Tag: Accounting & Financial Management

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-4 MCQs

    Accounting & Financial Management

    🔹 Section A – Accounting Principles and Standards

    1. The primary objective of accounting is to:
    A. Record all financial transactions
    B. Provide financial information for decision-making
    C. Calculate tax
    D. Maintain secrecy
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Accounting provides relevant information to management and stakeholders for better decisions.*


    2. The principle that states “business and owner are separate entities” is:
    A. Cost Concept
    B. Business Entity Concept
    C. Matching Concept
    D. Dual Aspect
    Answer: B


    3. The assumption that business will continue in the foreseeable future is:
    A. Going Concern
    B. Matching
    C. Realisation
    D. Conservatism
    Answer: A


    4. The concept of “recording only monetary transactions” refers to:
    A. Accrual Concept
    B. Money Measurement
    C. Materiality
    D. Entity
    Answer: B


    5. Matching Concept relates to:
    A. Assets and Liabilities
    B. Expenses and Revenues
    C. Income and Capital
    D. Assets and Income
    Answer: B


    6. Conservatism principle means:
    A. Record all profits immediately
    B. Provide for expected losses
    C. Ignore depreciation
    D. Avoid provisions
    Answer: B


    7. “Dual Aspect” means:
    A. Every transaction has two sides
    B. Assets = Liabilities
    C. Income = Expenditure
    D. Credit = Income
    Answer: A


    8. Accrual Concept records:
    A. Only cash transactions
    B. Income and expenses when incurred
    C. Only credit transactions
    D. Receipts only
    Answer: B


    9. Accounting Standards are issued in India by:
    A. ICAI
    B. SEBI
    C. RBI
    D. Ministry of Finance
    Answer: A


    10. Indian Accounting Standards are known as:
    A. IAS
    B. Ind AS
    C. IFRS
    D. GAAP
    Answer: B


    🔹 Section B – Financial Statements and Analysis

    11. Financial statements are prepared to show:
    A. Operational data
    B. Financial performance and position
    C. Employee satisfaction
    D. Product quality
    Answer: B


    12. The statement showing profit or loss for a period is:
    A. Balance Sheet
    B. Income Statement
    C. Cash Flow
    D. Fund Flow
    Answer: B


    13. Which of the following is a financial statement?
    A. Trial Balance
    B. Cash Flow Statement
    C. Ledger
    D. Journal
    Answer: B


    14. “Financial position at a point of time” is shown by:
    A. Income Statement
    B. Cash Flow
    C. Balance Sheet
    D. Profit & Loss
    Answer: C


    15. Funds Flow Statement shows:
    A. Movement of working capital
    B. Profit distribution
    C. Depreciation
    D. Cash inflow only
    Answer: A


    16. Ratio Analysis helps in:
    A. Measuring profitability, liquidity, solvency
    B. Cost computation only
    C. Production planning
    D. Marketing
    Answer: A


    17. Current Ratio is:
    A. Current Assets / Current Liabilities
    B. Total Assets / Current Liabilities
    C. Fixed Assets / Current Liabilities
    D. Sales / Current Liabilities
    Answer: A


    18. Ideal Quick Ratio is:
    A. 3:1
    B. 2:1
    C. 1:1
    D. 0.5:1
    Answer: C


    19. Debt-Equity Ratio measures:
    A. Solvency
    B. Liquidity
    C. Profitability
    D. Turnover
    Answer: A


    20. DuPont analysis decomposes ROE into:
    A. 2 parts
    B. 3 parts
    C. 4 parts
    D. 5 parts
    Answer: B
    Explanation: ROE = Net Profit Margin × Asset Turnover × Equity Multiplier.*


    🔹 Section C – Funds Flow and Cash Flow Analysis

    21. Fund Flow statement is based on:
    A. Cash basis
    B. Accrual basis
    C. Realisation concept
    D. Cost basis
    Answer: B


    22. Cash Flow statement is classified into how many activities?
    A. Two
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. Five
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Operating, Investing, Financing Activities.*


    23. Cash Flow Statement is prepared as per:
    A. AS–1
    B. AS–3
    C. AS–5
    D. AS–9
    Answer: B


    24. Cash inflow from financing activity includes:
    A. Issue of shares
    B. Purchase of machinery
    C. Interest received
    D. Depreciation
    Answer: A


    25. Increase in current assets leads to:
    A. Increase in cash
    B. Decrease in cash
    C. No effect
    D. Increase in capital
    Answer: B


    26. Increase in current liabilities leads to:
    A. Increase in working capital
    B. Decrease in working capital
    C. Increase in fixed capital
    D. No effect
    Answer: B


    27. Depreciation is added back in Cash Flow because:
    A. It is a cash expense
    B. It is a non-cash expense
    C. It reduces cash
    D. It increases cash
    Answer: B


    28. Payment of dividend appears under:
    A. Operating activities
    B. Financing activities
    C. Investing activities
    D. None
    Answer: B


    29. Sale of fixed assets is a:
    A. Cash inflow from investing activities
    B. Cash outflow from investing activities
    C. Cash inflow from financing activities
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. Issue of debentures for cash is a:
    A. Financing inflow
    B. Investing inflow
    C. Operating inflow
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section D – Cost Sheet and Cost Accounting

    31. Prime Cost =
    A. Direct Material + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses
    B. Factory Cost + Admin Overheads
    C. Sales − Profit
    D. Fixed Cost + Variable Cost
    Answer: A


    32. Factory Overheads include:
    A. Indirect materials, labour, factory expenses
    B. Direct materials only
    C. Office expenses
    D. Selling expenses
    Answer: A


    33. Total Cost of Production includes:
    A. Prime cost only
    B. Works cost + Office overhead
    C. Selling cost only
    D. Direct cost only
    Answer: B


    34. Cost Sheet helps in:
    A. Price fixation and cost control
    B. Tax calculation
    C. Audit
    D. Advertising
    Answer: A


    35. Selling and distribution overheads are added to:
    A. Works cost
    B. Cost of production
    C. Prime cost
    D. Office cost
    Answer: B


    36. Works Cost =
    A. Prime cost + Factory overheads
    B. Prime cost + Office overheads
    C. Total cost – Selling expenses
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. The main objective of cost accounting is:
    A. Cost control and cost reduction
    B. Tax assessment
    C. Cash management
    D. Record keeping
    Answer: A


    38. Fixed costs remain constant:
    A. Per unit
    B. In total
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: B


    39. Variable costs vary:
    A. With time
    B. With volume of output
    C. With capital
    D. With assets
    Answer: B


    40. Semi-variable costs are:
    A. Fixed only
    B. Variable only
    C. Partly fixed and partly variable
    D. None
    Answer: C


    🔹 Section E – Marginal Costing and CVP Analysis

    41. Contribution =
    A. Sales – Variable Cost
    B. Sales – Fixed Cost
    C. Profit – Variable Cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    42. Break-even point means:
    A. No profit, no loss
    B. Maximum profit
    C. Minimum loss
    D. Maximum sales
    Answer: A


    43. P/V Ratio =
    A. (Contribution / Sales) × 100
    B. (Profit / Variable Cost) × 100
    C. (Sales / Profit) × 100
    D. (Cost / Sales) × 100
    Answer: A


    44. If Fixed Cost = ₹50,000 and Contribution per unit = ₹10, BEP (units) = ?
    A. 5000
    B. 4000
    C. 6000
    D. 4500
    Answer: A


    45. Margin of Safety =
    A. Actual Sales – BEP Sales
    B. BEP Sales – Actual Sales
    C. Contribution – Profit
    D. Sales – Variable Cost
    Answer: A


    46. At BEP, contribution equals:
    A. Profit
    B. Fixed Cost
    C. Variable Cost
    D. None
    Answer: B


    47. Higher P/V ratio indicates:
    A. Higher profit potential
    B. Higher cost
    C. Lower sales
    D. None
    Answer: A


    48. Variable cost per unit is ₹30, Selling price ₹50, Fixed cost ₹2,00,000.
    BEP units = ?
    A. 10,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 5,000
    D. 15,000
    Answer: A
    (Fixed Cost ÷ (SP − VC) = 2,00,000 ÷ 20 = 10,000)


    49. CVP analysis helps in:
    A. Profit planning and decision-making
    B. Tax calculation
    C. Salary fixation
    D. Inventory valuation
    Answer: A


    50. Margin of Safety ratio =
    A. (MOS / Sales) × 100
    B. (BEP / Sales) × 100
    C. (Profit / Sales) × 100
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section F – Standard Costing & Variance Analysis

    51. Variance =
    A. Standard Cost − Actual Cost
    B. Fixed Cost − Variable Cost
    C. Sales − Cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    52. Material Price Variance =
    A. (SP − AP) × AQ
    B. (SQ − AQ) × SP
    C. (SQ − AQ) × AQ
    D. None
    Answer: A


    53. Material Usage Variance =
    A. (SQ − AQ) × SP
    B. (SP − AP) × AQ
    C. (SP × AQ)
    D. None
    Answer: A


    54. Labour Efficiency Variance =
    A. (SH − AH) × SR
    B. (SR − AR) × AH
    C. (SR × AH)
    D. None
    Answer: A


    55. Overhead Variance measures difference between:
    A. Standard and Actual Overhead
    B. Standard and Actual Cost
    C. Direct and Indirect Cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    56. Variance analysis is used for:
    A. Cost control
    B. Profit estimation only
    C. Production
    D. Legal reporting
    Answer: A


    57. Adverse variance means:
    A. Actual > Standard (cost)
    B. Standard > Actual
    C. Profit increase
    D. None
    Answer: A


    58. Standard Costing helps in:
    A. Setting performance benchmarks
    B. Recruitment
    C. Financial auditing
    D. Tax planning
    Answer: A


    59. Labour Rate Variance =
    A. (SR − AR) × AH
    B. (SH − AH) × SR
    C. (AR − SR) × SH
    D. None
    Answer: A


    60. Favourable variance means:
    A. Actual cost < Standard cost
    B. Actual cost > Standard cost
    C. No change
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section G – Financial Management Concepts

    61. The main objective of financial management is:
    A. Profit maximization
    B. Wealth maximization
    C. Sales maximization
    D. Cost reduction
    Answer: B


    62. Investment decision relates to:
    A. Capital budgeting
    B. Dividend policy
    C. Working capital
    D. All of these
    Answer: A


    63. Financing decision deals with:
    A. Sources of funds
    B. Use of funds
    C. Profit sharing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    64. Dividend decision concerns:
    A. Distribution of profits
    B. Raising of funds
    C. Investments
    D. None
    Answer: A


    65. Liquidity decision ensures:
    A. Sufficient working capital
    B. Higher debt
    C. More dividends
    D. None
    Answer: A


    66. The term “capital budgeting” refers to:
    A. Long-term investment decisions
    B. Cash budget
    C. Sales planning
    D. Payroll
    Answer: A


    67. Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) represents:
    A. Overall cost of financing
    B. Only debt cost
    C. Only equity cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    68. Financial management focuses on:
    A. Planning and controlling financial resources
    B. Auditing
    C. Accounting
    D. Legal compliance
    Answer: A


    69. Working capital =
    A. Current Assets − Current Liabilities
    B. Fixed Assets − Liabilities
    C. Assets + Liabilities
    D. Equity + Debt
    Answer: A


    70. The goal of financial management is to maximize:
    A. Shareholders’ wealth
    B. Managerial perks
    C. Sales volume
    D. Government revenue
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section H – Capital Structure and Cost of Capital

    71. Capital structure means:
    A. Mix of debt and equity
    B. Asset composition
    C. Working capital
    D. Expenses
    Answer: A


    72. Modigliani–Miller theory suggests:
    A. Capital structure is irrelevant
    B. High debt increases value
    C. Low debt increases value
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Traditional theory suggests:
    A. Optimum debt–equity ratio maximizes value
    B. No relation between value and leverage
    C. Only debt should be used
    D. Only equity should be used
    Answer: A


    74. Cost of equity (Ke) is calculated using:
    A. Dividend and market price
    B. Interest
    C. EBIT
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. WACC formula:
    A. (E/V × Ke) + (D/V × Kd × (1−T))
    B. E/V + D/V
    C. (D−E)/V
    D. None
    Answer: A


    76. Cost of debt is calculated after:
    A. Tax
    B. Dividend
    C. Interest
    D. Depreciation
    Answer: A


    77. Optimum capital structure minimizes:
    A. Overall cost of capital
    B. Profit
    C. Assets
    D. Tax
    Answer: A


    78. Debt-Equity ratio of 2:1 means:
    A. Debt is double equity
    B. Equity is double debt
    C. Equal
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. Financial risk increases with:
    A. Increase in debt
    B. Increase in equity
    C. Increase in reserves
    D. Decrease in sales
    Answer: A


    80. Retained earnings are:
    A. Internal source of finance
    B. External source
    C. Loan
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section I – Budgeting and Control

    81. Budgeting means:
    A. Planning future activities in monetary terms
    B. Cost recording
    C. Profit calculation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. Budgetary control involves:
    A. Comparing actual results with budgets
    B. Recording transactions
    C. Auditing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    83. Cash budget shows:
    A. Expected cash inflows and outflows
    B. Profitability
    C. Assets
    D. Liabilities
    Answer: A


    84. Flexible budget adjusts to:
    A. Different activity levels
    B. Fixed activity level
    C. Production cost only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. Zero-Based Budgeting starts from:
    A. Zero base
    B. Previous year
    C. Standard cost
    D. Fixed cost
    Answer: A


    86. Capital budgeting deals with:
    A. Long-term investments
    B. Short-term loans
    C. Payroll
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. The first step in budgetary control is:
    A. Setting objectives
    B. Implementing budget
    C. Evaluating variance
    D. Feedback
    Answer: A


    88. Budget Manual contains:
    A. Procedures for preparing budgets
    B. Annual report
    C. Cash flow
    D. Accounting standards
    Answer: A


    89. Responsibility accounting links budget with:
    A. Departmental responsibility
    B. Sales team
    C. Government
    D. Customers
    Answer: A

    90. Variance between actual and budgeted is used for:
    A. Control
    B. Audit
    C. Tax
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 Section J – Leverages and EBIT–EPS Analysis

    91. Leverage means:
    A. Use of fixed costs to magnify returns
    B. Sales increase
    C. Cost reduction
    D. Risk elimination
    Answer: A


    92. Operating leverage measures:
    A. Effect of sales change on EBIT
    B. Effect of EBIT on EPS
    C. Financial risk
    D. None
    Answer: A


    93. Financial leverage measures:
    A. Effect of EBIT change on EPS
    B. Effect of sales on EBIT
    C. Production risk
    D. None
    Answer: A


    94. Combined leverage =
    A. Operating leverage × Financial leverage
    B. Sales ÷ EBIT
    C. EBIT ÷ EPS
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. Financial Breakeven Point =
    A. Fixed financial charges
    B. EBIT
    C. EBT
    D. Sales
    Answer: A


    96. Indifference point is where:
    A. EPS under two financing options is same
    B. Profit = Loss
    C. Sales = Cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Higher leverage means:
    A. Higher risk and higher return
    B. Lower risk
    C. Constant profit
    D. None
    Answer: A


    98. If contribution = ₹4,00,000 and EBIT = ₹2,00,000, Operating Leverage = ?
    A. 2
    B. 1
    C. 0.5
    D. 4
    Answer: A


    99. EBIT–EPS analysis helps in:
    A. Selecting best financing option
    B. Determining product price
    C. Cost control
    D. Inventory valuation
    Answer: A


    100. Combined leverage indicates:
    A. Overall business and financial risk
    B. Only operating risk
    C. Only financial risk
    D. None
    Answer: A