Tag: NCERT Question Answers

  • Exercise-5.4, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 5, NCERT

    Exercise 5.4 — Solutions


    Q1. Which term of the AP 121,117,113,

     is its first negative term?

    Given

    a=121

    , common difference

    d=117121=4


    General term:

    an=a+(n1)d=1214(n1).

    Find smallest integer

    n

    with

    an<0

    :

    1214(n1)<0    1214n+4<0    125<4n    n>31.25.

    Hence the first integer

    n

    is

    32

    .
    Check:

    a31=1214(30)=121120=1 (>0),a32=1214(31)=121124=3 (<0).

    Answer: the 32nd term is the first negative term (value

    3

    ).


    Q2. The sum of the 3rd and 7th terms of an AP is 6

    and their product is 8

    . Find the sum of the first 16 terms.

    Let

    a

    be the first term and

    d

    the common difference. Then

    a3=a+2d,a7=a+6d.

    Given:

    (a+2d)+(a+6d)=62a+8d=6    a+4d=3.(1)

    And

    (a+2d)(a+6d)=8.

    Set

    x=a+4d

    . Then

    a+2d=x2d,  a+6d=x+2d

    . Their product:

    (x2d)(x+2d)=x24d2=8.

    From (1)

    x=3

    . So

    324d2=894d2=84d2=1d=±12.

    Find

    a

    from

    a+4d=3

    • If

      d=12:

      a=3412=32=1.

    • If

      d=12

      :

      a=34(12)=3+2=5.

    Now

    S16=162(2a+15d)=8(2a+15d)

    • For

      a=1, d=12

      2a+15d=2+7.5=9.5,S16=8×9.5=76.

    • For

      a=5, d=12

      2a+15d=107.5=2.5,S16=8×2.5=20.

    Both

    (a,d)=(1,12)

    and

    (5,12)

    satisfy the given conditions (they just reverse the order of the two specified terms).

    Answer: there are two possible sums depending on the AP:

    S16=76 or S16=20.


    Q3. Ladder rungs 25 cm apart. Rungs decrease uniformly in length from 45

     cm (bottom) to 25

     cm (top). If the top and bottom rungs are 212

    m apart, what is the total length of wood required for the rungs?

    (Hint in book:

    number of rungs=25025+

    — i.e. distance 250 cm.)

    Interpretation / data

    • Distance between top and bottom rungs

      =212m=250 cm

    • Spacing between successive rungs

      =25 cm.

    • Number of rungs:

      n=25025+1=10+1=11.

    • Lengths form an AP with first term

      a=45 cm, last term

      l=25 cm,

      n=11.

    Sum of lengths:

    Total length=S11=112(a+l)=112(45+25)=11270=1135=385 cm.

    Convert to metres:

    385 cm=3.85 m.

    Answer: total wood required

    =385 cm=3.85 m


    Q4. Houses numbered 1

    to 49

    . Show there is a value x

    such that the sum of the numbers of houses preceding house x

    equals the sum of the numbers following it. Find x

    .

    Let

    Sk

    denote the sum

    1+2++k=k(k+1)2

    We want:

    Sx1  =  S49Sx.

    Compute:

    (x1)x2=49502x(x+1)2.

    Multiply by

    2

    and simplify:

    x(x1)=2450x(x+1)2x22450=0.

    So

    x2=1225

    and

    x=35

    (positive root).

    Check:

    S34=34352=595,S49S35=1225630=595.

    Answer:

    x=35

    . The sums on both sides are

    595

    .


    Q5. A terrace has 15 steps, each 50

     m long (along the step). Each step has rise =14

     m and tread =12

    m. Calculate total volume of concrete required.

    Volume of one step (rectangular block)

    =length×tread×rise

    V1=50×12×14=50×18=6.25 m3.

    Assuming all 15 steps are solid (each identical in cross-section), total volume:

    Vtotal=15×6.25=93.75 m3.

    Answer: total concrete required

    =93.75 m3

  • Exercise-5.3, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 5, NCERT

    Exercise 5.3 — Solutions (Questions 1–20)

    Useful formulas

    an=a+(n1)d,Sn=n2(2a+(n1)d)=n2(a+l).


    1. Find the sum of the following APs

    (i) 2,7,12, (10 terms).
    a=2, d=5, n=10

    S10=102(22+95)=5(4+45)=549=245.

    (ii) 37,33,29,(12 terms).
    a=37, d=4, n=12

    S12=122(2(37)+114)=6(74+44)=6(30)=180.

    (iii) 0.6,  1.7,  2.8, (100 terms).
    a=0.6, d=1.1, n=100

    S100=1002(20.6+991.1)=50(1.2+108.9)=50110.1=5505.

    (iv)


    2. Find the sums below

    (i)

    (ii) 34+32+30++10
    a=34, d=2, l=10. Number of terms:

    n=10342+1=13.

    S13=132(34+10)=13244=1322=286.

    (iii) 5+(8)+(11)++(230)
    a=5, d=3, l=230 Number of terms:

    n=230(5)3+1=2253+1=76.
    S76=762(5230)=38(235)=8930.


    3. Short AP problems (solved stepwise)

    (i) a=5, d=3, an=50
    50=5+(n1)3n=16

    S16=162[25+153]=8(10+45)=855=440.

    (ii) a=7, a13=35
    7+12d=35d=73.

    S13=132(14+1273)=273.

    (iii) a12=37, d=3a=4

    S12=6(8+33)=246.

    (iv) a3=15, S10=125
    From a+2d=15 and 5(2a+9d)=125 we get d=1, a=17, a10=8

    (v) d=5, S9=75
    92(2a+40)=75a=353, a9=853.

    (vi) a=2, d=8, Sn=90
    Solve n(4n2)=90n=5, a5=34

    (vii) a=8, an=62, Sn=210.
    n2(8+62)=210n=6, d=545.

    (viii) an=4, d=2, Sn=14
    From a=62n and Sn=n(5n)=14n=7, a=8

    (ix) a=3, n=8, S=192

    192=4(6+7d)d=6.

    (x) l=28, S=144, n=9

    144=92(a+28)a=4.


    4. Which term of the AP 3,8,13,18, is 78?

    a=3, d=5. Solve 3+5(n1)=78n=16.


    5. Number of terms

    (i) 7,13,19,,205. n=20576+1=34.

    (ii) 18,  15.5,  13,,47, d=2.5n=47182.5+1=27.


    6. Is 150 a term of 11,8,5,2,?

    a=11,d=3. Solve 11+(n1)(3)=150n not integer ⇒ No.


    7. If a11=38, a16=73. Find a31.

    5d=35d=7, a=32.

    a31=32+307=178.


    8. AP of 50 terms; a3=12, a50=106. Find a29.

    From a+2d=12, a+49d=106d=2, a=8

    a29=8+282=64.


    9. a3=4, a9=8. Which term is zero?

    6d=12d=2, a=8. Solve 82(n1)=0n=5


    10. a17 exceeds a10 by 7. Find d.

    (a+16d)(a+9d)=7d=1


    11. In AP 3,15,27,39, which term is 132 more than its 54-th term?

    Here a=3, d=12. a54=639. Need ak=771k=65


    12. Two APs have same d. Difference between their 100th terms is 100. Difference between their 1000th terms?

    Difference is constant =100.


    13. How many three–digit numbers are divisible by 7?

    Smallest =105, largest =994. Count =9941057+1=128.


    14. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250?

    Smallest =12, largest =248. Count =248124+1=60.


    15. For what n do the n-th terms of 63,65,67, and 3,10,17, coincide?

    Solve 63+2(n1)=3+7(n1)n=13.


    16. ₹700 used for seven cash prizes each ₹20 less than the preceding. Find prizes.

    n=7, d=20, S7=700a=160.

    160,  140,  120,  100,  80,  60,  40 ().


    17. Class I–XII: each section of Class k plants k trees; 3 sections in each class. Total trees:

    3k=112k=312132=234.


    18. Spiral of 13 semicircles with radii 0.5,1.0,1.5, Total length (π=227).

    Semicircle length = πr. Radii sum:

    rk=132[20.5+120.5]=912.
    L=π912=227912=143 cm.


    19. 200 logs stacked: rows 20,19,18,… How many rows and top row?

    Let a=20, d=1. Solve n2(41n)=200n241n+400=0

     n=25,16. Physical solution n=16. Top row = 20(161)=5 logs.


    20. Potato race: potatoes at distances 5,8,11, (10 potatoes). Competitor runs to each and back. Total distance?

    Sum of distances =102[25+93]=185. Round trips ⇒ 2×185=370

  • Exercise-5.2, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 5, NCERT

    Exercise 5.2 — Solutions 

    1. Fill in the blanks (use an=a+(n1)d

    (i) a=7,  d=3,  n=8

    an=7+(81)3=7+21=28.

    (ii) a=18,  n=10,  an=0

    0=18+(101)d9d=18d=2.

    (iii) d=3,  n=18,  an=5. Find a.

    a+(181)(3)=5a51=5a=46.

    (iv) a=18.9,  d=2.5,  an=3.6. Find n.

    18.9+(n1)2.5=3.6(n1)2.5=22.5n1=9n=10.

    (v) a=3.5,  d=0,  n=105.

    an=3.5(every term is 3.5).


    2. Multiple choice — pick correct option and justify

    (i) AP: 10,7,4, so a=10, d=3

    a30=10+(301)(3)=1087=77.

    Answer: (C) .

    (ii) AP: 3,12,2, Here a=3, difference d=2.5

    a11=3+102.5=3+25=22.

    Answer: (B) .


    3. Find missing terms

    I solved each box assuming a standard interpretation of the printed problem. One line in the PDF was slightly unclear; where I made an assumption I’ve noted it.

    (i) 2,  14,  26
      middle=2+262=14

    (ii) 18,  13,  8,  3
    Let d=5 (since 1318=5); then next terms are 135=8,  85=3

    (iii) (ambiguous in print) — the problem shows 5,  _,  _,  _with a final term If the intended four-term AP is 5,  ?,  ?,  19, then

    d=1953=44/93=4427,

    so

    a2=54427=9127,a3=4727.

    (iv) 4,  2,  0,  2,  4,  

    Here a1=4, a6=6 so d=(6(4))/5=2

    (v) 53,  38,  23,  8,  7,  22

    From a2=38 and a6=22 we get 4d=60d=15, so a1=38d=53


    4. Which term of 3,8,13,18, is 78?

    a=3, d=5

    3+(n1)5=785(n1)=75n1=15n=16.

    Answer: 16th term.


    5. Number of terms

    (i) 7,13,19,,205. a=7, d=6

    7+(n1)6=2056(n1)=198n=34.

    (ii) 18,  15.5,  13,,47 (Interpretation: second term is 1512=15.5)
    Then d=15.518=2.5

    Solve

    18+(n1)(2.5)=47(n1)=652.5=26n=27.


    6. Is 150 a term of 11,8,5,2,?

    Here a=11, d=3. Solve

    11+(n1)(3)=150(n1)=1613=5323,

    not an integer.
    Answer: No, is not a term.


    7. a11=38, a16=73. Find a31.

    Let a+10d=38 and a+15d=73. Subtract: 5d=35d=7

    Then a=3870=32

    a31=a+30d=32+307=32+210=178.


    8. AP of 50 terms; a3=12, a50=106. Find a29.

    From a+2d=12a=122d. Also a+49d=106. Substitute:

    122d+49d=10647d=94d=2, a=124=8.

    So a29=8+282=8+56=64


    9. a3=4, a9=8. Which term is zero?

    a+2d=4, a+8d=86d=12d=2

    Then a=42d=8. Solve

    8+(n1)(2)=082(n1)=0n=5.

    Answer: 5th term is zero.


    10. a17 exceeds a10 by 7. Find d.

    (a+16d)(a+9d)=77d=7d=1.


    11. In AP 3,15,27,39, which term is 132 more than its 54th term?

    Here a=3, d=12.

    a54=3+5312=639 Need ak=639+132=771. Solve

    3+(k1)12=77112(k1)=768k1=64k=65.


    12. Two APs have same d. Difference between their 100th terms is 100. What is difference between their 1000th terms?

    If APs are a+(n1)d and b+(n1)d, difference at any n is ab. Since difference at n=100 is 100, the difference at n=1000 is also

    100.


    13. How many three-digit numbers are divisible by 7?

    Smallest three-digit divisible by 7: 105. Largest ≤999 divisible by 7: 994. Count:

    9941057+1=8897+1=127+1=128.


    14. How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250?

    Smallest multiple >10 is 12; largest 250 is 248. Count:

    248124+1=2364+1=59+1=60.


    15. For what value of n are the n-th terms equal for the APs 63,65,67, and 3,10,17,?

    First AP: a1=63, d1=2 so an(1)=63+2(n1).
    Second AP: a1=3, d2=7 so an(2)=3+7(n1).

    Set equal:

    63+2(n1)=3+7(n1)61+2n=4+7n5n=65n=13.

    Q16. A sum of ₹700 is to be used to give seven cash prizes. Each prize is ₹20 less than the preceding prize. Find all seven prizes.

    Let the prizes form an AP with first term a, common difference d=20, number of terms n=7. The sum is

    Sn=n2(2a+(n1)d)=700.

    Substitute n=7, d=20:

    700=72(2a+6(20))700=72(2a120).

    Multiply by 2: 1400=7(2a120)200=2a1202a=320a=160.

    Thus the seven prizes are

    160,  140,  120,  100,  80,  60,  40(in ₹).


    Q17. Each section of Class I plants 1 tree, Class II plants 2 trees, …, Class XII plants 12 trees. There are 3 sections in each class. How many trees in total?

    Total trees =3×(1+2++12)=312132=378=234.

    So 234 trees will be planted.


    Q18. A spiral is made of 13 successive semicircles of radii 0.5,1.0,1.5, Find the total length. (Take π=227.)

    Length of a semicircle of radius r is 12(2πr)=πr. So total length

    L=πk=113rk,rk=0.5+(k1)0.5.

    The radii form an AP with a=0.5, d=0.5, n=13. Sum of radii:

    rk=132(20.5+(131)0.5)=132(1+6)=1327=912.

    Thus

    L=π912=227912=22×9114=200214=143 cm.

    Total length = 143 cm.


    Q19. 200 logs are stacked: bottom row 20 logs, next 19, next 18, … . In how many rows are the 200 logs placed and how many logs in the top row?

    This is a finite AP with a=20, d=1. Let number of rows be n and last row have l=a+(n1)d. Sum:

    Sn=n2(a+l)=200.

    Using l=20(n1)=21n, we get

    n2(20+(21n))=n2(41n)=200n(41n)=400.

    So n241n+400=0. Discriminant Δ=4124400=16811600=81, Δ=9

    n=41±92={25,  16}.

    Physically the number of logs in the top row must be non-negative: for n=25 the top row would be 20(251)=4(impossible). So take n=16. Top row has

    l=20(161)=2015=5 logs.

    Answer: 16 rows, top row has 5 logs.


    Q20. Potato race: bucket is at start, first potato is 5 m from bucket, others 3 m apart; 10 potatoes. Competitor picks each potato and returns it to bucket, repeats. Total distance?

    Let distances of potatoes from bucket be an AP: a=5, d=3, n=10. Sum of distances to each potato:

    i=110di=102(25+(101)3)=5(10+27)=537=185 m.

    For each potato the competitor runs to it and back, so total distance =2× (sum of distances) =2×185=370

    Total distance = 370 metres.

  • Exercise-5.1, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 5, NCERT

    Arithmetic Progressions (AP)


    Q1. In which of the following situations does the list of numbers form an AP?


    (i) Taxi fare for first km is ₹15, and ₹8 for each subsequent km.

    Fares: 15,23,31,39,

    Common difference:

    d=2315=8

    Yes, it is an AP with a=15,  d=8.


    (ii) Air is pumped out of a cylinder, reducing to 34 of its previous volume each stroke.

    Volumes: 1,34,916,2764,

    This is a geometric sequence, not an AP.
    Not an AP


    (iii) Cost of digging a well increases by ₹50 for every meter.

    Costs: 150,200,250,300,
    d=200150=50

    AP with a=150,  d=50.


    (iv) Amount under compound interest increases by 8% every year.

    A1=P,A2=P(1.08),A3=P(1.08)2,A4=P(1.08)3,

    This is geometric, not arithmetic.
    Not an AP


    Q2. Write the first four terms of each AP for the given a and d.


    S.No a d Terms
    (i) 10 10 10,20,30,40
    (ii) −2 0 2,2,2,2
    (iii) 4 −3 4,1,2,5
    (iv) −1 12 1,12,0,12
    (v) −1.25 −0.25 1.25,1.50,1.75,2.00

    Q3. For each of the following APs, find the first term a and common difference d.


    S.No Sequence a d
    (i) 3,1,1,3, 3 2
    (ii) 5,1,3,7, 5 4
    (iii) 13,53,3,133, 13 43
    (iv) 0.6,1.7,2.8,3.9, 0.6 1.1

    Q4. Which of the following sequences are APs? If yes, find the common difference and three more terms.


    (i) 2,4,8,16,

    d1=42=2,d2=84=4

    Differences unequal → ❌ Not an AP


    (ii) 52,72,92,

    d=7252=1

    AP, next three terms: 112,132,152


    (iii) 1.2,3.2,5.2,7.2,

    d=3.2(1.2)=2.0

    AP, next three: 9.2,11.2,13.2


    (iv) 10,6,2,2,

    d=6(10)=4

    AP, next three: 6,10,14


    (v) Sequence unclear in print — possibly 3,3+2,3+4,3+6,
    If so:

    Differences 2,2,2d=2

    AP, next three: 3+8=11,  13,  15
    (Please confirm original question text for exact terms.)


    (vi) 0.2,0.22,0.222,0.2222,

    d1=0.02,  d2=0.002,  d3=0.0002

    Differences not equal → ❌ Not an AP


    (vii) 0,4,8,12,

    d=4

    AP, next three: 16,20,24


    (viii) 12,12,12,

    d=0

    AP, next three: 12,12,12


    (ix) 1,3,9,27,
    Geometric, not arithmetic.
    Not an AP


    (x) a,2a,3a,4a,

    d=2aa=a

    AP, next three: 5a,6a,7a


    (xi) a,a2,a3,a4,
    Differences not equal (except for special a values).
    Not an AP


    (xii) 2,8,18,32,

    d1=6,  d2=10,  d3=14

    Differences unequal → ❌ Not an AP


    (xiii) 3,6,9,12,

    d=3

    AP, next three: 15,18,21


    (xiv) 12,32,52,72,

    d=20

    AP, next three: 92,112,132


    (xv) 12,52,72,73,

    d1=40,  d2=20,  d3=1

    Not an AP


    Summary Table of AP Sequences

    Parts forming AP Common difference (d)
    (i) – ❌
    (ii) – ✅ 1
    (iii) – ✅ −2
    (iv) – ✅ 4
    (v) – ✅ (if as assumed) 2
    (vi) – ❌
    (vii) – ✅ −4
    (viii) – ✅ 0
    (ix) – ❌
    (x) – ✅ a
    (xi) – ❌
    (xii) – ❌
    (xiii) – ✅ 3
    (xiv) – ✅ 20
    (xv) – ❌
  • Exercise-4.3, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 4, NCERT

    Q1. Find the nature of the roots of the following quadratic equations. If real roots exist, find them.

    (i) 2x23x+5=0
    Discriminant Δ=b24ac=(3)24(2)(5)=940=31<0.
    Nature: Δ<no real roots (two complex conjugate roots).

    (ii) 3x243x+4=0
    Δ=(43)24(3)(4)=4848=0.
    Nature: Δ=0 ⇒ two equal real roots (a repeated root).
    Root: x=b2a=436=233.

    (iii) 2x26x+3=0
    Δ=(6)24(2)(3)=3624=12>0

    Nature: Δ>0 ⇒ two distinct real roots.
    Roots: x=6±124=6±234=3±32.


    Q2. Find the values of k so that the quadratic has two equal roots.

    (i) 2x2+kx+3=0.
    For equal roots Δ=0k24(2)(3)=0k224=0.
    So k=±24=±26

    (ii) kx(x2)+6=0.
    Expand: kx22kx+6=0. Here a=k, b=2k, c=6. For equal roots Δ=0

    (2k)24(k)(6)=04k224k=4k(k6)=0.

    This gives k=0 or k=6.
    But k=0 makes the equation 6=0 (not a quadratic), so discard k=0.
    Valid value: k=(gives a quadratic with a repeated root).


    Q3. Mango grove: length = twice breadth, area =800 m2. Find length and breadth.

    Let breadth =b. Length =2b. Area: 2b2=800b2=400b=20 (positive).
    Length =2b=40
    Answer: Breadth 20 m, length 40 m.


    Q4. Ages problem: Sum of ages =20. Four years ago product of ages was 48. Is this possible? If so, find present ages.

    Let present ages be x and 20x. Four years ago their ages were x4 and 16x. Given:

    (x4)(16x)=48.Δ<0no real solution.
    Conclusion: The situation is not possible (no pair of real ages satisfies the conditions).


    Q5. Park: perimeter =80 m and area =400 m2. Is this possible? If so, find length and breadth.

    Let length =l, breadth =b. From perimeter l+b=40. Area gives l(40l)=400.
    So l2+40l400=0l240l+400=0.
    Discriminant Δ=40241400=16001600=0.
    Δ=0 ⇒ equal roots: l=402=20. Then b=40l=20
    Answer: Yes — the park is 20 m×20 m (a square).


  • Exercise-4.2, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 4, NCERT

    Q1. Find the roots by factorisation

    (i) x23x10=0
    Factor: (x5)(x+2)=0
    Roots: x=5, 2

    (ii) 2x2+x6=0
    Factor: (2x3)(x+2)=0
    Roots: x=32, 2

    (iii) 2x2+7x+5=0 (interpreting the printed form as 2x2+7x+5=0)
    Factor: (2x+5)(x+1)=0
    Roots: x=52, 1

    (iv) 2x2x+18=0
    Multiply by 8: 16x28x+1=0. This is (4x1)2=0.
    Double root: x=14

    (v) 100x220x+1=0
    This is (10x1)2=0
    Double root: x=110


    Q2. Solve the problems given in Example 1 (from the book).

    (i) John and Jivanti have 45 marbles. After each loses 5, product = 124.
    Let John = x. Then Jivanti = 45x. Equation: (x5)(40x)=124x245x+324=0
    Discriminant D=45241324=20251296=729 

    D=27


    x=45±272x=36 or x=9
    So John could have had 36 (then Jivanti 9) or John 9 (then Jivanti 36). Both satisfy the condition.

    (ii) Toys: let number =x. Cost per toy =55x. Total x(55x)=750 ⇒ x255x+750=0
    D=55241750=30253000=25, D=5.
    x=55±52x=30 or x=25
    Cost per toy: if x=30→ cost = 25₹; if x=25 → cost = 30.
    So number produced = 30 (cost ₹25) or 25 (cost ₹30).


    Q3. Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182.

    Answer – Two numbers sum 27 and product 182

    Let x and 27x: x(27x)=182 ⇒ x227x+182=0
    D=2724182=729728=1
    x=27±12x=14 or 13.
    Numbers: 14 and 13.


    Q4. Find two consecutive positive integers, sum of whose squares is 365.

    Answer – Two consecutive positive integers whose sum of squares is 365

    Let integers n and n+1: n2+(n+1)2=365

    2n2+2n+1=365 ⇒ n2+n182=0
    D=1+728=729, D=27

    n=1±272n=13 (positive).
    Integers: 13 and 14.


    Q5.The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other two sides.

    Answer – Right triangle: altitude = base − 7, hypotenuse = 13. Find the other two sides

    Let base =b, altitude =b7. Then b2+(b7)2=132=169
    So 2b214b120=0b27b60= (b12)(b+5)=0
    Positive solution b=12. Altitude =127=5
    Sides: base 12 cm, altitude 5 cm, hypotenuse 13 cm.


    Q6.A cottage industry produces a certain number of pottery articles in a day. It was observed on a particular day that the cost of production of each article (in rupees) was 3 more than twice the number of articles produced on that day. If the total cost of production on that day was ` 90, find the number of articles produced and the cost of each article.

    Answer – Cottage industry: cost per article = 2×(no.)+3, total cost = 90

    Let number =x. Total: x(2x+3)=90 ⇒ 2x2+3x90=0.
    D=3242(90)=9+720=729, D=27.
    x=3±274x=244=6 (positive). Cost per article =26+3=15
    Answer: 6 articles; cost ₹15 each.

  • Exercise-4.1, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 4, NCERT

    1. Check whether the following are quadratic equations

    For each equation I rewrite it in the form “polynomial = 0” and check the degree.

    (i) (x+1)2=2(x3)
    LHS − RHS = (x+1)22(x3)=x2+7.
    So x2+7=0. Degree 2 → Yes, quadratic.

    (ii) x22x=(2)(3x)
    LHS − RHS = x22x(2)(3x)=x24x+6.
    So x24x+6=0. Degree 2 → Yes, quadratic.

    (iii) (x2)(x+1)=(x1)(x+3)
    LHS − RHS = (x2)(x+1)(x1)(x+3)=13x.
    So 13x=0 or 3x+1=0. Degree 1 → Not a quadratic (it’s linear).

    (iv) (x3)(2x+1)=x(x+5)
    LHS − RHS = (x3)(2x+1)x(x+5)=x210x3.
    So x210x3=0. Degree 2 → Yes, quadratic.

    (v) (2x1)(x3)=(x+5)(x1)
    LHS − RHS = (2x1)(x3)(x+5)(x1)=x211x+8.
    So x211x+8=0. Degree 2 → Yes, quadratic.

    (vi) x2+3x+1=(x2)2
    LHS − RHS = x2+3x+1(x2)2=7x3.
    So 7x3=0. Degree 1 → Not a quadratic (linear).

    (vii) (x+2)3=2x(x21)
    LHS − RHS = (x+2)32x(x21)=x3+6x2+14x+8.
    Degree 3 → Not a quadratic (cubic).

    (viii) x34x2x+1=(x2)3
    LHS − RHS = x34x2x+1(x2)3=2x213x+9.
    So 2x213x+9=0. Degree 2 → Yes, quadratic.

    Summary (yes = quadratic): (i) yes, (ii) yes, (iii) no, (iv) yes, (v) yes, (vi) no, (vii) no, (viii) yes.

    jemh104


    2. Represent (and solve) the situations as quadratic equations

    I’ll write the equation and solve each (you asked “solve all the questions” — so I solved them).

    (i) The area of a rectangular plot is 528 m2. The length of the plot (in metres) is one more than twice its breadth. We need to find the length and breadth of the plot.

    Solution:- The area of a rectangular plot is 528 m2. Length = one more than twice breadth.
    Let breadth = b (m). Then length = 2b+1
    Equation: (2b+1)b=528
    So 2b2+b528=0. Divide or solve:

    Solve: 2b2+b528=0b=16
    b=33/2. Breadth must be positive → breadth = 16 m.
    Length = 2(16)+1=33.

    Answer: Equation 2b2+b528=0. Dimensions: 16 m by 33 m.


    (ii) The product of two consecutive positive integers is 306. We need to find the integers.

    Solution :- Product of two consecutive positive integers is 306.
    Let the smaller integer be n. Then n(n+1)=306.
    Equation: n2+n306=0

    Solve: n2+n306=0n=17 or n=18. Positive solution → integers are 17 and 18.


    (iii) Rohan’s mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages (in years) 3 years from now will be 360. We would like to find Rohan’s present age.

    Solution :- Rohan’s mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages (in years) 3 years from now will be 360. Find Rohan’s present age.
    Let Rohan’s present age = x. Mother = x+26. In 3 years: ages x+3 and x+29.
    Equation: (x+3)(x+29)=360. Expand: x2+32x+87=360x2+32x273=0

    Solve: x2+32x273=0x=7 or x=39. Reject negative → Rohan is 7 years old, mother is 7+26=33 years.


    (iv) A train travels a distance of 480 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 8 km/h less, then it would have taken 3 hours more to cover the same distance. We need to find the speed of the train.

    Solution :- A train travels 480 km at uniform speed. If the speed had been 8 km/h less it would have taken 3 hours more. Find the speed.
    Let speed = s km/h. Regular time = 480/s. Slower speed time = 480/(s8). Given: 480/(s8)=480/s+3

    Multiply through and simplify → quadratic: 3s2120s3840=0 (after clearing denominators and simplifying) which reduces to s240s1280=0. Solving gives s=40 or s=32. Reject negative → speed = 40 km/h.

  • Exercise-3.3, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter-3, NCERT

    1. Solve by elimination and substitution

    (i) x+y=5,2x3y=4

    Elimination:

    • Multiply x+y=5 by 2: 2x+2y=10

    • Subtract 2x3y=4 from this: (2x+2y)(2x3y)=1045y=6

    • So y=65. Then x=565=195.

    Substitution (quick):

    • x=5y. Put in 2x3y=4
      2(5y)3y=4105y=4y=6/5, same result.

    Answer: (x,y)=(195,65)


    (ii) 3x+4y=10,2x2y=2

    Elimination:

    • Multiply second eqn by 2: 4x4y=4

    • Add to first: (3x+4y)+(4x4y)=10+47x=14x=2

    • Then 3(2)+4y=106+4y=10y=1

    Substitution would give same.

    Answer: (x,y)=(2,1)


    (iii) 3x5y4=0 and 9x=2y+7.
    Rewrite:

    • 3x5y=4 and 9x2y=7

    Elimination:

    • Multiply first by 3: 9x15y=12

    • Subtract the second: (9x15y)(9x2y)=12713y=5y=513

    • Then 3x5(5/13)=43x+2513=43x=2713x=913

    Answer: (x,y)=(913,513)


    (iv) x2+2y3=1,xy3=3

    First clear denominators:

    • Multiply first by 6: 3x+4y=6

    • Multiply second by 3: 3xy=9

    Elimination:

    • Subtract the second from the first: (3x+4y)(3xy)=695y=15y=3.

    • Then 3x(3)=93x+3=93x=6x=2.

    Answer: (x,y)=(2,3)


    2. Word problems — form the pair and solve (elimination)

    (i) Fraction problem.
    Let fraction =xy. Conditions:

    x+1y1=1x+1=y1  xy=2.xy+1=122x=y+1.

    Solve: from xy=2 ⇒ x=y2

    Put in 2x=y+1: 2(y2)=y+12y4=y+1y=5.

    Then x=3.

    Answer: The fraction is 35


    (ii) Ages problem (Nuri & Sonu).
    Let Nuri =N, Sonu =S

    Five years ago: N5=3(S5)  N3S=10.

    Ten years later: N+10=2(S+10)  N2S=10.

    Subtract first from second: (N2S)(N3S)=10(10)S=20. Then N2(20)=10N=50.

    Answer: Nuri =50 years, Sonu =20 years.


    (iii) Two-digit number.
    Let tens digit =x, units =y. Then number =10x+y
    Given x+y=9.
    Also 9(10x+y)=2(10y+x)
    Compute: 90x+9y=20y+2x88x=11y8x=y.
    Combine with x+y=9
    x+8x=99x=9x=1, y=8
    Number =18

    Answer: 18.

  • Exercise-3.2, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter-3, NCERT

    1. Solve the following pairs by the substitution method.

    (i) x+y=14,xy=4.
    Add the two equations: 2x=18x=9.Then y=149=5.
    Answer: (x,y)=(9,5)


    (ii) st=3,s3+t2=6.
    From first: s=t+3.

    Substitute:

    t+33+t2=6  2(t+3)+3t6=62t+6+3t=365t=30t=6.Then s=6+3=9.
    Answer: (s,t)=(9,6).


    (iii) 3xy=3,9x3y=9.
    Observe second equation is 3×(3xy)=9. So the two equations are dependent — they represent the same line.
    From 3xy=3y=3x3. Any (x,y) with y=3x3 is a solution.
    Answer: Infinitely many solutions.


    (iv) 0.2x+0.3y=1.3,0.4x+0.5y=2.3
    Multiply both equations by 10 to clear decimals:

    2x+3y=13,4x+5y=23.

    From the first: 2x=133yx=133y2.

    Substitute into second (or eliminate): multiply first by 2: 4x+6y=26.

    Subtract second:

    (4x+6y)(4x+5y)=2623y=3.

    Then 2x+33=132x=4x=2.

    Answer: (x,y)=(2,3)


    (v) 2x+3y=0,3x8y=0.
    Note 8=22. From the first: x=32y.

    Substitute in second:

    3 ⁣(32y)22y=032y22y=0.

    Multiply by 2: 3y4y=7y=0y=0
    Answer: (x,y)=(0,0)


    (vi) 32x53y=2,x3+y2=136.
    Clear denominators by multiplying both equations by 6:

    9x10y=12,2x+3y=13.

    From second: 2x=133yx=133y2.

    Substitute or eliminate: multiply second by 5 → 10x+15y=65Add with 9x10y=12 after appropriate ops or eliminate y: multiply first by 3: 27x30y=36; multiply second by 10: 20x+30y=130.

    Add:

    47x=94x=2,2(2)+3y=13y=3.

    Answer: (x,y)=(2,3).


    2. Solve 2x+3y=11 and 2x4y=24. Hence find m for which y=mx+3.

    Subtract second from first:

    (2x+3y)(2x4y)=11(24)7y=35y=5.Then 2x+35=112x=4x=2.
    We need m so that y=mx+3 holds at (x,y)=(2,5):

    5=m(2)+32m=2m=1.

    Answer: solution (x,y)=(2,5). Value m=1.


    3. Form the pair of linear equations for each situation and solve by substitution.

    (i) The difference between two numbers is 26 and one number is three times the other.
    Let smaller =a, larger =b. Given ba=26 and b=3a. Substitute: 3aa=262a=26a=13, b=39.
    Answer: Numbers are 13 and 39.


    (ii) The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18°. Find them.
    Let smaller =θ, larger =ϕ. θ+ϕ=180, ϕθ=18. Add: 2ϕ=198ϕ=99, θ=81.
    Answer: 81 and 99.


    (iii) Coach buys 7 bats and 6 balls for ₹3800. Later 3 bats and 5 balls for ₹1750. Find cost of bat and ball.
    Let bat cost B, ball cost C:

    7B+6C=3800,3B+5C=1750.

    Multiply second by 2: 6B+10C=3500.

    Subtract from first×1 (or eliminate): From 7B+6C=3800 minus the 6B+10C=3500

    B4C=300(but easier: multiply first by5 and second by6 → eliminate).

    (Direct elimination:) Multiply first by5: 35B+30C=19000

    Multiply second by6: 18B+30C=10500

    Subtract: 17B=8500B=500
    3(500)+5C=17501500+5C=1750C=50.
    Answer: Bat = ₹500, Ball = ₹50.


    (iv) Taxi: fixed charge + per km charge. For 10 km pay ₹105; for 15 km pay ₹155. Find fixed charge, per km charge. Cost for 25 km?
    Let fixed charge=F, rate per km =r

    F+10r=105,F+15r=155.

    Subtract: 5r=50r=10.

    Then F=1051010=5

    F+25r=5+250=255
    Answer: Fixed = ₹5, per km = ₹10, for 25 km = ₹255.


    (v) A fraction becomes 911 if 2 is added to numerator and denominator; becomes 56 if 3 is added to both. Find the fraction.
    Let fraction =xy.

    x+2y+2=91111(x+2)=9(y+2)11x9y=4.
    x+3y+3=566(x+3)=5(y+3)6x5y=3.

    Solve:
    Multiply second by11: 66x55y=33. Multiply first by6: 66x54y=24

    Subtract: (55y)(54y)=y=9y=9. Then 6x5(9)=36x45=36x=42x=7.
    Answer: Fraction is 79


    (vi) Five years hence Jacob’s age will be three times his son’s; five years ago Jacob’s age was seven times his son’s. Find present ages.
    Let present ages Jacob =J son =S

    J+5=3(S+5)J3S=10,
    J5=7(S5)J7S=30.

    Subtract second from first: (J3S)(J7S)=10(30)4S=40S=10.

    Then J=3S+10=310+10=40.
    Answer: Jacob = 40 years, son = 10 years.

  • Exercise-3.1, Class 10th, Maths, Chapter 3, NCERT

    Q1. Form the pair of linear equations and solve graphically.

    (i) 10 students; number of girls is 4 more than number of boys.
    Let number of boys = x, girls = y.
    Equations:

    x+y=10,y=x+4.

    Substitute: x+(x+4)=102x+4=102x=6x=3
    So y=7.

    Answer: 3 boys and 7 girls.

    (ii) 5 pencils + 7 pens cost ₹50; 7 pencils + 5 pens cost ₹46.
    Let pencil = p, pen = q.

    5p+7q=50,7p+5q=46.

    Subtract the second from the first:

    (5p+7q)(7p+5q)=50462p+2q=4p+q=2q=p+2.

    Substitute into 5p+7q=50:

    5p+7(p+2)=505p+7p+14=5012p=36p=3.

    So q=5

    Answer: pencil = ₹3, pen = ₹5.


    Q2. Determine whether the pairs represent intersecting, parallel or coincident lines (compare ratios).

    General rule for two linear equations a1x+b1y+c1=and a2x+b2y+c2=0

    • If a1a2b1b2intersecting (one unique solution).

    • If a1a2=b1b2c1c2parallel (no solution).

    • If a1a2=b1b2=c1c → coincident (infinitely many solutions).

    (i) 5x4y+8=and 7x+6y9=0.
    a1a2=57, b1b2=46=23 They are not equal ⇒ intersecting.

    (ii) 9x+3y+12=0 and 18x+6y+24=0.
    a1a2=918=12, b1b2=36=12, c1c2=1224=12. All equal ⇒ coincident (infinitely many solutions).

    (iii) 6x3y+10=0 and 2xy+9=0.
    a1a2=62=3, b1b2=31=3, c1c2=1093. So a1a2=b1b2c1c2parallel (no solution).


    Q3. Using ratio comparisons, say whether pairs are consistent or inconsistent.

    (i) 3x+2y=5 and 2x3y=7.
    a1a2=32, b1b2=23→ not equal ⇒ consistent (unique solution).

    (ii) 2x3y=8 and 4x6y=9.
    a1a2=24=12, b1b2=36=12, c1c2=8912parallelinconsistent (no solution).

    (iii)  35x+72y=3, and the second is 9x10y=14.
    Multiply first by 10 to clear denominators: 6x+35y=30

    Second: 9x10y=14. These two have a1a2=69=23 and b1b2=3510=72 — not equal ⇒ consistent (unique solution).

    (iv) 5x3y=11 and 10x+6y=22.
    Second is 2×(first) so all ratios equal ⇒ coincident, infinitely many solutions (consistent).

    (v)  2x+3y=12


    Q4. Which of the following are consistent/inconsistent? If consistent, solve graphically.

    (i) x+y=5, 2x+2y=10.Second is 2× first ⇒ coincident (infinitely many solutions).

    (ii) xy=8, 3x3y=16 If second were 3× first it would be 24 on RHS, but it’s 16 ⇒ contradiction ⇒ inconsistent (no solution).

    (iii) 2x+y6=0 and 4x2y4=0. Rewrite:

    2x+y=6and4x2y=4.

    Solve: from first y=62x. Substitute into second:

    4x2(62x)=44x12+4x=48x=16x=2.

    Then y=64=2

    Answer: unique solution (2,2) — consistent.

    (iv) 2x2y2=0 and 4x4y5=0.

    First ⇒ 2x2y=2. Multiply first by 2 gives 4x4y=4 but second has 4x4y=5 ⇒ contradiction ⇒ inconsistent (no solution).


    Q5. Rectangle: half-perimeter = 36 m; length = width + 4. Find dimensions.

    Half-perimeter = l+w=36. Given l=w+4. So (w+4)+w=362w+4=36w=16

     Then l=20

    Answer: Width = 16 m, Length = 20 m.


    Q6. Given the line 2x+3y8=, write another linear equation so that the pair is:

    (i) intersecting lines — pick any line not proportional in a,b.
    Example: xy=0. The pair 2x+3y8=0 and xy=0 intersect (unique solution).

    (ii) parallel lines — choose a,b proportional but c not proportional.
    Example: 4x+6y10=0. Here 24=36=12 but 810=0.812 ⇒ parallel, no solution.

    (iii) coincident lines — exact scalar multiple, e.g. 4x+6y16=0 (= 2×(first)). ⇒ coincident, infinitely many solutions.


    Q7. Draw graphs of xy+1=0 and 3x+2y12=0. Find vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the x-axis; shade the triangular region.

    Equations:

    • xy+1=0y=x+1.  x-intercept: set y=0x=1 → point A(1,0).

    • 3x+2y12=0y=32x+6. x-intercept: set y=0x=4 → point B(4,0).

    • Intersection of the two lines: solve x+1=32x+652x=5x=2. Then y=3 → point C(2,3).

    Vertices of triangle: (1,0), (4,0), (2,3). Shade the triangular region bounded by the two lines and the x-axis.

  • Chapter 5: Pastoralists in the Modern World, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
    → Nomadic tribes move in search of pasture and water for their herds. Seasonal changes force them to shift between high mountains, plains, and deserts. This mobility prevents overgrazing, allows natural vegetation to regenerate, and maintains ecological balance. It ensures sustainable use of fragile environments like mountains and dry regions.

    Q2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:

    • Waste Land Rules: To expand cultivation and increase revenue. Pastoralists lost grazing grounds.

    • Forest Acts: Reserved valuable forests for timber. Pastoralists lost access and needed permits, reducing freedom.

    • Criminal Tribes Act: Declared many nomadic groups as criminals, forcing settlement and surveillance.

    • Grazing Tax: Revenue from animals; increased burden on herders, reduced herd size.

    Q3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
    → Colonial partition divided Maasailand between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. Best pastures were taken for white settlement, agriculture, and game reserves like Serengeti. Maasais were pushed to dry, arid areas, losing 60% of their lands.

    Q4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples.
    → In both regions:

    1. Colonial governments reserved grazing lands for cultivation and timber, reducing pastures.

    2. Movement was restricted through permits, taxes, and boundaries. Both Indian pastoralists and Maasais faced hardships during droughts and famines.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the lifestyle of pastoralists in India before colonial rule.
    Pastoralists in India lived diverse lives across mountains, plateaus, plains, and deserts. Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir moved seasonally between Siwalik hills and Kashmir valleys. Gaddi shepherds of Himachal migrated between Lahul, Spiti, and Siwaliks. Dhangars of Maharashtra shifted from dry plateaus to Konkan fields after harvests, where their flocks fertilised soil. Kurumas, Kurubas, and Gollas of Andhra and Karnataka combined herding with cultivation and trade. Raikas of Rajasthan reared camels and sheep, moving between desert villages and distant pastures. Their movements were carefully planned to balance pasture availability, climate, and relations with farmers. Such mobility sustained fragile environments, ensured regeneration of vegetation, and supported both pastoralists and farmers.


    Q2. How did colonial policies affect Indian pastoralists?
    Colonial forest and land policies disrupted pastoral life. Waste Land Rules took over grazing grounds for cultivation. Forest Acts restricted access to reserved forests, forcing herders to seek permits. Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups, forcing them into fixed settlements. Grazing Tax increased their financial burden, reducing herd sizes. Movement was closely monitored; herders were fined for overstaying in pastures. Many pastoralists lost their livestock during famines due to lack of grazing land. Some adapted by settling as farmers or traders, while others migrated to new regions. Overall, colonial policies transformed pastoralists from free-moving communities to controlled, taxed, and impoverished groups.


    Q3. Discuss the Bastar Rebellion of 1910 in the context of pastoral struggles.
    In Bastar, forest reservation threatened tribals’ traditional rights. When the government decided to reserve two-thirds of forests, shifting cultivators, herders, and artisans faced displacement. Taxes increased and free labour was demanded. Led by Gunda Dhur, tribals launched the Bastar Rebellion in 1910. Mango boughs, chillies, and arrows were circulated as symbols of mobilisation. Rebels attacked police stations, schools, and officials, redistributed grain, and destroyed records. British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the rebellion forced them to relax reservation. The Bastar uprising symbolised the deep resistance of forest-dependent and pastoral communities against colonial exploitation.


    Q4. Explain the impact of restrictions on Maasai pastoralists in East Africa.
    The Maasais lost 60% of their land under British and German colonial rule. Pastures were converted into farms and game reserves. Boundaries confined Maasais to semi-arid zones with poor pastures. Permits restricted their seasonal movement, while access to water sources was denied. During droughts, thousands of cattle perished due to lack of forage. Social structure also changed: elders and warriors lost authority, while British-appointed chiefs gained power and wealth. Poor pastoralists suffered heavily, losing herds and turning to labour, while richer ones diversified into trade. Thus, colonial restrictions weakened Maasai economy, ecology, and culture, reducing them to poverty.


    Q5. Why do historians consider pastoralism ecologically viable even today?
    Pastoralism is suited to fragile environments like deserts and mountains. Continuous mobility prevents overgrazing, allowing vegetation to regenerate. Herds fertilise fields while grazing on stubble, benefiting farmers. In dry and hilly regions where cultivation is uncertain, pastoralism ensures sustainable livelihood. Modern restrictions caused decline, yet pastoralism remains relevant. Ecologists argue that nomadic herding is more sustainable than intensive farming in semi-arid regions. It adapts to seasonal changes, balances ecology, and reduces pressure on scarce resources. Thus, despite modern challenges, pastoralism continues to be an ecologically viable way of life, practiced widely in India, Africa, and Central Asia.


    MCQs

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals are found in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to:
      (a) Thar desert
      (b) Lahul and Spiti
      (c) Konkan coast
      (d) Deccan plateau
      Answer: (b)

    3. Dhangars are associated with:
      (a) Himachal
      (b) Maharashtra
      (c) Karnataka
      (d) Rajasthan
      Answer: (b)

    4. Raikas are camel herders of:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) Gujarat
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Haryana
      Answer: (c)

    5. Kurumas and Kurubas belonged to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu
      (b) Andhra & Karnataka
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (b)

    6. Waste Land Rules were enacted to:
      (a) Expand forests
      (b) Increase cultivation
      (c) Encourage herding
      (d) Promote trade
      Answer: (b)

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act was passed in:
      (a) 1861
      (b) 1871
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1891
      Answer: (b)

    8. Grazing Tax was imposed on:
      (a) Crops
      (b) Animals
      (c) Forests
      (d) Landlords
      Answer: (b)

    9. Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Kolkata
      (d) Shimla
      Answer: (b)

    10. Bastar Rebellion took place in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1921
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Maasai are found in:
      (a) South Africa
      (b) Kenya & Tanzania
      (c) Nigeria
      (d) Egypt
      Answer: (b)

    12. Maasai lost about ___% of their land:
      (a) 30%
      (b) 40%
      (c) 50%
      (d) 60%
      Answer: (d)

    13. Which park was created on Maasai grazing land?
      (a) Serengeti
      (b) Maasai Mara
      (c) Amboseli
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    14. Which community in Java resisted Dutch forestry laws?
      (a) Kalangs
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Kurubas
      (d) Bakarwals
      Answer: (a)

    15. Permit system was introduced under:
      (a) Waste Land Rules
      (b) Criminal Tribes Act
      (c) Forest Acts
      (d) Grazing Tax
      Answer: (c)

    16. During droughts, Maasai cattle died in:
      (a) 1925–26
      (b) 1930–31
      (c) 1933–34
      (d) 1940–41
      Answer: (c)

    17. Maasai social structure was divided into:
      (a) Rich & poor
      (b) Elders & warriors
      (c) Farmers & herders
      (d) Men & women
      Answer: (b)

    18. The colonial government considered nomads as:
      (a) Peaceful
      (b) Criminals
      (c) Educated
      (d) Rich
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which Indian pastoral community reared camels in Thar desert?
      (a) Gaddis
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Dhangars
      (d) Banjaras
      Answer: (b)

    20. Pastoralism is still considered:
      (a) Backward
      (b) Ecologically viable
      (c) Outdated
      (d) Criminal
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals move annually between Siwaliks and Kashmir valley.

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to Lahul and Spiti in summer.

    3. Dhangars of Maharashtra move to the Konkan coast after harvest.

    4. Raikas of Rajasthan rear camels, sheep, and goats.

    5. Waste Land Rules converted grazing land into cultivation.

    6. The Forest Acts restricted grazing rights.

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups.

    8. Pastoralists had to pay grazing tax on every animal.

    9. Maasai lost 60% of their grazing land.

    10. The Serengeti Park was created on Maasai pastures.

  • Chapter 4: Forest Society and Colonialism, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

    • Shifting cultivators: Banned from practicing jhum, many lost livelihood and were displaced. Some resisted or joined rebellions.

    • Nomadic and pastoralist communities: Lost access to grazing lands, were forced to change occupations.

    • Firms trading in timber/forest produce: Some European firms gained monopoly rights, but local traders lost access.

    • Plantation owners: Benefited hugely, as forests were cleared for tea, coffee, and rubber plantations.

    • Kings/British officials engaged in hunting: Encouraged big game hunting, leading to destruction of wildlife.


    Q2. What are the similarities between colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java?
    → Both regions saw large-scale reservation of forests, restriction on local use, and introduction of scientific forestry. Communities lost customary rights and were forced into labour. Rebellions occurred—Bastar in 1910, Kalang and Samin movements in Java. In both cases, colonial states prioritised timber needs over people’s livelihoods.


    Q3. Discuss factors leading to decline in India’s forest cover (1880–1920).

    • Railways: Huge demand for sleepers and fuel.

    • Shipbuilding: Timber for navy and trade ships.

    • Agricultural expansion: Peasants encouraged to clear forests.

    • Commercial farming: Jute, cotton, wheat grown for Europe.

    • Plantations: Tea, coffee, rubber cleared natural forests.

    • Peasant use: Collection of firewood, fruits, grazing also added.


    Q4. Why are forests affected by wars?
    → During wars, timber was urgently needed for barracks, railways, weapons, and fuel. In WWI and WWII, British cut Indian forests recklessly. In Java, Dutch burnt logs to prevent Japanese capture; Japanese later exploited forests. Wars thus caused massive deforestation.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain how colonial forest policies affected the lives of forest dwellers.
    Colonial forest policies drastically changed the lives of forest dwellers. The Forest Acts of 1865, 1878, and 1927 brought forests under strict state control. Villagers were banned from hunting, grazing cattle, and collecting wood or forest produce. Shifting cultivation was prohibited, forcing many tribes to abandon their traditional livelihood. Customary rights were replaced by permits, which were hard to obtain. Many communities were displaced, some forced into bonded labour in forest villages. Women collecting firewood faced harassment by guards. Hunting became a sport for British officials, while ordinary people were punished as poachers. Thus, forest dwellers lost autonomy, livelihoods, and dignity under colonial forest laws.


    Q2. Describe the Bastar rebellion of 1910.
    The Bastar rebellion was a major tribal uprising against British forest policies. Located in present-day Chhattisgarh, Bastar’s communities like Gonds, Dhurwas, and Bhatras depended on forests for food, fuel, and shifting cultivation. In 1905, the government proposed reserving two-thirds of the forest, displacing villages and forcing others to work for free. Famines and exploitation worsened discontent. Under leaders like Gunda Dhur, villagers circulated mango boughs, chillies, and arrows as rebellion signals. In 1910, bazaars, schools, and police stations were attacked, officials’ houses burnt, and grain redistributed. The British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the planned reservation was reduced. The rebellion showed how forest communities resisted colonial oppression.


    Q3. What was ‘scientific forestry’? How did it differ from villagers’ ideas of a good forest?
    Scientific forestry, introduced by Dietrich Brandis, meant systematic cutting of natural forests and replacing them with single-species plantations like teak or sal. The Indian Forest Service (1864) and Imperial Forest Research Institute (1906) promoted it. Officials managed forests with working plans, restricting local use. For villagers, a good forest meant diversity—fuel, fodder, fruits, leaves, and medicinal plants. For the state, forests meant revenue and timber. Thus, scientific forestry prioritised commercial exploitation, while villagers’ needs were ignored. Over time, this system caused ecological imbalance and discontent among communities.


    Q4. Explain the similarities and differences between Indian and Indonesian forest policies under colonial rule.
    Both India (under the British) and Java (under the Dutch) saw strict forest laws. Villagers were banned from shifting cultivation, grazing, or hunting. Forest services were set up, and labour was extracted for timber extraction. In Bastar, resistance led to the 1910 rebellion, while in Java, the Kalangs and Saminists opposed Dutch control. A difference was that in Java, systems like blandongdiensten forced villagers to provide free labour and buffaloes in return for rent exemptions. In India, labour was extracted through ‘forest villages’. Thus, while contexts differed, both colonial powers prioritised timber for ships, railways, and wars over local rights.


    Q5. Analyse the impact of colonial forest management on ecology and economy.
    Colonial policies led to large-scale deforestation. Between 1880–1920, 9.7 million hectares of forests were lost. Monoculture plantations reduced biodiversity and soil fertility. Wildlife was hunted to near extinction—over 80,000 tigers and 200,000 wolves were killed. Ecologically, rivers dried, soil eroded, and climate patterns changed. Economically, local people were impoverished while European firms gained monopoly over trade. Plantations enriched planters but displaced tribals. Forest laws criminalised traditional practices, turning communities into labourers for the state. Thus, colonial forestry damaged both the environment and indigenous economies.


    MCQs

    1. Deforestation means:
      (a) Growing more trees
      (b) Disappearance of forests
      (c) Cutting grasslands
      (d) Making plantations
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India?
      (a) Lord Curzon
      (b) Dietrich Brandis
      (c) William Ward
      (d) Gunda Dhur
      Answer: (b)

    3. The Indian Forest Act was first passed in:
      (a) 1864
      (b) 1865
      (c) 1878
      (d) 1927
      Answer: (b)

    4. Forests were divided into:
      (a) Two categories
      (b) Three categories
      (c) Four categories
      (d) Five categories
      Answer: (b)

    5. Reserved forests meant:
      (a) Villagers could freely use them
      (b) Only for shifting cultivation
      (c) No access for villagers
      (d) For hunting only
      Answer: (c)

    6. Shifting cultivation in India is locally called:
      (a) Podu
      (b) Chena
      (c) Kumri
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    7. Bastar rebellion occurred in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1920
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    8. Leader associated with Bastar rebellion:
      (a) Gunda Dhur
      (b) Birsa Munda
      (c) Alluri Sitarama Raju
      (d) Kanu
      Answer: (a)

    9. Dutch introduced the blandongdiensten system in:
      (a) India
      (b) Java
      (c) Burma
      (d) Malaya
      Answer: (b)

    10. Kalangs of Java were:
      (a) Traders
      (b) Woodcutters
      (c) Soldiers
      (d) Farmers
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which tree was mainly promoted in plantations?
      (a) Neem
      (b) Teak
      (c) Mango
      (d) Bamboo
      Answer: (b)

    12. Hunting became:
      (a) A livelihood
      (b) A sport
      (c) Illegal for British
      (d) Religious practice
      Answer: (b)

    13. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Bombay
      (d) Calcutta
      Answer: (b)

    14. The Bastar rebellion was triggered by:
      (a) High taxes
      (b) Forest reservation
      (c) Famine
      (d) British hunting laws
      Answer: (b)

    15. Samin’s movement in Java opposed:
      (a) Rent collection
      (b) Forest ownership by state
      (c) Trade restrictions
      (d) Plantation expansion
      Answer: (b)

    16. The British killed over _____ tigers between 1875–1925.
      (a) 40,000
      (b) 60,000
      (c) 80,000
      (d) 1,00,000
      Answer: (c)

    17. Forests were heavily exploited during:
      (a) World Wars
      (b) Revolts
      (c) Famines
      (d) Festivals
      Answer: (a)

    18. The mahua tree provides:
      (a) Fruits
      (b) Alcohol and oil
      (c) Medicines
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    19. Which community in Central India petitioned against loss of shifting cultivation?
      (a) Baigas
      (b) Bhils
      (c) Mundas
      (d) Santhals
      Answer: (a)

    20. Java’s forests were mainly rich in:
      (a) Mango
      (b) Teak
      (c) Bamboo
      (d) Coffee
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The disappearance of forests is called deforestation.

    2. The first Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis.

    3. The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

    4. Forests were divided into reserved, protected, and village forests.

    5. Shifting cultivation in Andhra Pradesh is known as podu.

    6. The Bastar rebellion took place in 1910.

    7. The Dutch used the blandongdiensten system in Java.

    8. Gunda Dhur was a leader in Bastar.

    9. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was established at Dehradun.

    10. The mahua tree is valued for its flowers, oil, and alcohol.

  • Chapter 3: Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.
    → The Weimar Republic, set up after WWI, faced several challenges. The Treaty of Versailles imposed heavy reparations, territorial losses, and the War Guilt Clause. Politically, proportional representation led to unstable coalition governments, while Article 48 allowed the President to rule by decree. Economically, Germany suffered hyperinflation in 1923 and was hit hard by the Great Depression in 1929, causing massive unemployment. The Republic was also criticised by nationalists as the creation of “November criminals”. These problems weakened democracy and paved the way for Hitler’s rise.

    Q2. Why did Nazism become popular in Germany by 1930?
    → The Great Depression created unemployment, poverty, and discontent. Hitler promised jobs, national revival, and an end to the humiliation of Versailles. Nazi propaganda projected him as a saviour, holding mass rallies, using radio, posters, and symbols like the swastika. His promises of strong leadership, racial purity, and expansion appealed to many. Weakness of the Weimar Republic and fear of communism also helped. By 1932, the Nazis became the largest party in the Reichstag.

    Q3. What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?
    → Nazi ideology believed in racial hierarchy, with Aryans as the “master race” and Jews, Gypsies, and Slavs as undesirables. It glorified war, conquest, and militarism. It rejected democracy and promoted one-party dictatorship. Nazis emphasised Lebensraum (living space) and expansion eastwards. They believed in total control over society, culture, education, and media. Women were confined to motherhood, while youth were indoctrinated through Nazi schools and organisations.

    Q4. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating hatred for Jews.
    → Nazi propaganda used films, posters, radio, and speeches to spread stereotypes of Jews as greedy, conspiratorial, and unpatriotic. Textbooks were rewritten to portray Jews as enemies. Rallies glorified Hitler and vilified minorities. The Nazis manipulated people’s fears during economic crisis, blaming Jews for both capitalism and communism. This constant repetition and visual imagery convinced many Germans to see Jews as responsible for Germany’s problems.

    Q5. Explain the role of women in Nazi society. Compare with the French Revolution.
    → Women in Nazi Germany were seen as mothers and bearers of the Aryan race. They were encouraged to have many children, awarded crosses for large families, and discouraged from careers. Women who had relations with Jews or bore “undesirable” children were punished. In contrast, during the French Revolution, women actively participated in political clubs and demanded equality, though rights were limited. Thus, while revolutionary women sought political rights, Nazi women were confined to domestic roles.

    Q6. How did the Nazi state establish total control over its people?
    → Hitler used the Enabling Act of 1933 to establish dictatorship. Political parties and trade unions were banned. The Gestapo, SS, and concentration camps suppressed dissent. Education and media were controlled to spread Nazi ideology. Youth organisations trained children in obedience and militarism. Surveillance, propaganda, and terror ensured that ordinary Germans followed Nazi policies. The state controlled economy, culture, and even private life, creating a totalitarian regime.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Discuss the impact of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany.
    The Treaty of Versailles (1919) had devastating effects on Germany. It held Germany responsible for WWI through the War Guilt Clause and forced it to pay £6 billion in reparations. Germany lost territories like Alsace-Lorraine, overseas colonies, 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal reserves. The Rhineland was demilitarised. The army was restricted to 100,000 men. These harsh terms caused humiliation and resentment among Germans. Nationalists blamed the Weimar Republic for accepting such a treaty, calling them “November criminals”. Economically, reparations strained Germany’s finances, leading to hyperinflation in 1923. The treaty crippled German pride, weakened democracy, and created conditions in which extremist ideologies like Nazism could grow. Thus, the Treaty of Versailles directly contributed to Hitler’s rise by creating anger, poverty, and a desire for revenge.

    Q2. How did the Great Depression help the rise of Hitler and the Nazi Party?
    The Great Depression of 1929 severely hit Germany, which was dependent on American loans under the Dawes Plan. When loans stopped, banks collapsed, businesses shut down, and unemployment soared to 6 million. Poverty, homelessness, and despair spread rapidly. The Weimar government failed to provide relief, and people lost faith in democracy. Hitler and the Nazis exploited this crisis through propaganda. They promised jobs, bread, and restoration of national pride. Nazi rallies projected Hitler as a strong leader who could rescue Germany. Their anti-communist stance reassured industrialists, while their promises to workers and peasants attracted the masses. By 1932, the Nazis emerged as the largest party in the Reichstag. Thus, the Depression was the turning point that converted Nazism from a fringe movement into a mass political force.

    Q3. Explain the features of Nazi racial ideology and its consequences.
    Nazi ideology was based on racism and belief in Aryan superiority. Hitler believed Germans were a pure Nordic Aryan race destined to dominate the world. Jews were considered the worst enemies, blamed for Germany’s defeat, economic problems, and social decay. Other groups like Gypsies, Slavs, blacks, and the disabled were seen as “undesirable”. This ideology led to systematic persecution. Jews were excluded from citizenship by the Nuremberg Laws (1935), boycotted, ghettoised, and finally exterminated in concentration camps during the Holocaust, where 6 million Jews were killed. Gypsies, political opponents, and the disabled were also massacred. Children of occupied territories were kidnapped and “racially examined”. Thus, Nazi racial ideology created one of the darkest chapters of human history, marked by genocide and crimes against humanity.

    Q4. Analyse the role of Nazi propaganda in strengthening Hitler’s control.
    Propaganda was central to Nazi control. Hitler understood the power of symbols, speeches, and media in shaping public opinion. Huge rallies with swastika flags, military parades, and Hitler’s charismatic oratory created mass appeal. Radio, films, and posters portrayed Hitler as Germany’s saviour. Jews were depicted as greedy, dangerous, and unpatriotic. School textbooks were rewritten with racial science, teaching children to hate minorities. Propaganda glorified motherhood for Aryan women and militarism for men. Even art and cinema were used to spread Nazi ideas. Through constant repetition, Nazi propaganda created an atmosphere where people accepted dictatorship, believed in Hitler’s messiah image, and participated in persecution. It turned lies into accepted truths and manipulated emotions to establish totalitarian control.

    Q5. What was the Holocaust? Why is it remembered as one of the greatest crimes against humanity?
    The Holocaust was the mass extermination of Jews and other “undesirable” groups by the Nazis during WWII. Between 1941–1945, millions of Jews were deported from ghettos to concentration camps like Auschwitz, Treblinka, and Sobibor, where they were gassed, starved, or worked to death. Gypsies, Poles, Russians, political prisoners, and the disabled were also victims. The Nazis carried out genocide with chilling efficiency, using trains, gas chambers, and crematoria. Over 6 million Jews perished, alongside millions of others. The Holocaust was not only a tragedy for the Jewish people but also a moral failure of humanity, as many nations remained silent. Today, it is remembered through memorials, literature, and museums as a warning against racism, hatred, and blind obedience. It remains one of history’s greatest crimes against humanity.


    MCQs

    1. The Weimar Republic was established in:
      (a) 1918
      (b) 1919
      (c) 1920
      (d) 1921
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Treaty of Versailles was signed in:
      (a) 1917
      (b) 1918
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1920
      Answer: (c)

    3. Germany was forced to pay reparations of:
      (a) £2 billion
      (b) £4 billion
      (c) £6 billion
      (d) £8 billion
      Answer: (c)

    4. Hyperinflation in Germany occurred in:
      (a) 1921
      (b) 1922
      (c) 1923
      (d) 1924
      Answer: (c)

    5. The Great Depression began with the Wall Street Crash in:
      (a) 1928
      (b) 1929
      (c) 1930
      (d) 1931
      Answer: (b)

    6. Hitler became Chancellor of Germany in:
      (a) 1929
      (b) 1932
      (c) 1933
      (d) 1934
      Answer: (c)

    7. The Enabling Act was passed in:
      (a) 1932
      (b) 1933
      (c) 1934
      (d) 1935
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which Nazi organisation was the secret state police?
      (a) SS
      (b) Gestapo
      (c) SA
      (d) SD
      Answer: (b)

    9. The Nazi salute and swastika were symbols of:
      (a) Socialism
      (b) Communism
      (c) Nazi ideology
      (d) Liberalism
      Answer: (c)

    10. Who was the Nazi propaganda minister?
      (a) Himmler
      (b) Goering
      (c) Goebbels
      (d) Hindenburg
      Answer: (c)

    11. The Nuremberg Laws were passed in:
      (a) 1933
      (b) 1934
      (c) 1935
      (d) 1936
      Answer: (c)

    12. Hitler’s autobiography was titled:
      (a) My Life
      (b) Mein Kampf
      (c) Struggle
      (d) Nazi Germany
      Answer: (b)

    13. Which concept meant “living space” in Nazi ideology?
      (a) Volk
      (b) Lebensraum
      (c) Aryanhood
      (d) Reich
      Answer: (b)

    14. The Holocaust refers to:
      (a) Nazi rise to power
      (b) Nazi racial policies
      (c) Mass killing of Jews
      (d) WWII battles
      Answer: (c)

    15. The famous concentration camp Auschwitz was located in:
      (a) Germany
      (b) Poland
      (c) Austria
      (d) France
      Answer: (b)

    16. The Nazi youth organisation was called:
      (a) Hitler Youth
      (b) Young Germany
      (c) Aryan Youth
      (d) Storm Youth
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which group was NOT considered “undesirable” by Nazis?
      (a) Jews
      (b) Gypsies
      (c) Aryan Germans
      (d) Disabled persons
      Answer: (c)

    18. WWII began when Germany invaded:
      (a) Austria
      (b) France
      (c) Poland
      (d) USSR
      Answer: (c)

    19. The Holocaust ended in:
      (a) 1943
      (b) 1944
      (c) 1945
      (d) 1946
      Answer: (c)

    20. Hitler committed suicide in:
      (a) April 1944
      (b) April 1945
      (c) May 1945
      (d) June 1945
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Weimar Republic was established in 1919.

    2. The Treaty of Versailles imposed war guilt on Germany.

    3. The Great Depression began in 1929.

    4. Hitler became Chancellor on 30 January 1933.

    5. The Enabling Act gave Hitler dictatorial powers.

    6. The Nazi secret police was called Gestapo.

    7. The Nazi youth organisation was Hitler Youth.

    8. The Nuremberg Laws denied Jews citizenship.

    9. The Nazi ideology emphasised Aryan racial superiority.

    10. The Holocaust killed about 6 million Jews.

  • Chapter 2: Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?
    → Socially, Russia was dominated by nobles, the Orthodox Church, and the Tsar’s autocracy. Peasants (85% population) lived in poverty and wanted land reforms. Economically, Russia was primarily agricultural, though industries existed in pockets like St Petersburg and Moscow. Working conditions in factories were poor, wages low, and working hours long. Politically, Tsar Nicholas II ruled as an autocrat, ignoring the Duma and suppressing political parties. There was widespread discontent among workers, peasants, and minorities.


    Q2. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe, before 1917?
    → Russian workers were divided by skill (metal workers considered elite), had ties with villages, and women formed 31% of the workforce but earned less than men. Unlike Western Europe, political parties and trade unions were illegal, though strikes occurred often. Peasants in Russia pooled land through communes (mir), unlike Western Europe. Thus, Russian workers and peasants were distinct in organisation and demands.


    Q3. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?
    → The Tsar’s refusal to share power, defeats in WWI, economic crisis, food shortages, strikes, and mutinies led to collapse. The February 1917 Revolution began with worker strikes in Petrograd, soon joined by soldiers. Tsar Nicholas II abdicated on 2 March 1917, ending centuries of autocracy.


    Q4. Make two lists: main events and effects of the February and October Revolutions.

    • February Revolution: Worker strikes, women’s protests, mutiny of soldiers, abdication of Tsar, Provisional Government formed. Effect: End of monarchy, establishment of dual power (Provisional Govt + Soviets).

    • October Revolution: Bolsheviks under Lenin and Trotsky seized Winter Palace, overthrew Provisional Govt. Effect: Soviet rule, land to peasants, industries nationalised, Russia became first socialist state.


    Q5. Main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution.
    → Nationalisation of industries and banks, abolition of private property, land redistribution to peasants, censorship, establishment of one-party rule, and peace with Germany (Treaty of Brest-Litovsk).


    Q6. Short notes:

    • Kulaks: Wealthy peasants targeted by Stalin during collectivisation.

    • Duma: Russian parliament created after 1905, but controlled by Tsar.

    • Women workers (1900–1930): Formed a large part of workforce, led strikes like in February Revolution, but faced wage discrimination.

    • Liberals: Wanted elected government, civil rights, but restricted voting rights to property-owning men.

    • Stalin’s Collectivisation: Policy forcing peasants into collective farms; resisted violently, caused famine, but aimed to modernise agriculture.


    Extras – Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Discuss the role of Lenin and the Bolsheviks in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
    Lenin and the Bolsheviks played a decisive role in the Russian Revolution. Lenin opposed WWI and demanded “Peace, Land, and Bread”. His April Theses in 1917 called for withdrawal from war, transfer of land to peasants, and nationalisation of banks. The Bolsheviks organised soviets in factories and the army, spreading socialist ideas. Trotsky led the Military Revolutionary Committee, which organised the October uprising. On 24 October 1917, Bolsheviks captured key government offices and the Winter Palace. They redistributed land, nationalised industries, and withdrew from WWI through the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk. The Bolsheviks transformed Russia into the world’s first socialist state. Their leadership and discipline made them the most influential political force in 1917.


    Q2. Explain the causes and significance of the 1905 Revolution in Russia.
    The 1905 Revolution was triggered by economic hardship, poor working conditions, and political repression. Rising prices reduced real wages by 20%, leading to mass strikes. On 22 January 1905, thousands marched to the Winter Palace led by Father Gapon, demanding better wages and an elected assembly. Troops fired, killing over 100 workers—this event became known as Bloody Sunday. Strikes, peasant revolts, and student protests spread across Russia. The Tsar was forced to create the Duma, though it had limited powers. The revolution showed the growing power of workers and peasants, and the weakness of autocracy. It set the stage for 1917.


    Q3. Analyse Stalin’s collectivisation policy.
    By 1927, grain shortages in Soviet Russia led Stalin to enforce collectivisation. Private farms were abolished and peasants were forced into collective farms (kolkhoz). Land, livestock, and tools were taken over by the state. The kulaks, or wealthy peasants, resisted and were deported or executed. Many peasants slaughtered cattle and destroyed crops rather than surrender them. Between 1929–1933, production declined, leading to famine that killed over 4 million. While collectivisation aimed at modernising agriculture and ensuring grain supply for industries, it caused immense human suffering. It symbolised Stalin’s authoritarian style of governance, prioritising state control over individual welfare.


    Q4. How did the First World War create conditions for the Russian Revolution?
    WWI had devastating effects on Russia. Over 7 million soldiers were killed or wounded. Food and fuel shortages worsened due to disrupted transport. Industries collapsed as raw materials ran out, and bread riots became common by 1916. The Tsar’s mismanagement, corruption, and refusal to consult the Duma discredited his rule. Soldiers mutinied, and strikes spread. The February Revolution of 1917 began in Petrograd during food shortages and snow, when workers and women protested. The army joined them, forcing the Tsar’s abdication. Thus, WWI acted as the immediate trigger that exposed the weakness of Tsarist autocracy and created revolutionary conditions.


    Q5. What was the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR?
    The Russian Revolution inspired workers and peasants worldwide. It showed that an alternative to capitalism was possible. Communist parties were formed in Europe and Asia, including India, where leaders like M.N. Roy and Jawaharlal Nehru admired Soviet socialism. The Bolsheviks founded the Comintern to unite socialist movements. USSR’s policies of equality, land redistribution, and planned economy impressed many, though its authoritarianism drew criticism. Writers like Tagore and Shaukat Usmani described Soviet Russia as a land of equality and education. By the mid-20th century, the USSR became a global power, shaping world politics and inspiring anti-colonial struggles.


    MCQs

    1. Who wrote The Communist Manifesto?
      (a) Lenin and Stalin
      (b) Marx and Engels
      (c) Rousseau and Montesquieu
      (d) Robespierre and Danton
      Answer: (b)

    2. Which party was formed in Russia in 1898?
      (a) Socialist Revolutionary Party
      (b) Bolshevik Party
      (c) Russian Social Democratic Workers Party
      (d) Mensheviks
      Answer: (c)

    3. The event of 22 January 1905 is known as:
      (a) Red Sunday
      (b) Bloody Sunday
      (c) Labour Sunday
      (d) People’s March
      Answer: (b)

    4. Soviets were:
      (a) Peasant communes
      (b) Workers’ and soldiers’ councils
      (c) Secret police
      (d) Parliament of Russia
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lenin’s April Theses demanded:
      (a) More wages
      (b) Peace, Land, and Bread
      (c) Collectivisation
      (d) End of Duma
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who led the Bolsheviks?
      (a) Trotsky
      (b) Stalin
      (c) Lenin
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    7. The October Revolution took place in:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1922
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which treaty ended Russia’s involvement in WWI?
      (a) Treaty of Versailles
      (b) Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
      (c) Treaty of Moscow
      (d) Treaty of Berlin
      Answer: (b)

    9. The secret police under Lenin was called:
      (a) Cheka
      (b) KGB
      (c) NKVD
      (d) Gestapo
      Answer: (a)

    10. The elected parliament created after 1905 was:
      (a) Soviet
      (b) Duma
      (c) Diet
      (d) Reichstag
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Bolshevik Party was later renamed as:
      (a) Communist Party of Russia
      (b) Soviet Socialist Party
      (c) Marxist Party
      (d) People’s Party
      Answer: (a)

    12. Stalin’s collective farms were called:
      (a) Kolkhoz
      (b) Sovkhoz
      (c) Mir
      (d) Commune
      Answer: (a)

    13. Who among the following was NOT a socialist thinker?
      (a) Karl Marx
      (b) Friedrich Engels
      (c) Louis Blanc
      (d) Adam Smith
      Answer: (d)

    14. Tsar Nicholas II ruled until:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1922
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which leader organised the Red Army?
      (a) Stalin
      (b) Lenin
      (c) Trotsky
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    16. The USSR was formed in:
      (a) 1922
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which group supported peasants’ rights in Russia?
      (a) Mensheviks
      (b) Socialist Revolutionaries
      (c) Bolsheviks
      (d) Liberals
      Answer: (b)

    18. The capital Petrograd was earlier called:
      (a) Moscow
      (b) Leningrad
      (c) St Petersburg
      (d) Volgograd
      Answer: (c)

    19. The Comintern was founded to:
      (a) Spread communism internationally
      (b) Train Red Army
      (c) Control peasants
      (d) Promote trade unions
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who introduced collectivisation in USSR?
      (a) Lenin
      (b) Trotsky
      (c) Stalin
      (d) Gorbachev
      Answer: (c)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Russian Revolution of 1917 occurred in two stages – February and October.

    2. The Tsar of Russia in 1914 was Nicholas II.

    3. The Socialist Revolutionary Party worked mainly for peasants’ rights.

    4. Lenin’s three slogans were Peace, Land, and Bread.

    5. The Bolshevik Party later became the Communist Party of Russia.

    6. The Russian secret police was called Cheka.

    7. Stalin forced peasants into collective farms known as Kolkhoz.

    8. The 1905 protest where workers were fired upon is called Bloody Sunday.

    9. Russia withdrew from WWI by signing the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk.

    10. The USSR was formed in 1922.

  • Chapter 1: The French Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
    → The French monarchy faced financial crisis due to long wars and extravagant spending. The treasury was empty and taxation was increased. Society was divided into three estates, where clergy and nobility enjoyed privileges, while the Third Estate bore the tax burden. Rising population, food shortages, and high bread prices created a subsistence crisis. Enlightenment thinkers like Rousseau, Montesquieu, and Locke spread ideas of equality and liberty. The American Revolution also inspired French people. Thus, social inequality, economic hardship, and new political ideas led to revolutionary protests.


    Q2. Which groups of French society benefited from the Revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections would have been disappointed?
    → Benefited: Peasants, artisans, and the middle class who gained equality before law and end of feudal dues.
    Relinquished power: Nobility and clergy lost privileges, taxes, and feudal rights.
    Disappointed: Women, who were still denied political rights, and poorer sections, who remained passive citizens under the 1791 Constitution.


    Q3. Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world.
    → The Revolution spread the ideas of liberty, equality, and fraternity. It inspired struggles against monarchy and feudalism in Europe. Colonised countries like India drew from its principles to fight colonial rule. Democratic rights such as freedom of speech, equality before law, and sovereignty of the people became universal values. However, contradictions existed, such as denial of rights to women and colonies.


    Q4. Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.
    → Right to equality before law, right to freedom of speech and expression, right to vote, right to liberty, right against exploitation, and right to property (later modified in India).


    Q5. Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
    → Yes. While the Revolution declared universal rights, women were excluded, as were slaves in colonies. Only active male citizens with property could vote initially. Thus, universal rights were limited by class, gender, and race.


    Q6. How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
    → Political instability after the fall of Jacobins, failure of the Directory, and constant wars created conditions for a strong leader. Napoleon, a military general, seized power in 1799 and later crowned himself Emperor. He introduced reforms in law, administration, and modernised Europe. Initially hailed as a liberator, he later became a dictator until his defeat at Waterloo in 1815.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the social and economic causes of the French Revolution.
    The French society in the 18th century was divided into three estates. The first two estates—the clergy and nobility—enjoyed privileges, including exemption from taxes, while the Third Estate bore the entire tax burden. Peasants, artisans, and workers faced exploitation through feudal dues and tithes. Economic hardship worsened as population growth outpaced food supply, leading to a subsistence crisis. Bread prices soared, and wages stagnated. Extravagant expenditure by King Louis XVI and his court deepened the financial crisis. France’s involvement in the American War of Independence added to the debt. These conditions created resentment, and people demanded an end to inequality, paving the way for revolution.


    Q2. Discuss the role of philosophers in the French Revolution.
    Enlightenment philosophers inspired people with ideas of equality, freedom, and democracy. John Locke refuted the doctrine of divine right of kings and argued for government based on consent. Rousseau’s Social Contract emphasised collective sovereignty and equality. Montesquieu’s Spirit of the Laws proposed division of power among executive, legislature, and judiciary, influencing democratic structures. Their works spread through salons, newspapers, and coffee houses, reaching even the illiterate. These ideas encouraged the Third Estate to demand reforms and shaped revolutionary demands for a society based on merit and rights rather than birth.


    Q3. Explain the Reign of Terror under Robespierre.
    The period from 1793–1794 is called the Reign of Terror. Maximilien Robespierre, leader of Jacobins, imposed severe controls to protect the republic. Suspected enemies of the revolution, including nobles, clergy, and even his opponents, were arrested and executed by guillotine. Harsh economic measures like price controls on bread and rationing were introduced. Traditional titles like Monsieur and Madame were replaced by Citizen. Churches were closed. While the aim was equality, fear and repression dominated. Ultimately, Robespierre lost support, was arrested, and executed in 1794, ending the Terror.


    Q4. What was the impact of the French Revolution on women?
    Women actively participated in protests, marched to Versailles, and formed political clubs. They demanded education, equal wages, and the right to vote. The Constitution of 1791, however, denied them political rights, reducing them to passive citizens. Revolutionary governments introduced some reforms like compulsory schooling for girls, legalised divorce, and civil marriages. Women like Olympe de Gouges demanded political equality, writing the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen. Yet, during the Reign of Terror, women’s clubs were closed, and many activists were punished. Women in France finally gained voting rights only in 1946.


    Q5. Describe the abolition of slavery during the French Revolution.
    Slavery existed in French colonies in the Caribbean, where Africans were forced to work on plantations. The French Revolution initially ignored the issue due to pressure from merchants benefiting from the slave trade. In 1794, the Convention abolished slavery in all French colonies, recognising the rights of slaves as citizens. This was a significant step towards equality. However, Napoleon reintroduced slavery in 1804. Finally, slavery was abolished permanently in 1848. The abolition of slavery highlighted the Revolution’s broader struggle for human rights and influenced anti-slavery movements globally.


    MCQs

    1. The storming of Bastille took place on:
      (a) 5 May 1789
      (b) 14 July 1789
      (c) 4 August 1789
      (d) 21 September 1792
      Answer: (b)

    2. Louis XVI belonged to which dynasty?
      (a) Habsburg
      (b) Bourbon
      (c) Tudor
      (d) Stuart
      Answer: (b)

    3. The unit of currency in France before 1794 was:
      (a) Franc
      (b) Livre
      (c) Pound
      (d) Dollar
      Answer: (b)

    4. The tax paid directly to the state was called:
      (a) Tithe
      (b) Taille
      (c) Gabelle
      (d) Octroi
      Answer: (b)

    5. Tithes were collected by:
      (a) Nobles
      (b) Church
      (c) King
      (d) Merchants
      Answer: (b)

    6. The middle class in France was also known as:
      (a) Clergy
      (b) Nobility
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Sans-culottes
      Answer: (c)

    7. Who wrote The Social Contract?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who proposed separation of powers?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (a)

    9. The slogan of the French Revolution was:
      (a) Justice, Equality, Power
      (b) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
      (c) Liberty, Justice, Sovereignty
      (d) Equality, Rights, Nation
      Answer: (b)

    10. Who led the Jacobins?
      (a) Napoleon
      (b) Robespierre
      (c) Danton
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which period is called the Reign of Terror?
      (a) 1789–1791
      (b) 1791–1792
      (c) 1793–1794
      (d) 1794–1799
      Answer: (c)

    12. Which device was used for executions?
      (a) Cannon
      (b) Sword
      (c) Guillotine
      (d) Axe
      Answer: (c)

    13. Who wrote Declaration of Rights of Woman and Citizen?
      (a) Olympe de Gouges
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (a)

    14. Napoleon was finally defeated at:
      (a) Paris
      (b) Moscow
      (c) Leipzig
      (d) Waterloo
      Answer: (d)

    15. Slavery in French colonies was finally abolished in:
      (a) 1794
      (b) 1804
      (c) 1848
      (d) 1815
      Answer: (c)

    16. National Anthem of France is:
      (a) Vande Mataram
      (b) The Marseillaise
      (c) La Revolutionnaire
      (d) Liberté Song
      Answer: (b)

    17. Who criticised monarchy in Two Treatises of Government?
      (a) Locke
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which section wore knee breeches?
      (a) Sans-culottes
      (b) Nobles
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Jacobins
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which new title was introduced during Revolution?
      (a) Sir and Madam
      (b) Monsieur and Madame
      (c) Citoyen and Citoyenne
      (d) Comrade
      Answer: (c)

    20. Who crowned himself Emperor in 1804?
      (a) Robespierre
      (b) Napoleon
      (c) Louis XVI
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The French Revolution began in 1789.

    2. The Bastille was a symbol of despotic monarchy.

    3. The tax paid to the state directly was taille.

    4. The tax collected by the church was tithe.

    5. Rousseau wrote The Social Contract.

    6. Montesquieu proposed division of powers.

    7. The slogan of the French Revolution was Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.

    8. The Reign of Terror lasted from 1793–1794.

    9. Olympe de Gouges demanded rights for women.

    10. Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo in 1815.

  • Chapter 6: Population, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

    (i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:
    (a) The area of departure
    (b) The area of arrival
    (c) Both the area of departure and arrival
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) Both the area of departure and arrival

    (ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
    (a) High birth rates
    (b) High life expectancies
    (c) High death rates
    (d) More married couples
    Answer: (a) High birth rates

    (iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to:
    (a) Total population of an area
    (b) Number of persons added each year/decade
    (c) Rate at which population increases
    (d) Number of females per 1000 males
    Answer: (b) Number of persons added each year/decade

    (iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who:
    (a) Can read and write his/her name
    (b) Can read and write any language
    (c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
    (d) Knows the 3 R’s (Reading, Writing, Arithmetic)
    Answer: (c)


    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
    → Because birth rates have been declining gradually due to family planning, awareness, better healthcare, and improved literacy.

    (ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
    → Birth rate, death rate, and migration. Birth and death determine natural increase, while migration affects distribution and composition.

    (iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
    → Age structure: Proportion of different age groups in population.
    Birth rate: Live births per 1000 persons per year.
    Death rate: Deaths per 1000 persons per year.

    (iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
    → Migration changes size, composition, and distribution of population. Internal migration redistributes people; international migration alters population size.


    Q3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

    • Growth: Increase in number of people.

    • Change: Includes growth plus changes in distribution, composition, and migration.


    Q4. Relation between occupational structure and development.
    → Higher proportion in secondary/tertiary = more developed economy. Primary sector dominance = less development.


    Q5. Advantages of a healthy population.
    → Greater productivity, better quality of life, lower healthcare costs, improved economic growth.


    Q6. Significant features of National Population Policy 2000.
    → Universal free education up to 14 years, reduced infant mortality, universal immunisation, delayed marriage of girls, voluntary family welfare programs.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the size and distribution of India’s population.
    India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion, about 17% of the world’s population, spread over 3.28 million sq km. This makes India the second most populous country. Population distribution is highly uneven. Uttar Pradesh has 199 million people, the highest among states, while Sikkim and Lakshadweep have less than a million. Half of India’s population lives in just five states: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh. Population density is 382 persons/sq km on average, but varies from 1,102 in Bihar to only 17 in Arunachal Pradesh. Fertile plains and coastal regions are densely populated, while deserts, mountains, and forests are sparsely populated. This unevenness shows how geography influences human settlement.


    Q2. Discuss population growth trends in India since 1951.
    In 1951, India had 361 million people. Since then, population has increased steadily. Growth accelerated from 1951 to 1981, with rates peaking at 2.2% per year due to high birth rates and declining death rates. From 1981 onwards, growth rate declined gradually as fertility declined, but absolute increase remained high due to a large base population. For example, in the 1990s alone, 182 million people were added despite falling growth rates. By 2011, population reached 1.21 billion, and by 2023 India overtook China as the most populous nation. This shows that even with slower growth, the absolute additions remain large because of the sheer population base.


    Q3. Explain the role of migration in population change in India.
    Migration significantly affects population distribution and composition. Internal migration in India is mainly rural-to-urban due to push factors like poverty and unemployment and pull factors like jobs and better facilities in cities. This increases urbanisation; urban population grew from 17% in 1951 to over 31% in 2011, and continues rising. Migration also changes age and sex composition: men often migrate first, leaving women behind, while in cities, working-age groups dominate. International migration has also shaped India—large-scale emigration to Gulf countries and Western nations brings remittances, while immigration from neighbouring countries like Nepal or Bangladesh adds to diversity. Thus, migration redistributes population and impacts economy and society.


    Q4. Why is the adolescent population important for India?
    Adolescents (10–19 years) form one-fifth of India’s population. They are the future workforce and hold the key to economic growth. Proper nutrition and education are vital for them. However, many adolescents, especially girls, suffer from anaemia, malnutrition, and lack of healthcare. If neglected, this segment can become a burden instead of a resource. The government aims to improve adolescent health through literacy, awareness, and nutrition programs. Skilled, healthy adolescents can contribute to innovation, productivity, and nation-building. Hence, investment in this group ensures long-term development and prosperity for India.


    Q5. What are the objectives of National Population Policy 2000? Why is it significant?
    The NPP 2000 provides a comprehensive framework for family welfare and population stabilisation. Its key objectives include: universal free education up to 14 years, reducing infant mortality below 30 per 1000, universal immunisation of children, promoting delayed marriage for girls, voluntary family planning, and making reproductive healthcare accessible. The policy recognises that smaller, healthier families improve quality of life. It also focuses on adolescent health, raising awareness among girls, and ensuring nutrition and education. The significance of NPP lies in balancing population growth with sustainable development. By empowering individuals to plan families voluntarily, it links health, education, and gender equality with demographic goals.


    MCQs

    1. India’s population in 2011 was:
      (a) 1.02 billion
      (b) 1.21 billion
      (c) 1.31 billion
      (d) 1.11 billion
      Answer: (b)

    2. India’s share of world population is about:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 12%
      (c) 17%
      (d) 20%
      Answer: (c)

    3. The most populous state in 2011:
      (a) Bihar
      (b) Uttar Pradesh
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) West Bengal
      Answer: (b)

    4. Least populated state in 2011:
      (a) Goa
      (b) Sikkim
      (c) Manipur
      (d) Tripura
      Answer: (b)

    5. Population density of India in 2011:
      (a) 250/sq km
      (b) 350/sq km
      (c) 382/sq km
      (d) 400/sq km
      Answer: (c)

    6. Highest density state in 2011:
      (a) West Bengal
      (b) Bihar
      (c) Kerala
      (d) UP
      Answer: (b)

    7. Lowest density state:
      (a) Sikkim
      (b) Arunachal Pradesh
      (c) Mizoram
      (d) Nagaland
      Answer: (b)

    8. Census is conducted every:
      (a) 5 years
      (b) 10 years
      (c) 15 years
      (d) 20 years
      Answer: (b)

    9. First complete census in India:
      (a) 1857
      (b) 1872
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1901
      Answer: (c)

    10. Absolute increase in population means:
      (a) Total population
      (b) Number added during a period
      (c) Growth rate
      (d) Density
      Answer: (b)

    11. Growth rate of population is measured in:
      (a) % per decade
      (b) % per annum
      (c) Total headcount
      (d) Births per year
      Answer: (b)

    12. Birth rate means:
      (a) Births per 100 persons
      (b) Births per 1000 persons
      (c) Children per family
      (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    13. Death rate means:
      (a) Deaths per 100 persons
      (b) Deaths per 1000 persons
      (c) Life expectancy
      (d) Mortality ratio
      Answer: (b)

    14. Rural-urban migration in India is mainly due to:
      (a) Cultural reasons
      (b) Poverty & unemployment in villages
      (c) Religious reasons
      (d) Government policy
      Answer: (b)

    15. India overtook China in population in:
      (a) 2019
      (b) 2020
      (c) 2023
      (d) 2025
      Answer: (c)

    16. Adolescent population is defined as ages:
      (a) 5–15 years
      (b) 10–19 years
      (c) 12–20 years
      (d) 15–25 years
      Answer: (b)

    17. Percentage of adolescent population in India:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 15%
      (c) 20%
      (d) 25%
      Answer: (c)

    18. National Population Policy was adopted in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1980
      (c) 1991
      (d) 2000
      Answer: (d)

    19. NPP 2000 aims to reduce infant mortality rate below:
      (a) 40 per 1000
      (b) 35 per 1000
      (c) 30 per 1000
      (d) 25 per 1000
      Answer: (c)

    20. Which factor does NOT directly affect population growth?
      (a) Birth rate
      (b) Death rate
      (c) Migration
      (d) Rainfall
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion.

    2. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state.

    3. Sikkim has the least population among states.

    4. Population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq km.

    5. The highest density state is Bihar.

    6. The lowest density state is Arunachal Pradesh.

    7. First complete census in India was held in 1881.

    8. Absolute increase is the number of people added in a decade.

    9. Growth rate is measured in percent per annum.

    10. The National Population Policy was adopted in 2000.

  • Chapter 5: Natural Vegetation and Wildlife, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:

    (i) To which type of vegetation does rubber belong?
    (a) Tundra
    (b) Tidal
    (c) Himalayan
    (d) Tropical Evergreen
    Answer: (d) Tropical Evergreen

    (ii) Cinchona trees are found in areas of rainfall more than:
    (a) 100 cm
    (b) 50 cm
    (c) 70 cm
    (d) Less than 50 cm
    Answer: (a) 100 cm

    (iii) In which state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
    (a) Punjab
    (b) Delhi
    (c) Odisha
    (d) West Bengal
    Answer: (c) Odisha

    (iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves is not in the world network?
    (a) Manas
    (b) Nilgiri
    (c) Gulf of Mannar
    (d) Panna
    Answer: (d) Panna


    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.
    → A protected area where flora, fauna, and ecosystems are conserved. Examples: Nanda Devi, Nilgiri.

    (ii) Name two animals found in tropical and montane vegetation.
    → Tropical: Elephant, tiger. Montane: Yak, snow leopard.


    Q3. Distinguish between:

    (i) Flora and Fauna

    • Flora: Plants of a region.

    • Fauna: Animals of a region.

    (ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests

    • Evergreen: Found in >200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves at different times, always green.

    • Deciduous: Found in 70–200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves in dry summer, dominant in India.


    Q4. Types of vegetation in India; describe vegetation of high altitudes.
    → Five types: Tropical evergreen, tropical deciduous, thorny forests, montane forests, mangroves.

    • High altitudes (Montane forests): Vegetation changes with altitude. Up to 2000 m: broadleaf trees (oak, chestnut). Between 1500–3000 m: conifers (pine, deodar, cedar). Above 3600 m: alpine grasslands and shrubs, merging into tundra with mosses and lichens.


    Q5. Why are some plants and animals endangered in India?
    → Hunting, deforestation, pollution, industrialisation, expansion of agriculture, and introduction of alien species have led to habitat loss. Overexploitation disturbs ecosystems, making many species endangered or extinct.


    Q6. Why does India have a rich heritage of flora and fauna?
    → Due to varied relief (mountains, plateaus, coasts), different soils, climatic diversity, monsoon influence, and long evolutionary history. Together these factors give India one of the richest biodiversities in the world.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the major types of vegetation in India.
    India has five major vegetation types. Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in areas with over 200 cm rainfall, such as Western Ghats and Andamans, with trees like ebony and mahogany. Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread, found in 70–200 cm rainfall zones, with teak, sal, and shisham. Tropical Thorn Forests grow in areas with less than 70 cm rainfall, such as Rajasthan, with cacti and acacia. Montane Forests change with altitude: oak and chestnut up to 2000 m, conifers up to 3000 m, and alpine vegetation above. Mangrove Forests are found in coastal deltas, with trees like sundari. This variety makes India’s vegetation diverse and rich.


    Q2. Explain the importance of forests and wildlife for human beings.
    Forests and wildlife are vital for ecological balance and human survival. Forests provide oxygen, purify air, regulate climate, prevent soil erosion, and conserve water. They are also a source of timber, fuel, fodder, and medicinal plants. Wildlife maintains the food chain, supports pollination, and enriches biodiversity. Animals like cows, buffaloes, and camels provide milk, draught power, and transport. Fish and birds provide food, while insects help pollinate crops. Loss of forests and wildlife disturbs ecosystems, causing floods, droughts, and climate change. Thus, their conservation is essential for present and future generations.


    Q3. Discuss the Montane forests and their fauna.
    Montane forests develop in mountainous regions where temperature decreases with altitude. Between 1000–2000 m, wet temperate broadleaf trees like oak and chestnut grow. Between 1500–3000 m, coniferous forests with pine, cedar, and deodar dominate. Above 3600 m, alpine vegetation with shrubs, grasses, mosses, and lichens is found. These zones are also grazing grounds for nomads like Gujjars. Fauna here include snow leopard, yak, Tibetan antelope, red panda, ibex, and wild sheep, adapted to cold climates. This gradual change from tropical to tundra vegetation makes montane forests unique.


    Q4. What measures has India taken to conserve flora and fauna?
    India has implemented several conservation measures. The Wildlife Protection Act (1972) created National Parks, Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves. Today, there are 106 National Parks and 573 sanctuaries. Projects like Project Tiger, Project Rhino, and Project Elephant protect specific species. India has 18 biosphere reserves, 12 of which are in UNESCO’s world network (e.g., Sundarbans, Nanda Devi). Botanical gardens receive support, and awareness campaigns encourage afforestation and wildlife protection. Such measures aim to protect endangered species, restore ecosystems, and conserve biodiversity for sustainable development.


    Q5. Why is biodiversity conservation necessary?
    Biodiversity conservation is necessary because every species plays a role in ecosystems. Plants provide food, oxygen, and medicine. Animals maintain ecological balance by controlling populations of other species and aiding pollination. Humans depend on biodiversity for agriculture, resources, and livelihood. Loss of species causes imbalance, leading to floods, droughts, and climate change. India’s 1,300 endangered plants and many threatened animals show urgent need for conservation. Protecting biodiversity ensures food security, ecological stability, and sustainable development for future generations.


    MCQs

    1. Natural vegetation refers to:
      (a) Cultivated plants
      (b) Virgin plants growing naturally
      (c) Botanical gardens
      (d) Crops and orchards
      Answer: (b)

    2. Flora means:
      (a) Animal species
      (b) Plant species
      (c) Soil type
      (d) Climate
      Answer: (b)

    3. Fauna means:
      (a) Animals of a region
      (b) Trees of a region
      (c) Rivers of a region
      (d) Minerals of a region
      Answer: (a)

    4. Evergreen forests are found in rainfall above:
      (a) 70 cm
      (b) 100 cm
      (c) 200 cm
      (d) 50 cm
      Answer: (c)

    5. Teak is dominant in:
      (a) Evergreen forests
      (b) Thorn forests
      (c) Moist deciduous forests
      (d) Mangroves
      Answer: (c)

    6. Dry deciduous forests found in:
      (a) 200–100 cm rainfall
      (b) 70–200 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–70 cm rainfall
      (d) <50 cm rainfall
      Answer: (c)

    7. Thorn forests grow in:
      (a) >200 cm rainfall
      (b) <70 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–200 cm rainfall
      (d) Coastal areas
      Answer: (b)

    8. Sundari tree is found in:
      (a) Western Ghats
      (b) Ganga delta
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    9. Largest mangrove forest in India:
      (a) Malabar Coast
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Andamans
      Answer: (b)

    10. Royal Bengal Tiger found in:
      (a) Gir Forest
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Nilgiris
      Answer: (b)

    11. Asiatic lion found in:
      (a) Kaziranga
      (b) Gir Forest
      (c) Sundarbans
      (d) Periyar
      Answer: (b)

    12. One-horned rhinoceros found in:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Assam
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    13. India’s only active volcano:
      (a) Narcondam
      (b) Barren Island
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Car Nicobar
      Answer: (b)

    14. “Project Tiger” launched in:
      (a) 1962
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1980
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)

    15. Number of National Parks in India (approx):
      (a) 106
      (b) 573
      (c) 28
      (d) 18
      Answer: (a)

    16. Medicinal plant for blood pressure:
      (a) Neem
      (b) Sarpagandha
      (c) Arjun
      (d) Tulsi
      Answer: (b)

    17. Biosphere reserves in UNESCO list:
      (a) 5
      (b) 8
      (c) 12
      (d) 18
      Answer: (c)

    18. Migratory bird “Siberian Crane” visits:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Rann of Kachchh
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Arunachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    19. Cold desert biosphere reserve is in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Ladakh
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Himachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    20. Wildlife Protection Act passed in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1982
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Virgin vegetation left undisturbed is called natural vegetation.

    2. Plants of a region are called flora.

    3. Animals of a region are called fauna.

    4. India has about 47,000 plant species.

    5. Tropical Evergreen forests remain green throughout the year.

    6. The most widespread forests in India are tropical deciduous.

    7. The only home of Asiatic lions is Gir forest in Gujarat.

    8. One-horned rhinoceros lives in Assam and West Bengal.

    9. The Sundarbans mangroves are famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    10. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in 1972.

  • Chapter 4: Climate, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the correct answer:

    (i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
    (a) Silchar
    (b) Mawsynram
    (c) Cherrapunji
    (d) Guwahati
    Answer: (b) Mawsynram

    (ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
    (a) Kaal Baisakhi
    (b) Loo
    (c) Trade Winds
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) Loo

    (iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
    (a) Early May
    (b) Early July
    (c) Early June
    (d) Early August
    Answer: (c) Early June

    (iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
    (a) Warm days and warm nights
    (b) Warm days and cold nights
    (c) Cool days and cold nights
    (d) Cold days and warm nights
    Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights


    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Controls affecting climate of India → Latitude, altitude, pressure & winds, distance from sea, ocean currents, relief.

    (ii) Why monsoon type of climate? → Seasonal reversal of winds; India’s unique location, Himalayas blocking cold winds, ITCZ shifts.

    (iii) Highest diurnal range of temperature? → Thar Desert (hot days, cold nights) because of arid conditions.

    (iv) Which winds bring rainfall along Malabar coast? → South-West Monsoon winds.

    (v) Define monsoon. What is “break” in monsoon? → Monsoon = seasonal reversal of winds. Break = wet/dry spells during rainy season.

    (vi) Why monsoon as unifying bond? → Despite diversity, agriculture, festivals, life, economy revolve around rains across India.


    Q3. Why rainfall decreases east to west in Northern India?
    → Monsoon winds from Bay of Bengal shed most moisture in east; progressively less as they move westward.


    Q4. Give reasons:

    (i) Seasonal reversal of winds → Differential heating of land and sea, ITCZ shift.
    (ii) Rainfall concentrated in few months → Southwest monsoon dominates June–Sept.
    (iii) Tamil Nadu coast gets winter rain → Retreating monsoon + NE monsoon winds.
    (iv) Eastern coast deltas struck by cyclones → Low-pressure systems from Bay of Bengal.
    (v) Rajasthan, Gujarat, leeward Ghats drought-prone → Located in rain shadow / far from monsoon path.


    Q5. Regional variations in climate of India:

    • Jaisalmer: hot desert, <10 cm rain.

    • Shillong: heavy rain (400+ cm).

    • Thiruvananthapuram: equable, coastal.

    • Drass/Leh: extreme cold.

    • Gujarat, MP: hot summers.


    Q6. Cold weather season conditions:

    • Nov–Feb. Temp falls, clear skies, cool days, cold nights.

    • NE trade winds prevail.

    • Western disturbances cause winter rain in north, snowfall in Himalayas.

    • “Mahawat” rain important for rabi crops.


    Q7. Characteristics & effects of monsoon rainfall:

    • Seasonal reversal, June–Sept.

    • Irregular, with breaks.

    • Uneven spatial distribution.

    • Excess = floods, deficit = droughts.

    • Vital for agriculture, economy, festivals.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the factors affecting India’s climate.
    Answer: Latitude (Tropic of Cancer divides), Altitude (Himalayas vs coast), Pressure & Winds (monsoon system), Distance from sea (continentality), Ocean currents (warming/cooling), Relief (rain shadow, windward rainfall).

    Q2. Describe the four seasons of India.
    Answer:

    • Winter (Nov–Feb) – Cold, NE monsoon, western disturbances.

    • Summer (Mar–May) – High temp, loo, dust storms, mango showers.

    • Advancing Monsoon (Jun–Sept) – SW monsoon, heavy rain, floods.

    • Retreating Monsoon (Oct–Nov) – Monsoon withdrawal, cyclones in east coast, October heat.

    Q3. “Monsoon is a unifying bond.” Explain.
    Answer: Despite diverse climates, agriculture, food habits, festivals, crops, river systems, economy—all revolve around monsoons. They bind India by setting agricultural calendar.

    Q4. Discuss regional variations in temperature & rainfall in India with examples.
    Answer: Rajasthan 50°C vs Drass –45°C; Thar diurnal variation vs Kerala equable climate; Mawsynram 400 cm vs Jaisalmer <10 cm; Tamil Nadu winter rain vs Punjab winter rain (western disturbances).

    Q5. Characteristics & significance of monsoon rainfall.
    Answer: Monsoon rainfall is seasonal, irregular, uncertain, unevenly distributed. It sustains Indian agriculture, hydroelectricity, transport, biodiversity, and festivals, but also causes floods and droughts.


    MCQs

    1. Climate refers to weather conditions over:
      (a) A short period
      (b) A long period (30+ years)
      (c) One week
      (d) A day
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
      (a) Middle of India
      (b) Northernmost tip
      (c) Southernmost tip
      (d) Only coastal areas
      Answer: (a)

    3. Cold winds from Central Asia don’t reach India because:
      (a) Deserts block them
      (b) Himalayas block them
      (c) Monsoon winds stop them
      (d) ITCZ shifts
      Answer: (b)

    4. Seasonal reversal of wind is called:
      (a) Westerlies
      (b) Trade winds
      (c) Monsoon
      (d) Cyclone
      Answer: (c)

    5. The “loo” is a:
      (a) Winter wind
      (b) Cold breeze
      (c) Hot, dry wind in summer
      (d) Sea breeze
      Answer: (c)

    6. Kaal Baisakhi occurs in:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) West Bengal
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (b)

    7. Mango showers occur in:
      (a) Kerala & Karnataka
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Punjab
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (a)

    8. Retreating monsoon occurs in:
      (a) June–Sept
      (b) Oct–Nov
      (c) Mar–May
      (d) Dec–Jan
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tamil Nadu gets rainfall in winter due to:
      (a) Western disturbances
      (b) Retreating NE monsoon
      (c) Cyclones only
      (d) Local thunderstorms
      Answer: (b)

    10. Western disturbances bring rain to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu coast
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Northern plains in winter
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (c)

    11. Mawsynram is in:
      (a) Meghalaya
      (b) Mizoram
      (c) Tripura
      (d) Assam
      Answer: (a)

    12. Monsoon enters India first at:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Tamil Nadu
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (a)

    13. October heat refers to:
      (a) Very hot May–June winds
      (b) Oppressive weather in Oct after rains
      (c) Heat waves in March
      (d) Cyclone season
      Answer: (b)

    14. Break in monsoon means:
      (a) Monsoon ends
      (b) Monsoon delayed
      (c) Wet and dry spells during rains
      (d) No rain for a year
      Answer: (c)

    15. The region with lowest rainfall in India:
      (a) Western Rajasthan & Leh
      (b) Assam
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (a)

    16. Highest diurnal temperature range in India:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Andaman & Nicobar
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (c)

    17. Rainfall decreases from east to west because:
      (a) Himalayas block it
      (b) Winds lose moisture westwards
      (c) Ocean currents deflect
      (d) Cyclones push rain eastwards
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which is NOT a control of climate?
      (a) Latitude
      (b) Altitude
      (c) Distance from moon
      (d) Relief
      Answer: (c)

    19. Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall because:
      (a) Leeward side effect
      (b) Orographic rainfall on windward side
      (c) Retreating monsoon
      (d) Winter rains
      Answer: (b)

    20. Cyclones in retreating monsoon often hit:
      (a) Gujarat coast
      (b) Godavari–Krishna–Kaveri deltas
      (c) Punjab plains
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Climate refers to average conditions over 30+ years.

    2. The word monsoon comes from Arabic word ‘mausim’ meaning season.

    3. Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia.

    4. The hot, dry summer winds in north India are called loo.

    5. Local thunderstorms in Bengal are called Kaal Baisakhi.

    6. Pre-monsoon showers in south India are called mango showers.

    7. The wettest place in the world is Mawsynram.

    8. The retreating monsoon occurs in October–November.

    9. Winter rains in north India are caused by western disturbances.

    10. Monsoon is called a unifying bond of India.

  • Chapter 3: Drainage, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:
    (i) Wular Lake is in → (d) Jammu & Kashmir
    (ii) Narmada source → (c) Amarkantak
    (iii) Salt water lake → (a) Sambhar
    (iv) Longest Peninsular river → (c) Godavari
    (v) River flowing in rift valley → (d) Tapi


    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a water divide?
    → An elevated area separating two drainage basins. Example: Ambala between Indus & Ganga basins.

    (ii) Largest river basin in India?
    → The Ganga basin.

    (iii) Origin of Indus & Ganga?
    → Indus – Tibet near Mansarovar.
    Ganga – Gangotri Glacier (Bhagirathi).

    (iv) Two headstreams of Ganga? Where do they meet?
    → Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet at Devaprayag.

    (v) Why does Brahmaputra carry less silt in Tibet?
    → Tibet is dry and cold, with little rainfall → less water, less silt.

    (vi) Two Peninsular rivers flowing through troughs?
    → Narmada and Tapi.

    (vii) Economic benefits of rivers and lakes?
    → Irrigation, drinking water, hydropower, fisheries, navigation, tourism, soil fertility, climate moderation.


    Q3. Classify lakes (Natural / Human-made):

    • Natural: Wular, Dal, Nainital, Bhimtal, Loktak, Barapani, Chilika, Sambhar, Pulicat, Kolleru.

    • Human-made: Gobind Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Nizam Sagar, Nagarjuna Sagar, Hirakud.


    Q4. Difference between Himalayan and Peninsular rivers:

    • Himalayan: Perennial, long, deep valleys, depositional features (deltas, meanders, oxbow lakes).

    • Peninsular: Seasonal, short, flow in plateaus, shallow valleys, estuaries (west-flowing), smaller deltas (east-flowing).


    Q5. Compare east- and west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India:

    • East-flowing (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri): Flow into Bay of Bengal, form deltas, longer courses.

    • West-flowing (Narmada, Tapi): Flow into Arabian Sea, form estuaries, shorter courses, swift flow.


    Q6. Why are rivers important for India’s economy?
    → They provide irrigation, hydroelectricity, transport, fisheries, tourism, fertile soil, drinking water. Most Indian agriculture depends on rivers, making them the lifeline of the economy.


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the Himalayan river systems.
    → Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra. Long, perennial, joined by tributaries. Indus (2,900 km) with Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj. Ganga (2,500 km) with Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Chambal, Betwa, Son. Brahmaputra (Tsangpo in Tibet, Jamuna in Bangladesh) causes floods, forms Majuli island.

    Q2. Explain the Peninsular river systems.
    → Shorter, seasonal, most flow eastwards into Bay of Bengal forming deltas (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri). West-flowing Narmada & Tapi form estuaries. Other west-flowing: Sabarmati, Mahi, Periyar. Their basins are smaller than Himalayan rivers.

    Q3. Write a note on lakes in India.
    → Natural (Dal, Nainital, Chilika, Wular, Sambhar) and man-made (Bhakra Nangal – Gobind Sagar, Hirakud, Nagarjuna Sagar). Lakes regulate river flow, prevent floods, help irrigation, hydropower, fisheries, recreation, tourism, and biodiversity.

    Q4. Role of rivers in Indian economy.
    → Rivers provide irrigation (agriculture), hydropower (electricity), navigation (transport), tourism (boating, pilgrimages), fishing, and fertile soil for crops. Major cities developed on rivers (Delhi – Yamuna, Kolkata – Hooghly, Varanasi – Ganga).

    Q5. Causes and effects of river pollution in India.
    → Causes: sewage, industrial effluents, agricultural runoff, religious practices. Effects: unsafe water, fish death, ecosystem damage, health hazards. Example: Ganga pollution led to Ganga Action Plan & NRCP.


    MCQs

    • The largest river basin in India is:
      (a) Indus
      (b) Ganga
      (c) Brahmaputra
      (d) Godavari
      Answer: (b) Ganga

    • The Indus River originates near:
      (a) Mt. Everest
      (b) Mt. Kailash
      (c) Lake Mansarovar
      (d) Amarkantak
      Answer: (c) Lake Mansarovar

    • Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet to form the Ganga at:
      (a) Haridwar
      (b) Devaprayag
      (c) Allahabad
      (d) Rishikesh
      Answer: (b) Devaprayag

    • The Yamuna meets the Ganga at:
      (a) Varanasi
      (b) Haridwar
      (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)
      (d) Kanpur
      Answer: (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)

    • The Brahmaputra is known in Tibet as:
      (a) Tsangpo
      (b) Jamuna
      (c) Dihang
      (d) Lohit
      Answer: (a) Tsangpo

    • The world’s largest delta is:
      (a) Mekong Delta
      (b) Amazon Delta
      (c) Mississippi Delta
      (d) Sundarbans Delta
      Answer: (d) Sundarbans Delta

    • The Narmada river rises from:
      (a) Satpura Hills
      (b) Amarkantak Hills
      (c) Western Ghats
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b) Amarkantak Hills

    • The Tapi river originates from:
      (a) Aravali Hills
      (b) Himalayas
      (c) Satpura Ranges
      (d) Vindhya Ranges
      Answer: (c) Satpura Ranges

    • The Godavari is also called:
      (a) Dakshin Ganga
      (b) Krishna of the South
      (c) Peninsular Lifeline
      (d) Bharat Ganga
      Answer: (a) Dakshin Ganga

    • The largest saltwater lake in India is:
      (a) Sambhar Lake
      (b) Chilika Lake
      (c) Pulicat Lake
      (d) Wular Lake
      Answer: (b) Chilika Lake

    • The Sambhar Lake is located in:
      (a) Uttar Pradesh
      (b) Madhya Pradesh
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (c) Rajasthan

    • The Wular Lake is situated in:
      (a) Himachal Pradesh
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Assam
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir

    • The Shivasamudram waterfall is formed by:
      (a) Krishna River
      (b) Godavari River
      (c) Kaveri River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (c) Kaveri River

    • The longest Peninsular river is:
      (a) Mahanadi
      (b) Krishna
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Kaveri
      Answer: (c) Godavari

    • The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow into the:
      (a) Bay of Bengal
      (b) Arabian Sea
      (c) Indian Ocean
      (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (b) Arabian Sea

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” is:
      (a) Kosi
      (b) Damodar
      (c) Gandak
      (d) Ghaghara
      Answer: (a) Kosi

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” is:
      (a) Damodar
      (b) Mahananda
      (c) Subarnarekha
      (d) Hooghly
      Answer: (a) Damodar

    • Majuli, the world’s largest riverine island, is formed by:
      (a) Ganga
      (b) Brahmaputra
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Yamuna
      Answer: (b) Brahmaputra

    • The Indira Gandhi Canal gets its water mainly from:
      (a) Yamuna
      (b) Sutlej
      (c) Beas
      (d) Ravi
      Answer: (b) Sutlej

    • The Hirakud Dam is built on the:
      (a) Godavari River
      (b) Krishna River
      (c) Narmada River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (d) Mahanadi


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The area drained by a river system is called a drainage basin.

    2. Elevated area separating basins is a water divide.

    3. Indus Water Treaty (1960) allows India to use 20% of Indus water.

    4. The Ganga’s headwaters are Bhagirathi and Alaknanda.

    5. The Brahmaputra is called Jamuna in Bangladesh.

    6. The Sundarbans delta is home of the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    7. Narmada flows through a rift valley.

    8. The Godavari is also known as Dakshin Ganga.

    9. Wular Lake was formed by tectonic activity.

    10. The National River Conservation Plan began in 1995.

  • Chapter 2: Physical Features of India, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:
    (i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides → Peninsula (c)
    (ii) Eastern mountain ranges forming boundary with Myanmar → Purvachal (c)
    (iii) Western coastal strip, south of Goa → Kannad (c)
    (iv) Highest peak in the Eastern Ghats → Mahendragiri (c)


    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is the bhabar?
    → A narrow belt (8–16 km wide) of pebbles lying parallel to the Shiwaliks, where rivers disappear into permeable soil.

    (ii) Three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south?
    → Himadri (Great Himalayas), Himachal (Lesser Himalayas), Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).

    (iii) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and Vindhyan ranges?
    → The Malwa Plateau.

    (iv) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.


    Q3. Distinguish between:

    (i) Bhangar and Khadar

    • Bhangar: Older alluvium, terrace-like, less fertile, contains kankar (lime nodules).

    • Khadar: Newer alluvium, renewed annually by floods, very fertile.

    (ii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats

    • Western Ghats: Continuous, higher (900–1600 m), cause orographic rainfall, include Anai Mudi and Doda Betta.

    • Eastern Ghats: Discontinuous, lower (600 m), cut by rivers into Bay of Bengal, include Mahendragiri.


    Q4. Major physiographic divisions of India. Contrast Himalayas & Peninsular Plateau.
    → Six divisions: Himalayas, Northern Plains, Peninsular Plateau, Indian Desert, Coastal Plains, Islands.

    • Himalayas: Young fold mountains, rugged, high peaks, glaciers.

    • Peninsular Plateau: Oldest landmass, igneous & metamorphic rocks, broad valleys, rich in minerals.


    Q5. Account of Northern Plains.
    → Formed by alluvium of Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra. Area: 7 lakh sq. km, length 2400 km, width 240–320 km. Fertile soils, flat land, densely populated. Divisions: Punjab Plains, Ganga Plains, Brahmaputra Plains. Relief features: Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar, Khadar. Known as “Granary of India.”


    Q6. Short notes:

    (i) Indian Desert: West of Aravalis, sandy plain, dunes, arid climate, <150 mm rainfall, sparse vegetation, only Luni river.
    (ii) Central Highlands: North of Narmada, includes Malwa Plateau, Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand, Chotanagpur. Rivers flow SW–NE.
    (iii) Island Groups: Lakshadweep (coral, 32 sq. km, HQ Kavaratti) and Andaman & Nicobar (volcanic, equatorial climate, biodiversity, strategic location).


    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the Himalayas in detail.
    → Himalayas stretch 2400 km from Indus to Brahmaputra, width 150–400 km. Divided into Himadri (loftiest, perennially snow-bound), Himachal (valleys, hill stations), Shiwaliks (duns, sediments). Regional divisions: Punjab, Kumaon, Nepal, Assam Himalayas. Eastern extension = Purvachal (Patkai, Naga, Manipur, Mizo Hills).

    Q2. Discuss the importance of Northern Plains for India.
    → Alluvial, fertile, agriculture-based, supports high population. Rivers provide irrigation, transport, hydroelectricity. Flat land allows industrialisation and urbanisation. Historically, cradle of civilisation. Known as “food bowl” of India.

    Q3. Explain physiographic divisions of the Peninsular Plateau.
    → Two main parts: Central Highlands (Malwa, Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand, Chotanagpur) and Deccan Plateau (triangular, slopes eastwards, flanked by Ghats). Meghalaya Plateau (Garo, Khasi, Jaintia) part of NE extension. Black soil (Deccan Trap) from volcanic origin. Rich in minerals, crucial for industries.

    Q4. Describe Coastal Plains of India.
    → Narrow coastal strips flanking plateau.

    • Western Coast: Narrow, divided into Konkan (Mumbai–Goa), Kannad Plain, Malabar Coast.

    • Eastern Coast: Wide, level, divided into Northern Circar and Coromandel. Formed deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri. Important ports, fishing, Chilika Lake (saltwater lagoon).

    Q5. Discuss the Islands of India.
    → Lakshadweep (Arabian Sea): coral origin, 36 islands, small area, Kavaratti HQ. Rich marine life.
    Andaman & Nicobar (Bay of Bengal): volcanic origin, larger and numerous, divided into two groups. Equatorial climate, biodiversity, strategic naval location. India’s only active volcano (Barren Island).


    MCQs

    1. India’s physical features divided into ___ divisions.
      (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
      Answer: (b) 6

    2. Himalayas length is:
      (a) 1500 km (b) 2400 km (c) 2000 km (d) 2500 km
      Answer: (b)

    3. Himalayas average width in Arunachal Pradesh:
      (a) 150 km (b) 200 km (c) 250 km (d) 400 km
      Answer: (a)

    4. Highest peak in India:
      (a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanda Devi (d) Kamet
      Answer: (b)

    5. Longitudinal valleys between Lesser Himalaya & Shiwaliks:
      (a) Doabs (b) Duns (c) Khadar (d) Terai
      Answer: (b)

    6. Largest inhabited riverine island:
      (a) Sriharikota (b) Majuli (c) Lakshadweep (d) Pitti
      Answer: (b)

    7. “Doab” means:
      (a) Two mountains (b) Two rivers (c) Two waters (d) Two valleys
      Answer: (c)

    8. Old alluvium plain =
      (a) Khadar (b) Bhangar (c) Terai (d) Bhabar
      Answer: (b)

    9. Black soil of Deccan =
      (a) Alluvium (b) Volcanic origin (c) Marine (d) Desert soil
      Answer: (b)

    10. Highest peak in Eastern Ghats:
      (a) Anai Mudi (b) Doda Betta (c) Mahendragiri (d) Shevroy
      Answer: (c)

    11. Indian desert receives rainfall below:
      (a) 250 mm (b) 200 mm (c) 150 mm (d) 100 mm
      Answer: (c)

    12. Only large river of desert:
      (a) Ghaggar (b) Sabarmati (c) Luni (d) Chambal
      Answer: (c)

    13. Largest saltwater lake in India:
      (a) Sambhar (b) Chilika (c) Pulicat (d) Wular
      Answer: (b)

    14. Coral islands of India:
      (a) Andaman (b) Nicobar (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives
      Answer: (c)

    15. India’s only active volcano:
      (a) Popa (b) Krakatoa (c) Barren Island (d) Narcondam
      Answer: (c)

    16. Konkan coast lies between:
      (a) Mumbai–Goa (b) Goa–Kerala (c) Gujarat–Goa (d) Kerala–TN
      Answer: (a)

    17. Khasi, Garo, Jaintia Hills belong to:
      (a) Deccan Plateau (b) Meghalaya Plateau (c) Aravali Hills (d) Vindhya Hills
      Answer: (b)

    18. Chotanagpur plateau rich in:
      (a) Agriculture (b) Minerals (c) Desert (d) Fisheries
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which desert lies west of Aravallis?
      (a) Thar (b) Sahara (c) Kalahari (d) Gobi
      Answer: (a)

    20. Kavaratti is capital of:
      (a) Andaman (b) Lakshadweep (c) Nicobar (d) Maldives
      Answer: (b)


    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Himalayas are divided into Himadri, Himachal, Shiwaliks.

    2. The Northern Plains are formed by Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra rivers.

    3. Older alluvium is called Bhangar, newer alluvium is Khadar.

    4. The Deccan Plateau is of volcanic origin.

    5. The Western Ghats cause orographic rainfall.

    6. The Indian Desert lies to the west of Aravallis.

    7. The only large river of desert is the Luni.

    8. The eastern coastal strip is called Northern Circar & Coromandel.

    9. India’s largest saltwater lake is Chilika.

    10. India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island.