Sardeshmukhi (10%).

    4. Who led the Marathas at the Battle of Panipat (1761)?
      → Sadashiv Rao Bhau.

    5. Which Maratha queen led expansion into Mughal territories after Aurangzeb’s death?
      → Tarabai.

    6. Who was the most famous Maratha naval leader?
      → Kanhoji Angre.

    7. Which Maratha ruler rebuilt the Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath temples?
      → Ahilyabai Holkar.

    8. Name the capital where Shivaji was coronated.
      → Raigad Fort.

    9. Who introduced the ashta pradhan mandal (council of eight ministers)?
      → Shivaji.

    10. Who united the Marathas against the British during the First Anglo-Maratha War?
      → Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde.


    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the achievements of Shivaji Maharaj as a ruler, administrator, and military strategist.

    Answer:
    Shivaji Maharaj (1630–1680) was the founder of the Maratha Empire and one of India’s greatest warrior-kings. As a military leader, he used guerrilla warfare, striking with speed and retreating into the hills and forests. He built a strong network of forts like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad, which became the backbone of Maratha resistance. His coronation at Raigad in 1674 marked the formal beginning of Swaraj.

    As an administrator, Shivaji introduced a council of eight ministers called the Ashta Pradhan Mandal. He promoted revenue reforms, discouraging jagirdari and ensuring direct collection from peasants. He levied chauth (25%) and sardeshmukhi (10%) as taxes to strengthen his treasury.

    He encouraged local languages like Marathi and Sanskrit, respected different religions, and promoted trade. By building a navy under leaders like Kanhoji Angre, he secured the Konkan coast.
    Shivaji’s achievements laid the foundation of Maratha power and the idea of Swaraj, inspiring later generations.


    Q2. Discuss the role of Maratha women like Ahilyabai Holkar and Tarabai in strengthening the empire.

    Answer:
    Women leaders played a crucial role in sustaining Maratha power. Tarabai, the widow of Rajaram, became the regent when her husband died in 1700. She organised the administration and continued resistance against the Mughals. She led armies, defended forts, and expanded Maratha influence in central India. Her leadership kept the Maratha state alive at a time of crisis.

    Ahilyabai Holkar, the queen of Malwa, ruled from 1767 to 1795. Known for her wisdom and compassion, she ensured justice, peace, and prosperity in her kingdom. She rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath, constructed dharamshalas, tanks, and wells, and promoted weaving traditions of Maheshwar. She maintained stability during political unrest and earned the love of her people.

    Both Tarabai and Ahilyabai Holkar showed courage, intelligence, and devotion to their people. They strengthened the empire during difficult times and proved that women were central to Maratha success.


    Q3. Explain the reasons for the rise and fall of Maratha power in India.

    Answer:
    Rise:
    The Marathas rose under Shivaji’s leadership, who created a disciplined army and navy, built forts, and promoted guerrilla warfare. His vision of Swaraj inspired unity. Efficient taxation like chauth and sardeshmukhi strengthened the economy. After Aurangzeb’s death, the decline of the Mughals allowed the Marathas to expand rapidly under leaders like Bajirao I, Mahadji Shinde, and the Holkars.

    Fall:
    However, several factors led to decline. The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) weakened Maratha strength severely. Internal rivalries among chiefs like the Scindes, Holkars, and Bhonsles reduced unity. The growing power of the British, who defeated them in the Anglo-Maratha Wars (1775–1818), ended their independence. Overextension and failure to adapt modern warfare also played a role.

    Thus, while the Marathas rose as defenders of Swaraj and dominated 18th-century India, disunity and British expansion caused their downfall.


    Q4. Analyse the importance of forts, navy, and trade in Maratha state-building.

    Answer:
    The Marathas depended heavily on geography for survival. Forts were the core of their state. Hill forts like Raigad, Sinhagad, and Pratapgad provided defence and bases for guerrilla attacks. Coastal forts like Sindhudurg and Vijaydurg gave them naval security.

    The Maratha navy, founded by Shivaji and led by Kanhoji Angre, helped protect the Konkan coast and resist European powers like the Portuguese and British. Naval strength also ensured safety for maritime trade.

    Trade was vital for revenue. The Marathas controlled important routes, ports like Surat, and collected chauth and sardeshmukhi from other territories. They encouraged local industries and weaving traditions.

    Together, forts gave defence, the navy ensured control of the seas, and trade generated wealth. These three pillars made the Marathas a formidable power that dominated India in the 17th and 18th centuries.


    Q5. How did the Marathas contribute to India’s cultural revival in the 17th and 18th centuries?

    Answer:
    The Marathas not only fought political battles but also revived Indian culture. Shivaji promoted Marathi and Sanskrit literature, encouraged kirtans and bhajans, and respected saints like Tukaram and Ramdas. His administration used the Modi script, strengthening regional identity.

    Later Marathas, especially Ahilyabai Holkar, rebuilt major temples destroyed earlier, such as Kashi Vishwanath, Somnath, and temples at Mathura and Gaya. She constructed ghats, tanks, and rest houses across India. Marathas also supported the Jagannath temple at Puri and promoted Maheshwar weaving.

    Through festivals, temple patronage, literature, and preservation of traditions, the Marathas revived confidence in Hindu culture during a period of Mughal dominance. Their emphasis on Swaraj and swadharma inspired future generations, linking politics with cultural pride.


    MCQs

    1. Shivaji was born in:
      (a) 1526 (b) 1530 (c) 1630 (d) 1646
      Answer: (c) 1630

    2. Shivaji’s coronation took place at:
      (a) Pratapgad (b) Raigad (c) Sinhagad (d) Surat
      Answer: (b) Raigad

    3. Which weapon did Shivaji use to kill Afzal Khan?
      (a) Sword (b) Spear (c) Wagh Nakh (d) Bow
      Answer: (c) Wagh Nakh

    4. The Maratha navy was founded in:
      (a) 1657 (b) 1666 (c) 1674 (d) 1680
      Answer: (a) 1657

    5. Which port city was sacked twice by Shivaji?
      (a) Goa (b) Surat (c) Mumbai (d) Calicut
      Answer: (b) Surat

    6. Shivaji’s policy of self-rule was called:
      (a) Swarajya (b) Sulh-i-kul (c) Mansabdari (d) Jagirdari
      Answer: (a) Swarajya

    7. The Maratha navy’s most famous leader was:
      (a) Bajirao I (b) Kanhoji Angre (c) Mahadji Shinde (d) Tarabai
      Answer: (b) Kanhoji Angre

    8. Who captured Sambhaji and executed him?
      (a) Aurangzeb (b) Akbar (c) Nizam Shah (d) Afzal Khan
      Answer: (a) Aurangzeb

    9. Who organised the first anti-British alliance?
      (a) Bajirao I (b) Nana Phadnavis (c) Tarabai (d) Mahadji Shinde
      Answer: (b) Nana Phadnavis

    10. Who led the Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat (1761)?
      (a) Tarabai (b) Nana Phadnavis (c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau (d) Shahu
      Answer: (c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau

    11. Which Maratha queen rebuilt Kashi Vishwanath?
      (a) Tarabai (b) Jijabai (c) Ahilyabai Holkar (d) Rani Durgavati
      Answer: (c) Ahilyabai Holkar

    12. The ashta pradhan mandal was:
      (a) A council of ministers (b) A tax system (c) Army division (d) A treaty
      Answer: (a) A council of ministers

    13. The Maratha tax of 25% was called:
      (a) Lagaan (b) Sardeshmukhi (c) Chauth (d) Jizya
      Answer: (c) Chauth

    14. Who was Shivaji’s father?
      (a) Shahaji Bhonsle (b) Sambhaji (c) Ekoji (d) Jijabai
      Answer: (a) Shahaji Bhonsle

    15. Who inspired Bundela prince Chhatrasal to fight the Mughals?
      (a) Akbar (b) Shivaji (c) Tarabai (d) Bajirao
      Answer: (b) Shivaji

    16. The Marathas defeated the Mughals at Saraighat under:
      (a) Bajirao (b) Tarabai (c) Lachit Borphukan (d) Mahadji Shinde
      Answer: Trick Q, Saraighat was by Ahoms – skip

    17. Which script was used by Marathas for administration?
      (a) Persian (b) Devanagari (c) Modi (d) Tamil
      Answer: (c) Modi

    18. Which Maratha general recaptured Delhi in 1771?
      (a) Mahadji Shinde (b) Bajirao I (c) Sadashiv Rao (d) Kanhoji Angre
      Answer: (a) Mahadji Shinde

    19. Who built the Dhanwantari Mahal for medicine?
      (a) Serfoji II (b) Shahu (c) Bajirao (d) Nana Phadnavis
      Answer: (a) Serfoji II

    20. Which Anglo-Maratha war ended Maratha power finally?
      (a) First (1775–82) (b) Second (1803–05) (c) Third (1817–18)
      Answer: (c) Third (1817–18)

    21. The Maratha capital during Rajaram’s rule shifted to:
      (a) Pune (b) Gingee (c) Delhi (d) Surat
      Answer: (b) Gingee


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Shivaji was coronated in 1674 at Raigad.

    2. The weapon used to kill Afzal Khan was the wagh nakh.

    3. The Maratha queen who led after Rajaram’s death was Tarabai.

    4. The Maratha council of eight ministers was called ashta pradhan mandal.

    5. The Maratha script used in administration was Modi script.

    6. The tax of 25% was known as chauth.

    7. The Somnath temple was rebuilt by Ahilyabai Holkar.

    8. The capital shifted to Gingee during the rule of Rajaram.

    9. The first anti-British alliance was organised by Nana Phadnavis.

    10. The Third Anglo-Maratha War ended in 1818.


    True/False

    1. Shivaji used guerrilla warfare against the Mughals. ✅

    2. Sambhaji was killed by Akbar. ❌ (Aurangzeb)

    3. The Maratha navy was more advanced than European navies. ❌

    4. Tarabai led Maratha expansion into the north. ✅

    5. Modi script was used for Maratha correspondence. ✅

    6. The Battle of Panipat (1761) was a Maratha victory. ❌

    7. Raigad was the first Maratha capital. ✅

    8. Ahilyabai Holkar promoted Maheshwar weaving. ✅

    9. Shivaji imposed jizya on non-Hindus. ❌

    10. The British finally defeated the Marathas in 1818. ✅

  • Chapter 2: Reshaping India’s Political Map, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Compare the political strategies of the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughals. What similarities and differences existed between them?
    Answer (150 words):
    The Delhi Sultanate relied heavily on military campaigns, plunder, and taxation to expand its power. Their succession was unstable, with frequent violence. They imposed the jizya tax on non-Muslims and often destroyed temples, leading to resistance. Administration was centred on the Sultan, assisted by nobles under the iqta system.
    The Mughals, especially Akbar, also expanded through conquest but used diplomacy and alliances, such as marriage ties with Rajputs. They built a more organised administration with the mansabdari and jagirdari systems, regular revenue surveys, and efficient officials. They promoted tolerance, abolished jizya, and supported cultural synthesis.
    Similarity: Both used military power and land revenue as their foundation.
    Difference: The Mughals developed a stronger administrative framework and adopted policies of conciliation, while the Sultanate remained unstable and relied more on force.


    Q2. Why did kingdoms like the Vijayanagara Empire and the Ahom Kingdom manage to resist conquest for a longer time compared to others? What geographical, military, and social factors contributed to their success?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    The Vijayanagara Empire and the Ahoms survived longer due to geography, unity, and innovative strategies. The Vijayanagara capital Hampi was protected by rocky hills and rivers, making invasions difficult. Strong forts, disciplined armies, and efficient use of cavalry and elephants helped them resist. Cultural unity and patronage of temples also strengthened identity.
    The Ahoms, settled in Assam, used their knowledge of rivers, hills, and forests to adopt guerrilla tactics. Their paik system ensured every able-bodied man contributed labour or military service, giving them a large flexible army without maintaining a permanent one. Their unity, adaptability, and use of terrain helped them defeat larger Mughal forces at the Battle of Saraighat (1671). Thus, geographical barriers, military innovation, and social organisation ensured their survival.


    Q3. Imagine you are a scholar in the court of Akbar or Krishnadevaraya. Write a letter to a friend describing the politics, trade, culture, and society you are witnessing.
    Answer (Letter format, ~150 words):
    My dear friend,
    I write to you from the splendid court of Emperor Akbar. The empire is vast, stretching from Bengal to Gujarat. Politics here is based on both war and diplomacy. The emperor welcomes Rajput nobles into his court and promotes tolerance among different religions under the principle of sulh-i-kul (peace with all). Trade flourishes; markets in Agra and Fatehpur Sikri overflow with textiles, spices, and precious stones. Art and architecture thrive, with magnificent palaces, forts, and translations of Sanskrit epics into Persian. Scholars, poets, and painters from many lands gather here, creating a vibrant cultural environment. Society is diverse, with Hindus, Muslims, Jains, and Christians living together, though the peasants often suffer heavy taxation. Life at the court reflects grandeur and wisdom.
    Yours faithfully,
    A humble scholar


    Q4. How come Akbar, a ruthless conqueror in his young days, grew tolerant and benevolent after some years? What could have led to such a change?
    Answer (120 words):
    Akbar’s early years were marked by violent conquests, such as the siege of Chittorgarh. However, as his empire grew, he realised that ruling through fear alone would not ensure stability. He observed that his subjects followed diverse religions and cultures, and peace could only be maintained through tolerance. His interactions with scholars, saints, and philosophers broadened his outlook. He abolished the jizya, initiated interfaith dialogues, and promoted sulh-i-kul(universal peace). Political necessity also played a role—alliances with Rajputs and local leaders helped strengthen his empire. Thus, maturity, exposure to diverse ideas, and practical governance needs transformed him into a more tolerant and benevolent ruler.


    Q5. What might have happened if the Vijayanagara Empire had won the Battle of Talikota? Imagine and describe how it could have changed the political and cultural history of south India.
    Answer (150 words):
    If Vijayanagara had won the Battle of Talikota (1565), south India’s history might have been very different. The empire would have continued to dominate the Deccan, preventing the rise of the Deccan Sultanates. Its capital, Hampi, with its magnificent temples, palaces, and markets, would not have been destroyed. The flourishing art, literature, and temple architecture of Vijayanagara might have continued for centuries, influencing cultural traditions deeply. Politically, the empire could have united most of southern India, providing stability against Mughal expansion. Maritime trade through ports like Calicut and Pulicat might have grown further, making Vijayanagara a stronger economic power. The preservation of its cultural and architectural heritage could have left an even greater impact on Indian civilisation.


    Q6. Many values promoted by early Sikhism, including equality, seva, and justice, remain relevant today. Select one of these values and discuss how it remains relevant in contemporary society.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    The Sikh value of seva (selfless service) is highly relevant today. In times of natural disasters, pandemics, and poverty, voluntary service helps society overcome challenges. The tradition of langar (community kitchen) started by the Sikh Gurus continues today, feeding millions irrespective of caste, religion, or status. This promotes social equality and compassion, values much needed in a world divided by inequality and discrimination. Modern NGOs and community groups adopt the same spirit of seva, showing how timeless this value is. It reminds us that true strength lies in serving humanity with humility and compassion.


    Q7. Imagine you are a trader in a port city (Surat, Calicut or Hooghly). Describe the scenes you see as regards goods, people you trade with, movement of ships, etc.
    Answer (~150 words):
    In the bustling port city of Surat, I witness ships from Arabia, Persia, and Europe arriving daily. The docks are filled with workers unloading spices, textiles, indigo, and precious stones, while horses, silk, and metals are brought in from abroad. Traders from different lands—Arabs, Persians, Gujaratis, and Europeans—bargain loudly in the markets. The streets are crowded with oxen, camels, and carts transporting goods. Warehouses are stacked with cotton cloth, which is in great demand overseas. Moneylenders provide hundis (credit notes) to transfer wealth securely. The air is filled with the smell of spices and the sound of many languages. The city reflects India’s wealth and its place in global trade networks. Life here is vibrant, yet competition is fierce, as every merchant hopes for great profit.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Name the five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate.
      → Mamluks (Slave), Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Sayyids, Lodis.

    2. Who founded the Mughal Empire and in which year?
      → Babur, in 1526 after the First Battle of Panipat.

    3. What was the paik system of the Ahoms?
      → Every able-bodied man provided labour or military service in exchange for land rights.

    4. Who was Rani Durgavati?
      → A Gond queen who bravely resisted Mughal forces and sacrificed her life in battle (1564).

    5. What is jizya?
      → A tax imposed on non-Muslims by some rulers of the Delhi Sultanate and Mughals.

    6. Name two literary works patronised by Krishnadevaraya.
      → Telugu epic Āmuktamālyada (authored by him) and Sanskrit poetry by court scholars.

    7. What is sulh-i-kul?
      → Akbar’s policy of universal peace and tolerance among all religions.

    8. Who led the Ahoms in the Battle of Saraighat?
      → Lachit Borphukan in 1671.

    9. Which Sikh Guru was executed by Aurangzeb in Delhi in 1675?
      → Guru Tegh Bahadur.

    10. Who unified the Sikhs into an empire?
      → Maharaja Ranjit Singh.


    Extra Long Answer Questions

    1. Compare the administration of the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal Empire.

    2. Describe the rise and achievements of the Vijayanagara Empire under Krishnadevaraya.

    3. Explain the causes of decline of the Mughal Empire after Aurangzeb.

    4. Discuss the role of the Sikhs in resisting Mughal oppression.

    5. How did trade and commerce flourish in medieval India? Give examples of ports and trading practices.


    Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

    1. The Delhi Sultanate was established after the defeat of:
      (a) Prithviraj Chauhan (b) Rana Sanga (c) Babur (d) Timur
      Answer: (a) Prithviraj Chauhan

    2. The five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate were:
      (a) Rajputs (b) Mughals (c) Turkic-Afghans (d) Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, Lodi
      Answer: (d)

    3. Who shifted the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad?
      (a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (c) Babur (d) Akbar
      Answer: (b)

    4. Which tax was imposed on non-Muslims?
      (a) Jizya (b) Lagaan (c) Khilaat (d) Mansab
      Answer: (a)

    5. The Battle of Talikota (1565) led to the decline of:
      (a) Mughals (b) Vijayanagara Empire (c) Bahmani Sultanate (d) Ahoms
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who led the Ahoms in the Battle of Saraighat (1671)?
      (a) Rani Durgavati (b) Lachit Borphukan (c) Rana Pratap (d) Durga Das
      Answer: (b)

    7. Which Rajput ruler fought at Haldighati (1576)?
      (a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Pratap (c) Rana Kumbha (d) Durga Das
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who abolished jizya?
      (a) Babur (b) Akbar (c) Aurangzeb (d) Alauddin Khilji
      Answer: (b)

    9. Who reimposed jizya?
      (a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb (c) Jahangir (d) Humayun
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which empire was described as “as large as Rome” by Domingo Paes?
      (a) Mughal (b) Vijayanagara (c) Bahmani (d) Delhi Sultanate
      Answer: (b)

    11. Who built the Konark Sun Temple?
      (a) Narasimhadeva I (b) Rana Kumbha (c) Krishnadevaraya (d) Shah Jahan
      Answer: (a)

    12. Who was called ‘the second Alexander’?
      (a) Akbar (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Babur (d) Aurangzeb
      Answer: (b)

    13. Who introduced the mansabdari system?
      (a) Babur (b) Akbar (c) Sher Shah Suri (d) Jahangir
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which Mughal ruler built the Taj Mahal?
      (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb
      Answer: (c)

    15. Who shifted the capital back from Daulatabad to Delhi?
      (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Babur (d) Akbar
      Answer: (a)

    16. Who founded the Mughal Empire?
      (a) Humayun (b) Babur (c) Timur (d) Sher Shah
      Answer: (b)

    17. The Ahoms originally migrated from:
      (a) Tibet (b) Myanmar (c) China (d) Nepal
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who established the Khalsa?
      (a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Arjan (c) Guru Hargobind (d) Guru Gobind Singh
      Answer: (d)

    19. Who was executed in Chandni Chowk in 1675?
      (a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Arjan (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur (d) Guru Gobind Singh
      Answer: (c)

    20. Who unified the Sikhs into an empire?
      (a) Banda Bahadur (b) Guru Gobind Singh (c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (d) Guru Arjan
      Answer: (c)

    21. Which finance minister introduced revenue reforms under Akbar?
      (a) Abul Fazl (b) Todar Mal (c) Birbal (d) Bairam Khan
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate was the Lodi dynasty.

    2. The Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.

    3. Krishnadevaraya composed the Telugu epic Āmuktamālyada.

    4. The Ahom general who defeated the Mughals at Saraighat was Lachit Borphukan.

    5. The Konark Sun Temple was built by Narasimhadeva I.

    6. Akbar’s policy of tolerance was called sulh-i-kul.

    7. The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan.

    8. The Sikh Guru executed in Delhi by Aurangzeb was Guru Tegh Bahadur.

    9. The Khalsa was founded in 1699 by Guru Gobind Singh.

    10. The Sikh Empire was unified under Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

  • Chapter-1-Natural Resources and Their Use, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    Chapter 1: Natural Resources and Their Use


    NCERT Questions and Answers

    Q1. What can make what is today a renewable resource non-renewable tomorrow? Describe some actions that can prevent this from happening.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    A renewable resource becomes non-renewable if it is exploited faster than its natural rate of regeneration. For example, forests are renewable, but deforestation without replantation can destroy them permanently. Similarly, over-extraction of groundwater can turn fertile regions into dry lands. Pollution, climate change, and unsustainable practices disturb the natural cycle of restoration and regeneration, making renewable resources scarce.
    To prevent this, we must use resources responsibly: promote afforestation, practice water harvesting, regulate mining, and adopt organic farming. Renewable energy sources like solar and wind should replace excessive use of coal and petroleum. Recycling, reuse, and reduced wastage are also essential. Thus, human care and sustainable practices ensure that renewable resources remain available for future generations.


    Q2. Name five ecosystem functions that serve humans.
    Answer (80–100 words):
    Ecosystems perform natural functions that directly or indirectly support human life. Five important ones are:

    1. Oxygen production by plants and trees through photosynthesis.

    2. Water purification by forests, wetlands, and natural filters.

    3. Soil fertility and nutrient cycling through decomposition of organic matter.

    4. Pollination of crops by bees, birds, and insects.

    5. Climate regulation by forests and oceans absorbing carbon dioxide.
      These functions are called ecosystem services when humans benefit from them, such as clean water, fertile farmland, and protection from floods.


    Q3. What are renewable resources? How are they different from non-renewable ones? What can people do to ensure that renewable resources continue to be available for our use and that of future generations? Give two examples.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Renewable resources are resources that regenerate naturally and can be used again and again, such as sunlight, wind, forests, and rivers.
    Non-renewable resources take millions of years to form and are exhausted once used, such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
    To ensure renewable resources remain available, people must:

    • Use them sustainably, without over-exploitation.

    • Promote conservation practices such as afforestation, water harvesting, and organic farming.

    • Reduce dependence on fossil fuels and increase reliance on solar, wind, and hydropower.
      Examples: Solar energy and timber from forests (if regeneration is maintained).


    Q4. Identify cultural practices in your home and neighbourhood that point to mindfulness in the use of natural resources.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    In many Indian traditions, nature is considered sacred, and this is reflected in cultural practices. For example, people worship Tulsi and Peepal trees, which are known for their ecological benefits. Festivals like Van Mahotsav encourage tree planting. In rural areas, community-managed sacred groves prevent indiscriminate cutting of trees. Clay diyas, jute bags, and banana-leaf plates are used instead of plastics in rituals and ceremonies. Water is often conserved through rituals of offering arghyam to rivers and ponds. Such practices show how culture promotes sustainability by linking spiritual values with conservation of nature.


    Q5. What are some considerations to keep in mind in the production of goods for our current use?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    While producing goods, we must ensure that our needs are met without damaging nature or depriving future generations. Some key considerations are:

    1. Sustainability – use resources without exhausting them.

    2. Eco-friendliness – adopt clean technologies that cause minimal pollution.

    3. Waste management – promote recycling and reduce single-use materials.

    4. Equity – resources and products should be accessible to all sections of society.

    5. Long-term vision – production should not focus only on profit but also on environmental responsibility.
      For example, instead of using excessive coal for electricity, industries should shift to renewable energy. Similarly, packaging should be biodegradable. This ensures that economic growth is balanced with environmental conservation.


    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Define natural resources.
      → Materials and substances found in nature and useful to humans, such as air, water, soil, minerals, and forests.

    2. What is stewardship of resources?
      → It means using resources responsibly while ensuring their restoration and regeneration for future generations.

    3. Name two renewable and two non-renewable resources.
      → Renewable: solar energy, forests. Non-renewable: coal, petroleum.

    4. What is the ‘resource curse’?
      → It means that resource-rich regions often remain poor due to mismanagement, corruption, or over-dependence on raw resources.

    5. What is Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda?
      → An ancient Indian science dealing with sustainable plant care, irrigation, soil management, and pest control.

    6. Name two cultural practices that promote conservation.
      → Worship of rivers and trees; preservation of sacred groves.

    7. Which state is fully organic in India?
      → Sikkim, declared 100% organic in 2016.

    8. What was the problem of groundwater in Punjab?
      → Over-extraction due to paddy and wheat cultivation, leading to severe depletion and contamination.

    9. Name two ecosystem services from forests.
      → Water purification and prevention of soil erosion.

    10. Which international initiative did India launch in 2015 to promote renewable energy?
      → The International Solar Alliance (ISA).


    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the implications of unsustainable use of resources with examples.
    Answer:
    Unsustainable use of resources leads to ecological imbalance, loss of biodiversity, and depletion of essential reserves. For instance, over-extraction of groundwater in Punjab during the Green Revolution caused water scarcity and chemical contamination. Deforestation reduces rainfall, increases soil erosion, and endangers wildlife. Overfishing has led to the decline of tuna populations, disturbing ocean ecosystems. Industrial pollution damages rivers and air quality, making them toxic for humans and animals. These examples show that ignoring sustainability causes both short-term and long-term harm. Responsible use, afforestation, and renewable energy can reduce such impacts.


    Q2. Discuss the case of organic farming in Sikkim and its impact.
    Answer:
    Sikkim adopted a policy of becoming a fully organic state, completed in 2016. Farmers replaced chemical fertilisers and pesticides with compost and natural repellents. Initially, yields fell as the soil recovered, but over time productivity improved. Biodiversity flourished with insects and birds returning, while tourism increased due to Sikkim’s model of sustainability. Farmers earned higher incomes by selling organic produce at premium prices. The state became an international example of how sustainable farming improves both ecology and economy.


    Q3. How can we ensure sustainable use of non-renewable resources?
    Answer:
    Non-renewable resources like coal, petroleum, and minerals are limited. To ensure sustainability:

    1. Use them judiciously and avoid wastage.

    2. Develop alternative sources of renewable energy like solar and wind.

    3. Promote recycling of metals and materials.

    4. Improve energy efficiency in industries, vehicles, and homes.

    5. Invest in new technologies for cleaner production.
      By combining conservation with innovation, we can extend the life of non-renewables until renewable substitutes become widely available.

    Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

    1. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
      (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Solar energy (d) Iron ore
      Answer: (c) Solar energy

    2. The over-exploitation of groundwater is a major issue in:
      (a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b) Punjab

    3. Which of these is NOT an ecosystem service?
      (a) Soil fertility (b) Oxygen production (c) Deforestation (d) Pollination
      Answer: (c) Deforestation

    4. The “paradox of plenty” refers to:
      (a) Excess of rainfall (b) Resource curse (c) Industrial pollution (d) Recycling
      Answer: (b) Resource curse

    5. Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda deals with:
      (a) Astronomy (b) Trees and plants (c) Rivers (d) Cattle
      Answer: (b) Trees and plants

    6. Which state became 100% organic in 2016?
      (a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Sikkim (d) Assam
      Answer: (c) Sikkim

    7. Which two crops caused groundwater depletion in Punjab?
      (a) Cotton and jute (b) Wheat and paddy (c) Tea and coffee (d) Sugarcane and maize
      Answer: (b) Wheat and paddy

    8. Which organisation regulates solar energy cooperation internationally?
      (a) WHO (b) WTO (c) ISA (d) ILO
      Answer: (c) ISA

    9. India launched ISA with:
      (a) USA (b) France (c) Germany (d) Japan
      Answer: (b) France

    10. Which of these is a non-renewable resource?
      (a) Water (b) Coal (c) Sunlight (d) Timber
      Answer: (b) Coal

    11. Which material’s production is among the most polluting industries?
      (a) Steel (b) Plastic (c) Cement (d) Paper
      Answer: (c) Cement

    12. Which is called “black gold”?
      (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Gold (d) Iron ore
      Answer: (b) Petroleum

    13. Which festival promotes afforestation in India?
      (a) Diwali (b) Holi (c) Van Mahotsav (d) Pongal
      Answer: (c) Van Mahotsav

    14. The Kaveri river water dispute is between:
      (a) Punjab and Haryana (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat and Rajasthan (d) UP and Bihar
      Answer: (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

    15. Which practice helps conserve soil fertility?
      (a) Excess fertiliser use (b) Mulching (c) Overgrazing (d) Deforestation
      Answer: (b) Mulching

    16. Which state is known as the “Granary of India”?
      (a) Punjab (b) Gujarat (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (a) Punjab

    17. What is the main aim of stewardship of resources?
      (a) Exploitation (b) Conservation (c) Profit-making (d) Pollution control only
      Answer: (b) Conservation

    18. Which is the largest solar park in India?
      (a) Charanka (b) Bhadla (c) Pavagada (d) Kurnool
      Answer: (b) Bhadla

    19. Which natural resource is linked to deforestation?
      (a) Timber (b) Iron (c) Bauxite (d) Coal
      Answer: (a) Timber

    20. Which of these shows unsustainable use?
      (a) Organic farming (b) Rainwater harvesting (c) Overfishing of tuna (d) Solar parks
      Answer: (c) Overfishing of tuna

    21. Which Indian text describes tree care and sustainable farming?
      (a) Arthashastra (b) Rigveda (c) Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda (d) Manusmriti
      Answer: (c) Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The first fully organic state of India is Sikkim.

    2. The over-extraction of groundwater is a major issue in Punjab.

    3. The International Solar Alliance was launched by India and France in 2015.

    4. Cement production is one of the most polluting industries.

    5. Petroleum is also known as black gold.

    6. The decline in the variety of life on Earth is called biodiversity loss.

    7. The festival that encourages tree plantation is Van Mahotsav.

    8. Coal reserves in India may last only another 50 years.

    9. Sacred groves are protected community forests.

    10. The case study of sustainable agriculture in Sikkim is linked to organic farming.


    True/False

    1. Solar energy is a renewable resource. ✅

    2. Over-extraction of groundwater is a problem only in Punjab. ❌

    3. Van Mahotsav encourages water conservation. ❌ (It promotes tree planting.)

    4. Petroleum is called black gold. ✅

    5. ISA was launched in 2015 by India and France. ✅

    6. Cement is the least polluting industry. ❌

    7. Sacred groves promote conservation of biodiversity. ✅

    8. Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda deals with astronomy. ❌

    9. Organic farming increases biodiversity. ✅

    10. The natural resource curse means abundance of resources always brings wealth. ❌

  • Chapter-12-Understanding Markets Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    Chapter 12: Understanding Markets


    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. What are the main features of a market? Recall a recent visit to a market to purchase a product. What are the different features of a market that you observed during this visit?
    Answer:
    Features of a market:

    1. Presence of buyers and sellers.

    2. Exchange of goods/services at a mutually agreed price.

    3. Negotiation or bargaining may take place.

    4. Goods are available in different varieties and quantities.

    5. Prices depend on demand and supply.

    (Example: In a vegetable market, I observed bargaining, variety of sellers, competitive prices, and many buyers.)


    Q2. Remember the epigraph from a famous economist at the beginning of the chapter? Discuss its relevance in the context of the chapter you have read.
    Answer:
    Adam Smith’s quote means that markets arise because people cannot produce everything themselves. Markets connect people, bring goods and services together, and promote prosperity. The chapter shows that markets provide essentials, link buyers and sellers, and support society and culture.


    Q3. In the example of buying and selling of guavas, imagine that the seller is getting a good price, and is able to make a profit. He will try to get more guavas from farmers to be able to sell them at the same price and increase his earnings. What is the farmer likely to do in this kind of a situation? Do you think he will start thinking about the demand for guavas in the next season? What is likely to be his response?
    Answer:
    The farmer will see that guavas are in demand and will try to grow more guavas in the next season. He may expand cultivation or improve quality to earn more profit. Farmers do think about market demand before deciding what crops to grow.


    Q4. Match the following types of markets with their characteristics:

    1. Physical market → Requires physical presence of buyers and sellers

    2. Online market → Buyers and sellers meet virtually and can transact anytime

    3. Domestic market → Lies within the boundaries of a nation

    4. International market → Goods and services flow outside a nation’s boundaries

    5. Wholesale market → Deals in bulk quantities

    6. Retail market → Serves the final consumers with goods and services


    Q5. Prices are generally determined by the interaction between demand from buyers and supply by sellers. Can you think of products where prices are high despite lesser number of buyers demanding the product? What could be the reasons for that?
    Answer:
    Examples: gold, diamonds, luxury cars, branded clothes.
    Reasons: scarcity of supply, high production costs, brand value, and exclusive demand by a small group of wealthy buyers.


    Q6. A family buys beans for ₹40/kg in a supermarket though the cart-seller offered them at ₹30/kg. Why did they do this?
    Answer:
    Because supermarkets provide clean packaging, quality assurance, and trust in weights. Non-price factors like hygiene, comfort, and brand reputation influence consumer choices along with price.


    Q7. Farmers often throw away tomatoes when harvest is large. Why? What role can wholesalers play?
    Answer:
    When supply is too high, prices fall so much that farmers cannot cover costs. Wholesalers can buy in bulk, store in cold storage, and supply to other regions. Government and cooperatives can help process tomatoes into ketchup, puree, or dried products to reduce waste and losses.


    Q8. Have you heard about/visited a school carnival or fair? How do students conduct selling and negotiation with buyers?
    Answer:
    Yes, in school carnivals students sell food, games, and handmade items. They fix prices or negotiate with buyers. They learn how markets work, including demand, pricing, and profits.


    Q9. Choose 5 products and check their labels for certification marks. Did you find some without logos? Why?
    Answer:
    Examples:

    • Milk (FSSAI)

    • Electric fan (ISI mark)

    • Rice (AGMARK)

    • Refrigerator (BEE star rating)

    • Biscuit packet (FSSAI)

    Some unbranded products lack certification because they are local, small-scale, or uncertified.


    Q10. You and your classmates have manufactured a soap bar. Design a label for its packaging. What should be mentioned?
    Answer:
    Label should mention:

    • Brand name

    • Ingredients

    • Date of manufacture & expiry

    • Weight/quantity

    • MRP

    • Certification logo (ISI/FSSAI equivalent)

    • Manufacturer’s details

    • Allergen warnings


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. What is a market?
      → A market is a place, physical or online, where buyers and sellers exchange goods or services at agreed prices.

    2. What is demand?
      → The quantity of a product buyers are willing and able to buy at a particular price.

    3. What is supply?
      → The quantity of a product sellers are willing to sell at a particular price.

    4. What is meant by bargaining?
      → Bargaining is the negotiation between buyer and seller to settle on a mutually acceptable price.

    5. What is the difference between wholesale and retail markets?
      → Wholesale markets deal in bulk sales to retailers, while retail markets sell in smaller quantities directly to consumers.

    6. Give an example of an international market product.
      → India imports crude oil from West Asia and exports textiles to Europe.

    7. What is the role of distributors?
      → They connect wholesalers to retailers, ensuring supply even in remote areas.

    8. Name one famous women-run market in India.
      → Ima Keithal (Mother’s Market) in Manipur.

    9. What does the FSSAI mark on food packets mean?
      → It means the food has been tested and certified safe by the Food Safety & Standards Authority of India.

    10. What does the BEE star rating on appliances show?
      → It shows energy efficiency; more stars mean lower electricity use and savings.


    🔹 Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain the role of government in markets.
    → The government regulates markets to ensure fairness and protect consumers. It sets minimum support prices for crops and maximum prices for essential medicines. It ensures quality standards through ISI, FSSAI, and AGMARK. It provides public goods like roads, parks, and policing. It also checks pollution and misuse of resources. Thus, it balances interests of buyers, sellers, and society.


    Q2. How do markets affect people’s lives beyond just buying and selling?
    → Markets also build relationships of trust between buyers and sellers, often lasting generations. They provide employment and income, like Ima Keithal in Manipur. They are places for cultural exchange, traditions, and festivals. Markets also influence lifestyle choices, like energy-efficient appliances. They are important socially as well as economically.


    Q3. Explain the chain of supply in a physical market with an example.
    → The supply chain begins with the producer or manufacturer, who sells to wholesalers in bulk. Wholesalers store goods in warehouses and sell to retailers. Retailers sell in smaller quantities to final consumers. For example, in the Surat textile market, cotton is processed into cloth, sold in wholesale, and then distributed to shops across India and abroad. This chain ensures goods reach consumers efficiently.

  • Chapter-11-From Barter to Money, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. How does the barter system take place and what kinds of commodities were used for exchange under the system?
    Answer:
    In the barter system, goods and services were directly exchanged without money. For example, one person gave wheat in exchange for clothes or tools. Commodities used included cowrie shells, salt, tea, tobacco, cloth, cattle, seeds, and even feathers or stones in different regions.


    Q2. What were the limitations of the barter system?
    Answer:

    1. Double coincidence of wants – both people needed to want what the other offered.

    2. Lack of common value – it was difficult to decide how much of one item equaled another.

    3. Divisibility – some goods could not be divided (e.g., an ox).

    4. Portability – carrying bulky goods was hard.

    5. Durability – items like wheat could spoil.


    Q3. What were the salient features of ancient Indian coins?
    Answer:

    • Made of precious metals like gold, silver, and copper.

    • Known as kārṣhāpaṇas or paṇas, with symbols called rūpas punched on them.

    • Coins had different motifs like animals, trees, kings, and gods.

    • Some coins were accepted across kingdoms, helping trade.


    Q4. How has money as a medium of exchange transformed over time?
    Answer:

    • Barter system → cowries, salt, shells.

    • Metal coins (gold, silver, copper).

    • Paper currency in the 18th century.

    • Modern times: digital money like debit/credit cards, UPI, and QR codes.


    Q5. What steps might have been taken in ancient times so that Indian coins could become the medium of exchange across countries?
    Answer:

    • High-quality metal coins to build trust.

    • Common symbols and weights.

    • Strong trade links with other regions.

    • Powerful rulers ensuring coins’ acceptance across kingdoms.


    Q6. Read the following lines from the Arthaśhāstra.
    “An annual salary of 60 paṇas could be substituted by an āḍhaka of grain per day, enough for four meals…”
    The fine for failing to help a neighbour was 100 paṇas. Compare this with the annual salary. What conclusion can you draw about the human values being encouraged through this?

    Answer:
    The fine of 100 paṇas was more than a yearly salary, which shows how strongly society valued helping others. It encouraged social responsibility, kindness, and cooperation among people.


    Q7. Write and enact a skit to show how people may have persuaded each other to use cowrie shells (or other such items) as the medium of exchange.
    Answer (Sample Skit Idea):

    • Person A: “Carrying wheat is too heavy. It rots quickly.”

    • Person B: “But cowrie shells are light, durable, and everyone accepts them.”

    • Person C: “Yes, let’s agree to use cowrie shells as a fair medium of exchange.”
      (Classroom activity to be enacted.)


    Q8. The RBI is the only legal source that prints and distributes paper currency in India. To prevent illegal printing of notes and their misuse, the RBI has introduced many security features. Find out what some of these measures are and discuss them in class.
    Answer:

    • Watermarks of Mahatma Gandhi.

    • Security thread.

    • Micro lettering.

    • See-through register.

    • Colour-changing ink.

    • Raised printing for the visually impaired.


    Q9. Interview a few of your family members and local shopkeepers, and ask them their preferences in making and receiving payments — do they prefer cash or UPI? Why?
    Answer (Sample):

    • Family members: prefer UPI for convenience and safety.

    • Shopkeepers: some prefer cash because it’s immediate, others prefer UPI because it avoids handling change.
      Both agree that digital payments are faster and safer in today’s times.


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?
      → It is when two people each have what the other wants and are willing to exchange directly.

    2. What is divisibility in money?
      → Money can be divided into smaller units (₹100 = two ₹50 notes), unlike an ox or wheat in barter.

    3. What does portability mean in money?
      → Money is easy to carry, unlike bulky goods like wheat or cattle.

    4. Name two unique items used as money in history.
      → Rai stones of Micronesia and red feather coils (Tevau) of Solomon Islands.

    5. Who controls the issue of currency in India?
      → The Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

    6. What is digital money?
      → Money in electronic form, used through UPI, debit/credit cards, and net banking.

    7. What was Junbeel Mela?
      → A barter fair in Assam where tribes exchanged goods without money.

    8. Why did paper money become necessary?
      → Because carrying large numbers of coins was heavy and inconvenient.

    9. What does “store of value” mean in money?
      → Money can be saved and used later without losing value.

    10. What does the ₹ symbol represent?
      → A blend of Devanagari “Ra” and Roman “R”, with two stripes for the tricolour and equality.


    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain the limitations of the barter system with examples.
    → In barter, people had to find someone who wanted exactly what they offered (double coincidence of wants). It was hard to decide how much one good was worth compared to another. Goods like oxen couldn’t be divided, making fair exchange difficult. Carrying bulky items like wheat was inconvenient. Perishable goods spoiled over time, making storage a problem. These limitations made money necessary.


    Q2. Describe the evolution of money in India.
    → Exchange began with barter and commodities like shells and cattle. Later, metal coins of gold, silver, and copper were used, issued by rulers. Paper money was introduced in India in the late 18th century. In modern times, electronic forms like debit/credit cards, UPI, and QR codes are common. This journey shows how money keeps evolving with human needs and technology.


    Q3. Why is money considered better than barter?
    → Money is a common medium of exchange accepted by all. It solves the problem of double coincidence of wants. It can be divided, carried easily, and stored for long periods. It provides a common measure of value for comparing goods and services. It also allows deferred payments, making transactions more flexible.

  • Chapter-10-The Constitution of India-An Introduction, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. “The Constituent Assembly had representatives from diverse backgrounds in India.” Why was this important?
    Answer:
    India is a diverse country with many religions, languages, castes, and regions. Having representatives from all groups ensured that the Constitution reflected the voices, needs, and values of every community. This made it democratic and acceptable to all.


    Q2. Identify which key features/values of the Constitution are reflected in each statement.

    a) Sheena, Rajat, and Harsh are standing in a line to cast their first vote → Democracy / Universal Adult Franchise
    b) Radha, Imon, and Harpreet study in the same class in the same school → Equality
    c) Parents must ensure their children’s education → Fundamental Duty
    d) People of all castes, genders, and religions can use the village well → Right to Equality / Social Justice


    Q3. “All citizens in India are equal before the law.” Do you think this is a fact? Why/why not?
    Answer:
    Yes, it is a fact. Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of laws to all citizens, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or wealth. Though in practice inequalities still exist, the law treats everyone equally and provides protection to all.


    Q4. Why did India give universal adult franchise to its citizens from the beginning?
    Answer:
    India gave universal adult franchise because the freedom struggle had shown the importance of equality and participation of all people. Leaders believed that every adult should have a voice in shaping the nation, irrespective of caste, gender, education, or wealth. It was a step towards justice and true democracy.


    Q5. How did the freedom struggle and civilisational heritage inspire the Constitution?
    Answer:

    • Freedom Struggle: Brought ideals of equality, justice, liberty, secularism, and fraternity into the Constitution.

    • Civilisational Heritage: Ancient Indian traditions of tolerance, respect for diversity, Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the world is one family), and duties of rulers shaped features like Fundamental Duties and cultural rights.
      Together, these ensured that the Constitution combined modern democratic values with India’s rich traditions.


    Q6. Do you think we have achieved all the ideals of the Constitution? If not, what can we do?
    Answer:
    Not fully. Problems like inequality, poverty, corruption, and discrimination still exist. As citizens, we must follow our Fundamental Duties, respect laws, participate in democracy, and work for social harmony. Governments must ensure justice, equality, and development for all.


    Q7. Crossword Puzzle (Answers):

    • Across:

    1. Legislature

    2. Fundamental Duties

    3. Supreme Court

    4. Republic

    5. Amendment

    • Down:

    1. Constituent Assembly

    2. Preamble

    3. Constitution

    4. Helium

    5. Fundamental Rights


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. Who is called the Father of the Indian Constitution?
      → Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, as he chaired the Drafting Committee.

    2. When was the Constitution adopted and when did it come into effect?
      → Adopted on 26 November 1949, came into effect on 26 January 1950.

    3. What does the word ‘sovereign’ mean in the Preamble?
      → India is free to make its own decisions in internal and external matters without interference from outside powers.

    4. Which two words were added to the Preamble in 1976?
      → Socialist and Secular.

    5. Name the three organs of government.
      → Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

    6. What is meant by ‘living document’?
      → The Constitution can be changed and adapted through amendments to meet the needs of the country.

    7. Which gas is used to preserve the original Constitution?
      → Helium.

    8. What is Article 21-A?
      → Right to free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years.

    9. What is the importance of the Preamble?
      → It states the guiding values and principles of the Constitution.

    10. Which part of the Constitution describes long-term social and economic goals?
      → Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).


    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain the importance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
    → The Preamble is the introduction and guiding spirit of the Constitution. It declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic. It assures citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. It reflects the values of the freedom struggle and sets goals for the future. It is like a mirror of the Constitution’s aims and philosophy.


    Q2. How was the Indian Constitution prepared?
    → A Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 with 389 members (later 299 after Partition). Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman, and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar headed the Drafting Committee. The Constitution was discussed, debated, and drafted for nearly 3 years. It was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950.


    Q3. What are the key features of the Indian Constitution?
    → The Indian Constitution is the world’s largest written constitution. It provides Fundamental Rights and Duties, Directive Principles, and separation of powers among legislature, executive, and judiciary. It establishes a federal system with a strong centre. It upholds secularism, equality, justice, and liberty. It is a living document that can be amended to meet future needs.

  • Chapter-9-From the Rulers to the Ruled: Types of Government, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. Write names of the various types of government that you have learnt in the chapter.
    Answer:

    • Democracy (Direct & Representative – Parliamentary and Presidential)

    • Monarchy (Absolute & Constitutional)

    • Theocracy

    • Dictatorship

    • Oligarchy


    Q2. Which type of Government does India have? And why is that called that type?
    Answer:
    India has a Parliamentary Democracy.

    • The people elect representatives through elections.

    • The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are responsible to the Parliament.

    • India follows universal adult franchise and upholds equality, freedom, and justice.


    Q3. You read that an independent judiciary is present in all types of democracies. State any three reasons why you think it is important for the judiciary to be independent.
    Answer:

    1. To ensure that laws are applied equally to all citizens without bias.

    2. To protect the fundamental rights of people.

    3. To keep a check on the legislature and executive, so that power is not misused.


    Q4. Do you think democratic government is better than other forms of government? Why?
    Answer:
    Yes, democracy is better because:

    • People elect their representatives.

    • Everyone is treated equally and has rights like freedom of speech and equality.

    • The government is accountable to the people.
      Other forms of government often concentrate power in the hands of a few, leading to misuse.


    Q5. Match the practice with the type of government.

    • I. All citizens are treated equally before law → Democracy

    • II. The government refers to the religious leader for each and every decision it takes → Theocracy

    • III. After the queen’s death, her son became the new king → Monarchy

    • IV. The ruler is not bound to follow any Constitution. He makes all the decisions as per his choice → Dictatorship


    Q6. Below is a list of countries. Find out the types of government these countries have:

    1. Bhutan → Constitutional Monarchy

    2. Nepal → Federal Parliamentary Republic (Democracy)

    3. Bangladesh → Parliamentary Democracy

    4. South Africa → Parliamentary Republic (Democracy)

    5. Brazil → Presidential Democracy


    Q7. What are possible hurdles in a democracy in achieving its values and ideals? How can they be overcome?
    Answer:
    Hurdles: corruption, inequality, misuse of media, influence of money and power, weak judiciary, and lack of awareness among citizens.
    Solutions: stronger laws against corruption, awareness campaigns, active citizen participation, transparency in governance, and protecting the independence of institutions.


    Q8. Democracy is different from monarchy and dictatorship. Explain.
    Answer:

    • In democracy, people elect their rulers, enjoy equality, rights, and freedom.

    • In monarchy, the ruler’s power is hereditary and citizens have little say.

    • In dictatorship, one person or a small group holds complete power, and citizens have no rights.
      Thus, democracy is more people-friendly and just.


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. Who gave the famous definition of democracy as “government of the people, by the people, for the people”?
      → Abraham Lincoln, former US President.

    2. What are the three main functions of government?
      → Legislative (making laws), Executive (implementing laws), Judicial (ensuring laws are followed).

    3. What is universal adult franchise?
      → The right of all adult citizens to vote in elections, without discrimination.

    4. Name two countries that follow presidential democracy.
      → USA and Brazil.

    5. What is oligarchy?
      → A form of government where a small, powerful group (rich or influential families) controls decision-making.

    6. Which country is an example of a theocracy today?
      → Iran is a modern example.

    7. What is a constitutional monarchy?
      → A monarchy where the king or queen is only the head of state with limited powers, and real power lies with elected representatives (e.g., UK).

    8. What is dictatorship? Give an example.
      → A government ruled by one person or group with absolute power. Example: Adolf Hitler in Germany.

    9. Which ancient Indian state is an example of early republic?
      → The Vajji (Licchavi) Mahajanapada.

    10. Why is an independent judiciary important in democracy?
      → It ensures fairness, equality before law, and protects citizens’ rights from misuse of power.


    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Compare democracy, monarchy, and dictatorship.
    → Democracy is rule by the people through elected representatives. It values equality, rights, and accountability. Monarchy is rule by kings or queens, usually hereditary, with limited or absolute powers. Dictatorship is when one person or group rules with complete power, without elections or rights for citizens. Democracy is more just and fair, while monarchy and dictatorship often concentrate power.


    Q2. What are the key features of democracy?
    → Democracy is based on equality, freedom, and universal adult franchise. Citizens have the right to vote, speak, and follow their beliefs. It ensures accountability of the government to the people. Separation of powers (legislature, executive, judiciary) prevents misuse of power. Citizens’ rights are protected by law.


    Q3. Why does democracy matter in the modern world?
    → Democracy matters because it gives people a voice in governance. It protects human rights, ensures equality, and allows people to live freely. It prevents the concentration of power and promotes development for all. In contrast, other forms of government often lead to oppression, inequality, and lack of freedom. This is why most countries today prefer democracy.

  • Chapter-8-How the Land Becomes Sacred, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. Discuss in small groups the meaning of the following statement by David Suzuki:

    “The way we see the world shapes the way we treat it. If a mountain is a deity, not a pile of ore; if a river is one of the veins of the land, not potential irrigation water … then we will treat each other with greater respect.”

    Answer:
    The statement means that if we treat nature (mountains, rivers, forests, animals) as sacred and part of our family, we will not misuse or harm them. Instead, we will respect, protect, and preserve them. This idea teaches us to look at the environment not only as resources but as living beings connected with our lives.


    Q2. List the sacred sites in your region. Enquire into why they are considered sacred. Are there stories connected with these sacred places? (Essay 150 words)

    Answer (Sample – Delhi/UP region):
    In my region, the Yamuna River is considered sacred. People believe that taking a dip in it cleanses sins. The Akshardham Temple in Delhi is sacred as a centre of devotion and learning. The Mathura-Vrindavan region nearby is holy for Hindus because it is linked to the life of Lord Krishna. There are many legends, such as Krishna lifting the Govardhan Hill, that make this land sacred. These sites are visited by pilgrims all year, and they help connect people to faith, culture, and heritage.


    Q3. Why do you think natural elements like rivers, mountains and forests are considered sacred for the people? How do they contribute to our lives?

    Answer:
    Natural elements give us life. Rivers provide water, mountains give forests and minerals, and forests provide air, food, and shelter. They are considered sacred because they are life-giving and powerful, and many stories and traditions are linked to them. By treating them as sacred, people ensure their protection and preservation.


    Q4. Why do people visit a tīrtha or other sacred sites?

    Answer:
    People visit tīrthas or sacred sites for religious worship, inner peace, blessings, and spiritual growth. Pilgrimages also allow people to connect with different cultures, traditions, and regions of India.


    Q5. How did the ancient pilgrimage routes help in fostering trade during those times? Do you think the sacred sites help in developing the economy of the region?

    Answer:
    Ancient pilgrimage routes overlapped with trade routes. Pilgrims needed food, clothes, transport, and other goods, which traders supplied. This increased trade and exchange of ideas. Even today, sacred sites like Varanasi, Tirupati, and Amritsar support the economy by attracting pilgrims and tourists, creating jobs for local people.


    Q6. How do sacred places influence the culture and traditions of the people living near them?

    Answer:
    Sacred places influence local culture through festivals, rituals, fairs, music, dance, and stories. People living near sacred sites often serve pilgrims by providing food, shelter, or guiding them, which becomes part of their tradition. Many local art forms and crafts are linked to sacred sites.


    Q7. From the various sacred sites of India, select two of your choice and create a project explaining their significance.

    Answer (Sample):

    1. Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh): Sacred city on the banks of the Ganga, believed to free the soul from the cycle of rebirth. Famous for the Kashi Vishwanath Temple and Ganga Aarti.

    2. Golden Temple (Amritsar, Punjab): Central shrine of Sikhism, symbol of equality and brotherhood. Known for its community kitchen (langar) serving thousands daily.


    Q8. What is the two-fold significance of a tīrthayātrā or a pilgrimage?

    Answer:

    1. Spiritual Significance: Pilgrimage purifies the soul, brings blessings, and strengthens faith.

    2. Social and Cultural Significance: It connects different regions, promotes trade, and helps cultural integration by bringing people of different languages and traditions together.


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. What does the word ‘sacredness’ mean?
      → Sacredness means something holy, divine, or worthy of deep respect, often connected to religion or spirituality.

    2. What is meant by ‘tīrtha’?
      → Tīrtha means a sacred place or crossing point from ordinary life to a higher, spiritual life.

    3. Name two important Buddhist pilgrimage sites.
      → Bodh Gaya (where Buddha attained enlightenment) and Sanchi (stupa containing relics).

    4. What are sacred groves?
      → Forests protected by communities as abodes of deities, where cutting trees or hunting is prohibited.

    5. Name one important Sikh pilgrimage centre.
      → The Golden Temple in Amritsar.

    6. What is the story behind the Shakti Pīṭhas?
      → They are sacred sites where parts of Goddess Sati’s body are believed to have fallen.

    7. What is the Char Dham Yatra?
      → A Hindu pilgrimage covering four holy sites: Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, and Rameswaram.

    8. Which festival is held at the confluence of Ganga, Yamuna, and Sarasvati rivers?
      → The Kumbh Mela at Prayagraj.

    9. Why do tribal communities consider some hills and forests sacred?
      → They believe their gods and ancestors live there and that nature provides everything for life.

    10. What does the peepul (bodhi) tree symbolise?
      → It is considered sacred in many religions and represents wisdom, shelter, and spiritual enlightenment.

    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain how pilgrimage routes helped in cultural integration of India.
    → Pilgrimage routes connected different regions of India, from north to south and east to west. Pilgrims came across diverse languages, foods, and traditions. They exchanged ideas, stories, and practices, which created unity. Traders also travelled these routes, linking local economies. Sacred geography thus helped India develop as one cultural entity.


    Q2. How are natural elements like rivers, forests, and mountains linked to sacred traditions?
    → Rivers like Ganga and Yamuna are worshipped as goddesses. Mountains like Kailash and forests like Niyamgiri are considered abodes of deities. Trees like the peepul are worshipped for their spiritual and medicinal value. These traditions encouraged people to preserve and protect nature. They remind us that humans and nature are deeply connected.


    Q3. Why is it important to preserve sacred sites today?
    → Sacred sites carry spiritual, cultural, and ecological importance. They protect forests, water, and biodiversity. They are centres of tradition and heritage. Today, pollution and overuse threaten them, so it is our duty to safeguard them. Protecting sacred sites also supports tourism and local economies while preserving our cultural identity.

  • Chapter-7-The Gupta Era – An Age of Tireless Creativity, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. Imagine you receive a letter from someone living in the Gupta Empire. The letter starts like this:
    “Greetings from Pāṭaliputra! Life here is vibrant and full of excitement. Just yesterday, I witnessed …” Complete the letter with a short paragraph (250–300 words) describing life in the Gupta Empire.

    Answer (Sample Letter):
    Greetings from Pāṭaliputra! Life here is vibrant and full of excitement. Just yesterday, I witnessed a grand procession of the king’s army with elephants, horses, and soldiers carrying shining weapons. Our city is full of bustling markets where traders sell silk, spices, ivory, and gemstones. Scholars gather in temples and monasteries to study mathematics, astronomy, and medicine. I even met a student from Nalanda University, who told me about the great teachers there. Artists and sculptors are creating beautiful statues of Vishnu and Buddha, while poets recite the works of Kālidāsa. The city is safe, with guards patrolling, and the people live happily, helped by charity houses and free hospitals. Truly, this is a golden age where art, science, and culture flourish.


    Q2. Which Gupta ruler was also known as the ‘Vikramāditya’?
    Answer: Chandragupta II was also known as Vikramāditya.


    Q3. “Periods of peace support the development of various aspects of sociocultural life, literature, and the development of science and technology.” Examine this statement in the light of the Gupta Empire.
    Answer:
    The Gupta Empire enjoyed long periods of peace and stability, which allowed resources to be used for learning and culture instead of wars. Sanskrit literature flourished with Kālidāsa’s plays and poems. Scientists like Āryabhaṭa and Varāhamihira made great advances in astronomy, mathematics, and medicine. Magnificent temples, sculptures, and paintings like those in Ajanta were created. Trade with foreign countries also prospered. This shows that peace provided the foundation for cultural and scientific achievements.


    Q4. Recreate a scene from a Gupta ruler’s court. Write a short script, assign roles like the king, ministers, and scholars, and enact a role play to bring the Gupta era to life!
    Answer (Sample Script):

    • King (Chandragupta II): “Welcome, scholars and poets. Share your wisdom with us today.”

    • Minister: “Your Majesty, trade is flourishing, and taxes are collected fairly.”

    • Scholar (Āryabhaṭa): “I have calculated that the Earth spins on its axis, explaining day and night.”

    • Poet (Kālidāsa): “O King, I present my poem Meghadūtam, which tells of love and nature.”

    • King: “Truly, this is a golden age. Let us continue to support knowledge, art, and justice.”


    Q5. Match the two columns:

    • (1) Kāñchipuram → (d) Known as ‘a city of a thousand temples’.

    • (2) Ujjayinī → (e) A prominent centre of learning in ancient India.

    • (3) Udayagiri → (b) Famous for rock-cut caves featuring carvings of Hindu deities.

    • (4) Ajanta → (a) Known for vibrant cave paintings that depict Jātaka tales.

    • (5) Pāṭaliputra → (c) Capital of the Guptas.


    Q6. Who were the Pallavas and where did they rule?
    Answer: The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty in South India. They ruled parts of present-day Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh with their capital at Kāñchipuram. They were great patrons of art and architecture, especially rock-cut temples.


    Q7. Organise an exploration trip with your teachers to a nearby historical site, museum, or heritage building. After the trip, write a detailed report describing your experience.
    Answer (Sample Report):
    Our class visited the local museum that displayed Gupta-era sculptures and coins. We observed inscriptions in Brahmi script and terracotta figures. The museum guide explained the importance of Gupta metallurgy, showing a replica of the Iron Pillar of Delhi. We also saw Buddhist sculptures and paintings similar to those in Ajanta caves. This trip helped us connect classroom lessons with real objects and understand the richness of Gupta art, science, and trade. It was an enriching experience.


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. Who founded the Gupta dynasty?
      → Shri Gupta is considered the founder of the Gupta dynasty.

    2. Which Gupta ruler performed the aśhvamedha yajña?
      → Samudragupta performed the aśhvamedha yajña to show his power.

    3. Which famous inscription was written by Harisena?
      → The Prayāga Praśasti, praising Samudragupta.

    4. What is the importance of the Iron Pillar of Delhi?
      → It shows advanced Gupta metallurgy, as it has not rusted for over 1,600 years.

    5. Name two famous centres of learning in the Gupta period.
      → Nālandā University and Ujjayinī.

    6. Who wrote Meghadūtam and Raghuvaṃśham?
      → Kālidāsa, the great Sanskrit poet.

    7. Who were two famous scientists of the Gupta period?
      → Āryabhaṭa and Varāhamihira.

    8. Which Gupta queen ruled as a regent?
      → Prabhāvatī Gupta, daughter of Chandragupta II.

    9. Which foreign traveller visited India during the Gupta period?
      → Faxian (Fa-Hsien) from China.

    10. Which kingdoms ruled in the south during the Gupta period?
      → The Pallavas in Tamil Nadu and the Varman dynasty in Kāmarūpa (Assam).


    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Why is the Gupta period called the ‘Classical Age’ of India?
    → The Gupta period saw peace and prosperity, which encouraged art, science, and literature. Great scholars like Āryabhaṭa and Varāhamihira advanced astronomy and mathematics. Kālidāsa created masterpieces of Sanskrit poetry. Magnificent temples and paintings in Ajanta and Udayagiri set artistic standards. Ayurveda was codified and universities like Nālandā flourished. These achievements make it the Classical Age.


    Q2. Describe the contributions of Āryabhaṭa and Varāhamihira.
    → Āryabhaṭa proposed that the Earth spins on its axis, calculated the year’s length, and explained eclipses. He also developed mathematical formulas. Varāhamihira wrote the Bṛihat Samhitā, covering astronomy, astrology, weather, architecture, and farming. Their works became foundations for science in India and influenced other parts of the world.


    Q3. What were the main features of Gupta society and economy?
    → Gupta society was organised around varṇa and jāti, but trade and agriculture brought prosperity. Farmers paid land taxes, and merchants traded textiles, spices, and gems with Southeast Asia and the Mediterranean. Charity houses and hospitals supported the poor, as Faxian described. The economy was strong, supporting art, literature, and temples. This balance of prosperity and culture made Gupta society flourish.

  • Chapter-6-The Age of Reorganisation, Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. Why was the post-Maurya era also known as the era of reorganisation?
    Answer: After the fall of the Maurya Empire, many smaller kingdoms like the Shungas, Satavahanas, Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas, Chedis, Indo-Greeks, Shakas, and Kushanas rose. Political power was reorganised, trade expanded, and new art, architecture, and literature developed. This reshaping of society, politics, and culture is why the period is called the “Age of Reorganisation.”

    Q2. Write a note on the Sangam literature in 150 words.
    Answer:
    Sangam literature refers to the oldest Tamil writings composed between 300 BCE and 300 CE. It was created in assemblies (Sangams) of poets and scholars in South India. These poems deal with themes like love, war, heroism, generosity, and social life. They provide information about the Chera, Chola, and Pandya kingdoms. The poems also mention trade, agriculture, and ports like Puhar and Madurai. Famous works like Silappadikaram highlight justice and dharma. Sangam literature is not only important for its poetic beauty but also as a valuable historical source for early South Indian society and culture.

    Q3. Which rulers mentioned in this chapter included their mother’s name in their title, and why did they do so?
    Answer: Satavahana rulers, like Gautamiputra Satakarni, included their mother’s name in their title. This showed the respect and importance given to royal women, and also highlighted the lineage and legitimacy of the king through his mother’s family.

    Q4. Write a note of 250 words about one kingdom from this chapter that you find interesting. Explain why you chose it.
    Answer (Example – The Satavahanas):
    The Satavahanas ruled the Deccan region between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE. Their capitals included Paithan and Amaravati. They encouraged agriculture in the Krishna-Godavari plains and developed trade networks reaching as far as Rome. Coins issued by them often depicted ships, proving their excellence in seafaring and maritime trade. They exported spices, textiles, pearls, and ivory, and imported glass and perfumes. Literature and art flourished, and they contributed to Buddhist caves at Karla and Pitalkhora. Inscriptions mention powerful queens like Gautami Balashri, mother of Gautamiputra Satakarni, who made donations to religious institutions. The Satavahanas are interesting because they balanced Vedic rituals with Buddhist patronage, promoted women’s influence in politics, and expanded overseas trade. Their period shows the blend of religion, economy, and culture that made India vibrant during the Age of Reorganisation.

    Q5. Imagine you have the chance to create your own kingdom. What royal emblem would you choose, and why? What title would you take as the ruler? Write a note about your kingdom, including its values, rules and regulations, and some unique features.
    Answer (Sample):
    I would choose a lotus as my royal emblem, as it symbolises purity and growth. My title would be Dharma Raja. My kingdom would value equality, justice, and education for all. Farmers and traders would be supported, and artisans given respect. We would have councils where people’s voices are heard. My kingdom would promote peace but maintain a strong army for defence. Special attention would be given to irrigation, trade routes, and learning centres. This way, the kingdom would be prosperous, fair, and respected.

    Q6. You have read about the architectural developments of the post-Maurya era. Take an outline of the Indian subcontinent and mark the approximate locations of some of the ancient structures mentioned in this chapter.
    Answer:
    Students may mark:

    • Bharhut Stupa (Madhya Pradesh)

    • Karla Caves (Maharashtra)

    • Naneghat Caves (Maharashtra)

    • Udayagiri-Khandagiri Caves (Odisha)

    • Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh)

    • Madurai (Tamil Nadu)


    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. Who founded the Shunga dynasty?
      → Pushyamitra Shunga, after assassinating the last Mauryan ruler, founded the dynasty.

    2. What was the Ashvamedha yajna?
      → A ritual where a horse was released to wander, and territories it entered without opposition became part of the king’s domain.

    3. Which art style blended Indian and Greek traditions during this period?
      → The Gandhara school of art.

    4. Which South Indian kingdoms flourished during this period?
      → The Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.

    5. Name a famous Chola king of this era.
      → Karikala Chola, known for building the Grand Anicut (Kallanai) on the Kaveri River.

    6. What was the famous Tamil epic written after Sangam literature?
      Silappadikaram, the tale of the anklet.

    7. Which Indo-Greek ambassador built a pillar in honour of Vasudeva?
      → Heliodorus, at Vidisha.

    8. Which dynasty issued coins depicting ships?
      → The Satavahanas.

    9. What was the Shaka Samvat?
      → A calendar era started by the Shakas in 78 CE, later adopted as the Indian National Calendar.

    10. Which two schools of art developed under the Kushanas?
      → Gandhara and Mathura schools of art.


    Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain the contributions of the Satavahanas.
    → The Satavahanas controlled the Deccan and encouraged agriculture in fertile river valleys. They promoted trade by land and sea, issuing coins that show ships. They supported Buddhist art at Karla caves and respected women, as seen in inscriptions about queens. They balanced Vedic rituals with Buddhist patronage. Their contributions to trade, religion, and culture made them one of the most powerful dynasties of this period.


    Q2. How did foreign invaders contribute to Indian culture during this period?
    → Indo-Greeks introduced coins and blended Greek and Indian art. The Shakas contributed to the calendar system. The Kushanas controlled the Silk Route and promoted cultural exchange. They encouraged Gandhara and Mathura art styles. Foreign rulers adopted Indian gods, rituals, and language, showing assimilation and enriching Indian culture.


    Q3. Why is this period called an Age of Cultural Confluence?
    → Many dynasties, both Indian and foreign, interacted during this time. Literature like Sangam poetry flourished in the south. Art styles like Gandhara combined Indian and Greek traditions. Trade connected India with Rome, West Asia, and Central Asia. Sanskrit literature like the Mahabharata and Ramayana was composed. The blending of cultures created a rich heritage, making it an age of cultural confluence.