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  • Chapter 5: Pastoralists in the Modern World, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
    → Nomadic tribes move in search of pasture and water for their herds. Seasonal changes force them to shift between high mountains, plains, and deserts. This mobility prevents overgrazing, allows natural vegetation to regenerate, and maintains ecological balance. It ensures sustainable use of fragile environments like mountains and dry regions.

    Q2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:

    • Waste Land Rules: To expand cultivation and increase revenue. Pastoralists lost grazing grounds.

    • Forest Acts: Reserved valuable forests for timber. Pastoralists lost access and needed permits, reducing freedom.

    • Criminal Tribes Act: Declared many nomadic groups as criminals, forcing settlement and surveillance.

    • Grazing Tax: Revenue from animals; increased burden on herders, reduced herd size.

    Q3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
    → Colonial partition divided Maasailand between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. Best pastures were taken for white settlement, agriculture, and game reserves like Serengeti. Maasais were pushed to dry, arid areas, losing 60% of their lands.

    Q4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples.
    → In both regions:

    1. Colonial governments reserved grazing lands for cultivation and timber, reducing pastures.

    2. Movement was restricted through permits, taxes, and boundaries. Both Indian pastoralists and Maasais faced hardships during droughts and famines.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the lifestyle of pastoralists in India before colonial rule.
    Pastoralists in India lived diverse lives across mountains, plateaus, plains, and deserts. Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir moved seasonally between Siwalik hills and Kashmir valleys. Gaddi shepherds of Himachal migrated between Lahul, Spiti, and Siwaliks. Dhangars of Maharashtra shifted from dry plateaus to Konkan fields after harvests, where their flocks fertilised soil. Kurumas, Kurubas, and Gollas of Andhra and Karnataka combined herding with cultivation and trade. Raikas of Rajasthan reared camels and sheep, moving between desert villages and distant pastures. Their movements were carefully planned to balance pasture availability, climate, and relations with farmers. Such mobility sustained fragile environments, ensured regeneration of vegetation, and supported both pastoralists and farmers.

    Q2. How did colonial policies affect Indian pastoralists?
    Colonial forest and land policies disrupted pastoral life. Waste Land Rules took over grazing grounds for cultivation. Forest Acts restricted access to reserved forests, forcing herders to seek permits. Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups, forcing them into fixed settlements. Grazing Tax increased their financial burden, reducing herd sizes. Movement was closely monitored; herders were fined for overstaying in pastures. Many pastoralists lost their livestock during famines due to lack of grazing land. Some adapted by settling as farmers or traders, while others migrated to new regions. Overall, colonial policies transformed pastoralists from free-moving communities to controlled, taxed, and impoverished groups.

    Q3. Discuss the Bastar Rebellion of 1910 in the context of pastoral struggles.
    In Bastar, forest reservation threatened tribals’ traditional rights. When the government decided to reserve two-thirds of forests, shifting cultivators, herders, and artisans faced displacement. Taxes increased and free labour was demanded. Led by Gunda Dhur, tribals launched the Bastar Rebellion in 1910. Mango boughs, chillies, and arrows were circulated as symbols of mobilisation. Rebels attacked police stations, schools, and officials, redistributed grain, and destroyed records. British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the rebellion forced them to relax reservation. The Bastar uprising symbolised the deep resistance of forest-dependent and pastoral communities against colonial exploitation.

    Q4. Explain the impact of restrictions on Maasai pastoralists in East Africa.
    The Maasais lost 60% of their land under British and German colonial rule. Pastures were converted into farms and game reserves. Boundaries confined Maasais to semi-arid zones with poor pastures. Permits restricted their seasonal movement, while access to water sources was denied. During droughts, thousands of cattle perished due to lack of forage. Social structure also changed: elders and warriors lost authority, while British-appointed chiefs gained power and wealth. Poor pastoralists suffered heavily, losing herds and turning to labour, while richer ones diversified into trade. Thus, colonial restrictions weakened Maasai economy, ecology, and culture, reducing them to poverty.

    Q5. Why do historians consider pastoralism ecologically viable even today?
    Pastoralism is suited to fragile environments like deserts and mountains. Continuous mobility prevents overgrazing, allowing vegetation to regenerate. Herds fertilise fields while grazing on stubble, benefiting farmers. In dry and hilly regions where cultivation is uncertain, pastoralism ensures sustainable livelihood. Modern restrictions caused decline, yet pastoralism remains relevant. Ecologists argue that nomadic herding is more sustainable than intensive farming in semi-arid regions. It adapts to seasonal changes, balances ecology, and reduces pressure on scarce resources. Thus, despite modern challenges, pastoralism continues to be an ecologically viable way of life, practiced widely in India, Africa, and Central Asia.

    MCQs

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals are found in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to:
      (a) Thar desert
      (b) Lahul and Spiti
      (c) Konkan coast
      (d) Deccan plateau
      Answer: (b)

    3. Dhangars are associated with:
      (a) Himachal
      (b) Maharashtra
      (c) Karnataka
      (d) Rajasthan
      Answer: (b)

    4. Raikas are camel herders of:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) Gujarat
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Haryana
      Answer: (c)

    5. Kurumas and Kurubas belonged to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu
      (b) Andhra & Karnataka
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (b)

    6. Waste Land Rules were enacted to:
      (a) Expand forests
      (b) Increase cultivation
      (c) Encourage herding
      (d) Promote trade
      Answer: (b)

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act was passed in:
      (a) 1861
      (b) 1871
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1891
      Answer: (b)

    8. Grazing Tax was imposed on:
      (a) Crops
      (b) Animals
      (c) Forests
      (d) Landlords
      Answer: (b)

    9. Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Kolkata
      (d) Shimla
      Answer: (b)

    10. Bastar Rebellion took place in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1921
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Maasai are found in:
      (a) South Africa
      (b) Kenya & Tanzania
      (c) Nigeria
      (d) Egypt
      Answer: (b)

    12. Maasai lost about ___% of their land:
      (a) 30%
      (b) 40%
      (c) 50%
      (d) 60%
      Answer: (d)

    13. Which park was created on Maasai grazing land?
      (a) Serengeti
      (b) Maasai Mara
      (c) Amboseli
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    14. Which community in Java resisted Dutch forestry laws?
      (a) Kalangs
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Kurubas
      (d) Bakarwals
      Answer: (a)

    15. Permit system was introduced under:
      (a) Waste Land Rules
      (b) Criminal Tribes Act
      (c) Forest Acts
      (d) Grazing Tax
      Answer: (c)

    16. During droughts, Maasai cattle died in:
      (a) 1925–26
      (b) 1930–31
      (c) 1933–34
      (d) 1940–41
      Answer: (c)

    17. Maasai social structure was divided into:
      (a) Rich & poor
      (b) Elders & warriors
      (c) Farmers & herders
      (d) Men & women
      Answer: (b)

    18. The colonial government considered nomads as:
      (a) Peaceful
      (b) Criminals
      (c) Educated
      (d) Rich
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which Indian pastoral community reared camels in Thar desert?
      (a) Gaddis
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Dhangars
      (d) Banjaras
      Answer: (b)

    20. Pastoralism is still considered:
      (a) Backward
      (b) Ecologically viable
      (c) Outdated
      (d) Criminal
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals move annually between Siwaliks and Kashmir valley.

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to Lahul and Spiti in summer.

    3. Dhangars of Maharashtra move to the Konkan coast after harvest.

    4. Raikas of Rajasthan rear camels, sheep, and goats.

    5. Waste Land Rules converted grazing land into cultivation.

    6. The Forest Acts restricted grazing rights.

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups.

    8. Pastoralists had to pay grazing tax on every animal.

    9. Maasai lost 60% of their grazing land.

    10. The Serengeti Park was created on Maasai pastures.

  • Chapter 4: Forest Society and Colonialism, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

    • Shifting cultivators: Banned from practicing jhum, many lost livelihood and were displaced. Some resisted or joined rebellions.

    • Nomadic and pastoralist communities: Lost access to grazing lands, were forced to change occupations.

    • Firms trading in timber/forest produce: Some European firms gained monopoly rights, but local traders lost access.

    • Plantation owners: Benefited hugely, as forests were cleared for tea, coffee, and rubber plantations.

    • Kings/British officials engaged in hunting: Encouraged big game hunting, leading to destruction of wildlife.

    Q2. What are the similarities between colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java?
    → Both regions saw large-scale reservation of forests, restriction on local use, and introduction of scientific forestry. Communities lost customary rights and were forced into labour. Rebellions occurred—Bastar in 1910, Kalang and Samin movements in Java. In both cases, colonial states prioritised timber needs over people’s livelihoods.

    Q3. Discuss factors leading to decline in India’s forest cover (1880–1920).

    • Railways: Huge demand for sleepers and fuel.

    • Shipbuilding: Timber for navy and trade ships.

    • Agricultural expansion: Peasants encouraged to clear forests.

    • Commercial farming: Jute, cotton, wheat grown for Europe.

    • Plantations: Tea, coffee, rubber cleared natural forests.

    • Peasant use: Collection of firewood, fruits, grazing also added.

    Q4. Why are forests affected by wars?
    → During wars, timber was urgently needed for barracks, railways, weapons, and fuel. In WWI and WWII, British cut Indian forests recklessly. In Java, Dutch burnt logs to prevent Japanese capture; Japanese later exploited forests. Wars thus caused massive deforestation.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain how colonial forest policies affected the lives of forest dwellers.
    Colonial forest policies drastically changed the lives of forest dwellers. The Forest Acts of 1865, 1878, and 1927 brought forests under strict state control. Villagers were banned from hunting, grazing cattle, and collecting wood or forest produce. Shifting cultivation was prohibited, forcing many tribes to abandon their traditional livelihood. Customary rights were replaced by permits, which were hard to obtain. Many communities were displaced, some forced into bonded labour in forest villages. Women collecting firewood faced harassment by guards. Hunting became a sport for British officials, while ordinary people were punished as poachers. Thus, forest dwellers lost autonomy, livelihoods, and dignity under colonial forest laws.

    Q2. Describe the Bastar rebellion of 1910.
    The Bastar rebellion was a major tribal uprising against British forest policies. Located in present-day Chhattisgarh, Bastar’s communities like Gonds, Dhurwas, and Bhatras depended on forests for food, fuel, and shifting cultivation. In 1905, the government proposed reserving two-thirds of the forest, displacing villages and forcing others to work for free. Famines and exploitation worsened discontent. Under leaders like Gunda Dhur, villagers circulated mango boughs, chillies, and arrows as rebellion signals. In 1910, bazaars, schools, and police stations were attacked, officials’ houses burnt, and grain redistributed. The British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the planned reservation was reduced. The rebellion showed how forest communities resisted colonial oppression.

    Q3. What was ‘scientific forestry’? How did it differ from villagers’ ideas of a good forest?
    Scientific forestry, introduced by Dietrich Brandis, meant systematic cutting of natural forests and replacing them with single-species plantations like teak or sal. The Indian Forest Service (1864) and Imperial Forest Research Institute (1906) promoted it. Officials managed forests with working plans, restricting local use. For villagers, a good forest meant diversity—fuel, fodder, fruits, leaves, and medicinal plants. For the state, forests meant revenue and timber. Thus, scientific forestry prioritised commercial exploitation, while villagers’ needs were ignored. Over time, this system caused ecological imbalance and discontent among communities.

    Q4. Explain the similarities and differences between Indian and Indonesian forest policies under colonial rule.
    Both India (under the British) and Java (under the Dutch) saw strict forest laws. Villagers were banned from shifting cultivation, grazing, or hunting. Forest services were set up, and labour was extracted for timber extraction. In Bastar, resistance led to the 1910 rebellion, while in Java, the Kalangs and Saminists opposed Dutch control. A difference was that in Java, systems like blandongdiensten forced villagers to provide free labour and buffaloes in return for rent exemptions. In India, labour was extracted through ‘forest villages’. Thus, while contexts differed, both colonial powers prioritised timber for ships, railways, and wars over local rights.

    Q5. Analyse the impact of colonial forest management on ecology and economy.
    Colonial policies led to large-scale deforestation. Between 1880–1920, 9.7 million hectares of forests were lost. Monoculture plantations reduced biodiversity and soil fertility. Wildlife was hunted to near extinction—over 80,000 tigers and 200,000 wolves were killed. Ecologically, rivers dried, soil eroded, and climate patterns changed. Economically, local people were impoverished while European firms gained monopoly over trade. Plantations enriched planters but displaced tribals. Forest laws criminalised traditional practices, turning communities into labourers for the state. Thus, colonial forestry damaged both the environment and indigenous economies.

    MCQs

    1. Deforestation means:
      (a) Growing more trees
      (b) Disappearance of forests
      (c) Cutting grasslands
      (d) Making plantations
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India?
      (a) Lord Curzon
      (b) Dietrich Brandis
      (c) William Ward
      (d) Gunda Dhur
      Answer: (b)

    3. The Indian Forest Act was first passed in:
      (a) 1864
      (b) 1865
      (c) 1878
      (d) 1927
      Answer: (b)

    4. Forests were divided into:
      (a) Two categories
      (b) Three categories
      (c) Four categories
      (d) Five categories
      Answer: (b)

    5. Reserved forests meant:
      (a) Villagers could freely use them
      (b) Only for shifting cultivation
      (c) No access for villagers
      (d) For hunting only
      Answer: (c)

    6. Shifting cultivation in India is locally called:
      (a) Podu
      (b) Chena
      (c) Kumri
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    7. Bastar rebellion occurred in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1920
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    8. Leader associated with Bastar rebellion:
      (a) Gunda Dhur
      (b) Birsa Munda
      (c) Alluri Sitarama Raju
      (d) Kanu
      Answer: (a)

    9. Dutch introduced the blandongdiensten system in:
      (a) India
      (b) Java
      (c) Burma
      (d) Malaya
      Answer: (b)

    10. Kalangs of Java were:
      (a) Traders
      (b) Woodcutters
      (c) Soldiers
      (d) Farmers
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which tree was mainly promoted in plantations?
      (a) Neem
      (b) Teak
      (c) Mango
      (d) Bamboo
      Answer: (b)

    12. Hunting became:
      (a) A livelihood
      (b) A sport
      (c) Illegal for British
      (d) Religious practice
      Answer: (b)

    13. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Bombay
      (d) Calcutta
      Answer: (b)

    14. The Bastar rebellion was triggered by:
      (a) High taxes
      (b) Forest reservation
      (c) Famine
      (d) British hunting laws
      Answer: (b)

    15. Samin’s movement in Java opposed:
      (a) Rent collection
      (b) Forest ownership by state
      (c) Trade restrictions
      (d) Plantation expansion
      Answer: (b)

    16. The British killed over _____ tigers between 1875–1925.
      (a) 40,000
      (b) 60,000
      (c) 80,000
      (d) 1,00,000
      Answer: (c)

    17. Forests were heavily exploited during:
      (a) World Wars
      (b) Revolts
      (c) Famines
      (d) Festivals
      Answer: (a)

    18. The mahua tree provides:
      (a) Fruits
      (b) Alcohol and oil
      (c) Medicines
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    19. Which community in Central India petitioned against loss of shifting cultivation?
      (a) Baigas
      (b) Bhils
      (c) Mundas
      (d) Santhals
      Answer: (a)

    20. Java’s forests were mainly rich in:
      (a) Mango
      (b) Teak
      (c) Bamboo
      (d) Coffee
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The disappearance of forests is called deforestation.

    2. The first Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis.

    3. The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

    4. Forests were divided into reserved, protected, and village forests.

    5. Shifting cultivation in Andhra Pradesh is known as podu.

    6. The Bastar rebellion took place in 1910.

    7. The Dutch used the blandongdiensten system in Java.

    8. Gunda Dhur was a leader in Bastar.

    9. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was established at Dehradun.

    10. The mahua tree is valued for its flowers, oil, and alcohol.

  • Chapter 2: Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?
    → Socially, Russia was dominated by nobles, the Orthodox Church, and the Tsar’s autocracy. Peasants (85% population) lived in poverty and wanted land reforms. Economically, Russia was primarily agricultural, though industries existed in pockets like St Petersburg and Moscow. Working conditions in factories were poor, wages low, and working hours long. Politically, Tsar Nicholas II ruled as an autocrat, ignoring the Duma and suppressing political parties. There was widespread discontent among workers, peasants, and minorities.

    Q2. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe, before 1917?
    → Russian workers were divided by skill (metal workers considered elite), had ties with villages, and women formed 31% of the workforce but earned less than men. Unlike Western Europe, political parties and trade unions were illegal, though strikes occurred often. Peasants in Russia pooled land through communes (mir), unlike Western Europe. Thus, Russian workers and peasants were distinct in organisation and demands.

    Q3. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?
    → The Tsar’s refusal to share power, defeats in WWI, economic crisis, food shortages, strikes, and mutinies led to collapse. The February 1917 Revolution began with worker strikes in Petrograd, soon joined by soldiers. Tsar Nicholas II abdicated on 2 March 1917, ending centuries of autocracy.

    Q4. Make two lists: main events and effects of the February and October Revolutions.

    • February Revolution: Worker strikes, women’s protests, mutiny of soldiers, abdication of Tsar, Provisional Government formed. Effect: End of monarchy, establishment of dual power (Provisional Govt + Soviets).

    • October Revolution: Bolsheviks under Lenin and Trotsky seized Winter Palace, overthrew Provisional Govt. Effect: Soviet rule, land to peasants, industries nationalised, Russia became first socialist state.

    Q5. Main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution.
    → Nationalisation of industries and banks, abolition of private property, land redistribution to peasants, censorship, establishment of one-party rule, and peace with Germany (Treaty of Brest-Litovsk).

    Q6. Short notes:

    • Kulaks: Wealthy peasants targeted by Stalin during collectivisation.

    • Duma: Russian parliament created after 1905, but controlled by Tsar.

    • Women workers (1900–1930): Formed a large part of workforce, led strikes like in February Revolution, but faced wage discrimination.

    • Liberals: Wanted elected government, civil rights, but restricted voting rights to property-owning men.

    • Stalin’s Collectivisation: Policy forcing peasants into collective farms; resisted violently, caused famine, but aimed to modernise agriculture.

    Extras – Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Discuss the role of Lenin and the Bolsheviks in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
    Lenin and the Bolsheviks played a decisive role in the Russian Revolution. Lenin opposed WWI and demanded “Peace, Land, and Bread”. His April Theses in 1917 called for withdrawal from war, transfer of land to peasants, and nationalisation of banks. The Bolsheviks organised soviets in factories and the army, spreading socialist ideas. Trotsky led the Military Revolutionary Committee, which organised the October uprising. On 24 October 1917, Bolsheviks captured key government offices and the Winter Palace. They redistributed land, nationalised industries, and withdrew from WWI through the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk. The Bolsheviks transformed Russia into the world’s first socialist state. Their leadership and discipline made them the most influential political force in 1917.

    Q2. Explain the causes and significance of the 1905 Revolution in Russia.
    The 1905 Revolution was triggered by economic hardship, poor working conditions, and political repression. Rising prices reduced real wages by 20%, leading to mass strikes. On 22 January 1905, thousands marched to the Winter Palace led by Father Gapon, demanding better wages and an elected assembly. Troops fired, killing over 100 workers—this event became known as Bloody Sunday. Strikes, peasant revolts, and student protests spread across Russia. The Tsar was forced to create the Duma, though it had limited powers. The revolution showed the growing power of workers and peasants, and the weakness of autocracy. It set the stage for 1917.

    Q3. Analyse Stalin’s collectivisation policy.
    By 1927, grain shortages in Soviet Russia led Stalin to enforce collectivisation. Private farms were abolished and peasants were forced into collective farms (kolkhoz). Land, livestock, and tools were taken over by the state. The kulaks, or wealthy peasants, resisted and were deported or executed. Many peasants slaughtered cattle and destroyed crops rather than surrender them. Between 1929–1933, production declined, leading to famine that killed over 4 million. While collectivisation aimed at modernising agriculture and ensuring grain supply for industries, it caused immense human suffering. It symbolised Stalin’s authoritarian style of governance, prioritising state control over individual welfare.

    Q4. How did the First World War create conditions for the Russian Revolution?
    WWI had devastating effects on Russia. Over 7 million soldiers were killed or wounded. Food and fuel shortages worsened due to disrupted transport. Industries collapsed as raw materials ran out, and bread riots became common by 1916. The Tsar’s mismanagement, corruption, and refusal to consult the Duma discredited his rule. Soldiers mutinied, and strikes spread. The February Revolution of 1917 began in Petrograd during food shortages and snow, when workers and women protested. The army joined them, forcing the Tsar’s abdication. Thus, WWI acted as the immediate trigger that exposed the weakness of Tsarist autocracy and created revolutionary conditions.

    Q5. What was the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR?
    The Russian Revolution inspired workers and peasants worldwide. It showed that an alternative to capitalism was possible. Communist parties were formed in Europe and Asia, including India, where leaders like M.N. Roy and Jawaharlal Nehru admired Soviet socialism. The Bolsheviks founded the Comintern to unite socialist movements. USSR’s policies of equality, land redistribution, and planned economy impressed many, though its authoritarianism drew criticism. Writers like Tagore and Shaukat Usmani described Soviet Russia as a land of equality and education. By the mid-20th century, the USSR became a global power, shaping world politics and inspiring anti-colonial struggles.

    MCQs

    1. Who wrote The Communist Manifesto?
      (a) Lenin and Stalin
      (b) Marx and Engels
      (c) Rousseau and Montesquieu
      (d) Robespierre and Danton
      Answer: (b)

    2. Which party was formed in Russia in 1898?
      (a) Socialist Revolutionary Party
      (b) Bolshevik Party
      (c) Russian Social Democratic Workers Party
      (d) Mensheviks
      Answer: (c)

    3. The event of 22 January 1905 is known as:
      (a) Red Sunday
      (b) Bloody Sunday
      (c) Labour Sunday
      (d) People’s March
      Answer: (b)

    4. Soviets were:
      (a) Peasant communes
      (b) Workers’ and soldiers’ councils
      (c) Secret police
      (d) Parliament of Russia
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lenin’s April Theses demanded:
      (a) More wages
      (b) Peace, Land, and Bread
      (c) Collectivisation
      (d) End of Duma
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who led the Bolsheviks?
      (a) Trotsky
      (b) Stalin
      (c) Lenin
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    7. The October Revolution took place in:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1922
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which treaty ended Russia’s involvement in WWI?
      (a) Treaty of Versailles
      (b) Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
      (c) Treaty of Moscow
      (d) Treaty of Berlin
      Answer: (b)

    9. The secret police under Lenin was called:
      (a) Cheka
      (b) KGB
      (c) NKVD
      (d) Gestapo
      Answer: (a)

    10. The elected parliament created after 1905 was:
      (a) Soviet
      (b) Duma
      (c) Diet
      (d) Reichstag
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Bolshevik Party was later renamed as:
      (a) Communist Party of Russia
      (b) Soviet Socialist Party
      (c) Marxist Party
      (d) People’s Party
      Answer: (a)

    12. Stalin’s collective farms were called:
      (a) Kolkhoz
      (b) Sovkhoz
      (c) Mir
      (d) Commune
      Answer: (a)

    13. Who among the following was NOT a socialist thinker?
      (a) Karl Marx
      (b) Friedrich Engels
      (c) Louis Blanc
      (d) Adam Smith
      Answer: (d)

    14. Tsar Nicholas II ruled until:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1922
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which leader organised the Red Army?
      (a) Stalin
      (b) Lenin
      (c) Trotsky
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    16. The USSR was formed in:
      (a) 1922
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which group supported peasants’ rights in Russia?
      (a) Mensheviks
      (b) Socialist Revolutionaries
      (c) Bolsheviks
      (d) Liberals
      Answer: (b)

    18. The capital Petrograd was earlier called:
      (a) Moscow
      (b) Leningrad
      (c) St Petersburg
      (d) Volgograd
      Answer: (c)

    19. The Comintern was founded to:
      (a) Spread communism internationally
      (b) Train Red Army
      (c) Control peasants
      (d) Promote trade unions
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who introduced collectivisation in USSR?
      (a) Lenin
      (b) Trotsky
      (c) Stalin
      (d) Gorbachev
      Answer: (c)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Russian Revolution of 1917 occurred in two stages – February and October.

    2. The Tsar of Russia in 1914 was Nicholas II.

    3. The Socialist Revolutionary Party worked mainly for peasants’ rights.

    4. Lenin’s three slogans were Peace, Land, and Bread.

    5. The Bolshevik Party later became the Communist Party of Russia.

    6. The Russian secret police was called Cheka.

    7. Stalin forced peasants into collective farms known as Kolkhoz.

    8. The 1905 protest where workers were fired upon is called Bloody Sunday.

    9. Russia withdrew from WWI by signing the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk.

    10. The USSR was formed in 1922.

  • Chapter 1: The French Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
    → The French monarchy faced financial crisis due to long wars and extravagant spending. The treasury was empty and taxation was increased. Society was divided into three estates, where clergy and nobility enjoyed privileges, while the Third Estate bore the tax burden. Rising population, food shortages, and high bread prices created a subsistence crisis. Enlightenment thinkers like Rousseau, Montesquieu, and Locke spread ideas of equality and liberty. The American Revolution also inspired French people. Thus, social inequality, economic hardship, and new political ideas led to revolutionary protests.

    Q2. Which groups of French society benefited from the Revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections would have been disappointed?
    → Benefited: Peasants, artisans, and the middle class who gained equality before law and end of feudal dues.
    Relinquished power: Nobility and clergy lost privileges, taxes, and feudal rights.
    Disappointed: Women, who were still denied political rights, and poorer sections, who remained passive citizens under the 1791 Constitution.

    Q3. Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world.
    → The Revolution spread the ideas of liberty, equality, and fraternity. It inspired struggles against monarchy and feudalism in Europe. Colonised countries like India drew from its principles to fight colonial rule. Democratic rights such as freedom of speech, equality before law, and sovereignty of the people became universal values. However, contradictions existed, such as denial of rights to women and colonies.

    Q4. Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.
    → Right to equality before law, right to freedom of speech and expression, right to vote, right to liberty, right against exploitation, and right to property (later modified in India).

    Q5. Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
    → Yes. While the Revolution declared universal rights, women were excluded, as were slaves in colonies. Only active male citizens with property could vote initially. Thus, universal rights were limited by class, gender, and race.

    Q6. How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
    → Political instability after the fall of Jacobins, failure of the Directory, and constant wars created conditions for a strong leader. Napoleon, a military general, seized power in 1799 and later crowned himself Emperor. He introduced reforms in law, administration, and modernised Europe. Initially hailed as a liberator, he later became a dictator until his defeat at Waterloo in 1815.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the social and economic causes of the French Revolution.
    The French society in the 18th century was divided into three estates. The first two estates—the clergy and nobility—enjoyed privileges, including exemption from taxes, while the Third Estate bore the entire tax burden. Peasants, artisans, and workers faced exploitation through feudal dues and tithes. Economic hardship worsened as population growth outpaced food supply, leading to a subsistence crisis. Bread prices soared, and wages stagnated. Extravagant expenditure by King Louis XVI and his court deepened the financial crisis. France’s involvement in the American War of Independence added to the debt. These conditions created resentment, and people demanded an end to inequality, paving the way for revolution.

    Q2. Discuss the role of philosophers in the French Revolution.
    Enlightenment philosophers inspired people with ideas of equality, freedom, and democracy. John Locke refuted the doctrine of divine right of kings and argued for government based on consent. Rousseau’s Social Contract emphasised collective sovereignty and equality. Montesquieu’s Spirit of the Laws proposed division of power among executive, legislature, and judiciary, influencing democratic structures. Their works spread through salons, newspapers, and coffee houses, reaching even the illiterate. These ideas encouraged the Third Estate to demand reforms and shaped revolutionary demands for a society based on merit and rights rather than birth.

    Q3. Explain the Reign of Terror under Robespierre.
    The period from 1793–1794 is called the Reign of Terror. Maximilien Robespierre, leader of Jacobins, imposed severe controls to protect the republic. Suspected enemies of the revolution, including nobles, clergy, and even his opponents, were arrested and executed by guillotine. Harsh economic measures like price controls on bread and rationing were introduced. Traditional titles like Monsieur and Madame were replaced by Citizen. Churches were closed. While the aim was equality, fear and repression dominated. Ultimately, Robespierre lost support, was arrested, and executed in 1794, ending the Terror.

    Q4. What was the impact of the French Revolution on women?
    Women actively participated in protests, marched to Versailles, and formed political clubs. They demanded education, equal wages, and the right to vote. The Constitution of 1791, however, denied them political rights, reducing them to passive citizens. Revolutionary governments introduced some reforms like compulsory schooling for girls, legalised divorce, and civil marriages. Women like Olympe de Gouges demanded political equality, writing the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen. Yet, during the Reign of Terror, women’s clubs were closed, and many activists were punished. Women in France finally gained voting rights only in 1946.

    Q5. Describe the abolition of slavery during the French Revolution.
    Slavery existed in French colonies in the Caribbean, where Africans were forced to work on plantations. The French Revolution initially ignored the issue due to pressure from merchants benefiting from the slave trade. In 1794, the Convention abolished slavery in all French colonies, recognising the rights of slaves as citizens. This was a significant step towards equality. However, Napoleon reintroduced slavery in 1804. Finally, slavery was abolished permanently in 1848. The abolition of slavery highlighted the Revolution’s broader struggle for human rights and influenced anti-slavery movements globally.

    MCQs

    1. The storming of Bastille took place on:
      (a) 5 May 1789
      (b) 14 July 1789
      (c) 4 August 1789
      (d) 21 September 1792
      Answer: (b)

    2. Louis XVI belonged to which dynasty?
      (a) Habsburg
      (b) Bourbon
      (c) Tudor
      (d) Stuart
      Answer: (b)

    3. The unit of currency in France before 1794 was:
      (a) Franc
      (b) Livre
      (c) Pound
      (d) Dollar
      Answer: (b)

    4. The tax paid directly to the state was called:
      (a) Tithe
      (b) Taille
      (c) Gabelle
      (d) Octroi
      Answer: (b)

    5. Tithes were collected by:
      (a) Nobles
      (b) Church
      (c) King
      (d) Merchants
      Answer: (b)

    6. The middle class in France was also known as:
      (a) Clergy
      (b) Nobility
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Sans-culottes
      Answer: (c)

    7. Who wrote The Social Contract?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who proposed separation of powers?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (a)

    9. The slogan of the French Revolution was:
      (a) Justice, Equality, Power
      (b) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
      (c) Liberty, Justice, Sovereignty
      (d) Equality, Rights, Nation
      Answer: (b)

    10. Who led the Jacobins?
      (a) Napoleon
      (b) Robespierre
      (c) Danton
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which period is called the Reign of Terror?
      (a) 1789–1791
      (b) 1791–1792
      (c) 1793–1794
      (d) 1794–1799
      Answer: (c)

    12. Which device was used for executions?
      (a) Cannon
      (b) Sword
      (c) Guillotine
      (d) Axe
      Answer: (c)

    13. Who wrote Declaration of Rights of Woman and Citizen?
      (a) Olympe de Gouges
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (a)

    14. Napoleon was finally defeated at:
      (a) Paris
      (b) Moscow
      (c) Leipzig
      (d) Waterloo
      Answer: (d)

    15. Slavery in French colonies was finally abolished in:
      (a) 1794
      (b) 1804
      (c) 1848
      (d) 1815
      Answer: (c)

    16. National Anthem of France is:
      (a) Vande Mataram
      (b) The Marseillaise
      (c) La Revolutionnaire
      (d) Liberté Song
      Answer: (b)

    17. Who criticised monarchy in Two Treatises of Government?
      (a) Locke
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which section wore knee breeches?
      (a) Sans-culottes
      (b) Nobles
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Jacobins
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which new title was introduced during Revolution?
      (a) Sir and Madam
      (b) Monsieur and Madame
      (c) Citoyen and Citoyenne
      (d) Comrade
      Answer: (c)

    20. Who crowned himself Emperor in 1804?
      (a) Robespierre
      (b) Napoleon
      (c) Louis XVI
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The French Revolution began in 1789.

    2. The Bastille was a symbol of despotic monarchy.

    3. The tax paid to the state directly was taille.

    4. The tax collected by the church was tithe.

    5. Rousseau wrote The Social Contract.

    6. Montesquieu proposed division of powers.

    7. The slogan of the French Revolution was Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.

    8. The Reign of Terror lasted from 1793–1794.

    9. Olympe de Gouges demanded rights for women.

    10. Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo in 1815.

  • Chapter 6: Population, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

    (i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:
    (a) The area of departure
    (b) The area of arrival
    (c) Both the area of departure and arrival
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) Both the area of departure and arrival

    (ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
    (a) High birth rates
    (b) High life expectancies
    (c) High death rates
    (d) More married couples
    Answer: (a) High birth rates

    (iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to:
    (a) Total population of an area
    (b) Number of persons added each year/decade
    (c) Rate at which population increases
    (d) Number of females per 1000 males
    Answer: (b) Number of persons added each year/decade

    (iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who:
    (a) Can read and write his/her name
    (b) Can read and write any language
    (c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
    (d) Knows the 3 R’s (Reading, Writing, Arithmetic)
    Answer: (c)

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
    → Because birth rates have been declining gradually due to family planning, awareness, better healthcare, and improved literacy.

    (ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
    → Birth rate, death rate, and migration. Birth and death determine natural increase, while migration affects distribution and composition.

    (iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
    → Age structure: Proportion of different age groups in population.
    Birth rate: Live births per 1000 persons per year.
    Death rate: Deaths per 1000 persons per year.

    (iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
    → Migration changes size, composition, and distribution of population. Internal migration redistributes people; international migration alters population size.

    Q3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

    • Growth: Increase in number of people.

    • Change: Includes growth plus changes in distribution, composition, and migration.

    Q4. Relation between occupational structure and development.
    → Higher proportion in secondary/tertiary = more developed economy. Primary sector dominance = less development.

    Q5. Advantages of a healthy population.
    → Greater productivity, better quality of life, lower healthcare costs, improved economic growth.

    Q6. Significant features of National Population Policy 2000.
    → Universal free education up to 14 years, reduced infant mortality, universal immunisation, delayed marriage of girls, voluntary family welfare programs.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the size and distribution of India’s population.
    India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion, about 17% of the world’s population, spread over 3.28 million sq km. This makes India the second most populous country. Population distribution is highly uneven. Uttar Pradesh has 199 million people, the highest among states, while Sikkim and Lakshadweep have less than a million. Half of India’s population lives in just five states: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh. Population density is 382 persons/sq km on average, but varies from 1,102 in Bihar to only 17 in Arunachal Pradesh. Fertile plains and coastal regions are densely populated, while deserts, mountains, and forests are sparsely populated. This unevenness shows how geography influences human settlement.

    Q2. Discuss population growth trends in India since 1951.
    In 1951, India had 361 million people. Since then, population has increased steadily. Growth accelerated from 1951 to 1981, with rates peaking at 2.2% per year due to high birth rates and declining death rates. From 1981 onwards, growth rate declined gradually as fertility declined, but absolute increase remained high due to a large base population. For example, in the 1990s alone, 182 million people were added despite falling growth rates. By 2011, population reached 1.21 billion, and by 2023 India overtook China as the most populous nation. This shows that even with slower growth, the absolute additions remain large because of the sheer population base.

    Q3. Explain the role of migration in population change in India.
    Migration significantly affects population distribution and composition. Internal migration in India is mainly rural-to-urban due to push factors like poverty and unemployment and pull factors like jobs and better facilities in cities. This increases urbanisation; urban population grew from 17% in 1951 to over 31% in 2011, and continues rising. Migration also changes age and sex composition: men often migrate first, leaving women behind, while in cities, working-age groups dominate. International migration has also shaped India—large-scale emigration to Gulf countries and Western nations brings remittances, while immigration from neighbouring countries like Nepal or Bangladesh adds to diversity. Thus, migration redistributes population and impacts economy and society.

    Q4. Why is the adolescent population important for India?
    Adolescents (10–19 years) form one-fifth of India’s population. They are the future workforce and hold the key to economic growth. Proper nutrition and education are vital for them. However, many adolescents, especially girls, suffer from anaemia, malnutrition, and lack of healthcare. If neglected, this segment can become a burden instead of a resource. The government aims to improve adolescent health through literacy, awareness, and nutrition programs. Skilled, healthy adolescents can contribute to innovation, productivity, and nation-building. Hence, investment in this group ensures long-term development and prosperity for India.

    Q5. What are the objectives of National Population Policy 2000? Why is it significant?
    The NPP 2000 provides a comprehensive framework for family welfare and population stabilisation. Its key objectives include: universal free education up to 14 years, reducing infant mortality below 30 per 1000, universal immunisation of children, promoting delayed marriage for girls, voluntary family planning, and making reproductive healthcare accessible. The policy recognises that smaller, healthier families improve quality of life. It also focuses on adolescent health, raising awareness among girls, and ensuring nutrition and education. The significance of NPP lies in balancing population growth with sustainable development. By empowering individuals to plan families voluntarily, it links health, education, and gender equality with demographic goals.

    MCQs

    1. India’s population in 2011 was:
      (a) 1.02 billion
      (b) 1.21 billion
      (c) 1.31 billion
      (d) 1.11 billion
      Answer: (b)

    2. India’s share of world population is about:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 12%
      (c) 17%
      (d) 20%
      Answer: (c)

    3. The most populous state in 2011:
      (a) Bihar
      (b) Uttar Pradesh
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) West Bengal
      Answer: (b)

    4. Least populated state in 2011:
      (a) Goa
      (b) Sikkim
      (c) Manipur
      (d) Tripura
      Answer: (b)

    5. Population density of India in 2011:
      (a) 250/sq km
      (b) 350/sq km
      (c) 382/sq km
      (d) 400/sq km
      Answer: (c)

    6. Highest density state in 2011:
      (a) West Bengal
      (b) Bihar
      (c) Kerala
      (d) UP
      Answer: (b)

    7. Lowest density state:
      (a) Sikkim
      (b) Arunachal Pradesh
      (c) Mizoram
      (d) Nagaland
      Answer: (b)

    8. Census is conducted every:
      (a) 5 years
      (b) 10 years
      (c) 15 years
      (d) 20 years
      Answer: (b)

    9. First complete census in India:
      (a) 1857
      (b) 1872
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1901
      Answer: (c)

    10. Absolute increase in population means:
      (a) Total population
      (b) Number added during a period
      (c) Growth rate
      (d) Density
      Answer: (b)

    11. Growth rate of population is measured in:
      (a) % per decade
      (b) % per annum
      (c) Total headcount
      (d) Births per year
      Answer: (b)

    12. Birth rate means:
      (a) Births per 100 persons
      (b) Births per 1000 persons
      (c) Children per family
      (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    13. Death rate means:
      (a) Deaths per 100 persons
      (b) Deaths per 1000 persons
      (c) Life expectancy
      (d) Mortality ratio
      Answer: (b)

    14. Rural-urban migration in India is mainly due to:
      (a) Cultural reasons
      (b) Poverty & unemployment in villages
      (c) Religious reasons
      (d) Government policy
      Answer: (b)

    15. India overtook China in population in:
      (a) 2019
      (b) 2020
      (c) 2023
      (d) 2025
      Answer: (c)

    16. Adolescent population is defined as ages:
      (a) 5–15 years
      (b) 10–19 years
      (c) 12–20 years
      (d) 15–25 years
      Answer: (b)

    17. Percentage of adolescent population in India:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 15%
      (c) 20%
      (d) 25%
      Answer: (c)

    18. National Population Policy was adopted in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1980
      (c) 1991
      (d) 2000
      Answer: (d)

    19. NPP 2000 aims to reduce infant mortality rate below:
      (a) 40 per 1000
      (b) 35 per 1000
      (c) 30 per 1000
      (d) 25 per 1000
      Answer: (c)

    20. Which factor does NOT directly affect population growth?
      (a) Birth rate
      (b) Death rate
      (c) Migration
      (d) Rainfall
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion.

    2. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state.

    3. Sikkim has the least population among states.

    4. Population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq km.

    5. The highest density state is Bihar.

    6. The lowest density state is Arunachal Pradesh.

    7. First complete census in India was held in 1881.

    8. Absolute increase is the number of people added in a decade.

    9. Growth rate is measured in percent per annum.

    10. The National Population Policy was adopted in 2000.

  • Chapter 5: Natural Vegetation and Wildlife, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:

    (i) To which type of vegetation does rubber belong?
    (a) Tundra
    (b) Tidal
    (c) Himalayan
    (d) Tropical Evergreen
    Answer: (d) Tropical Evergreen

    (ii) Cinchona trees are found in areas of rainfall more than:
    (a) 100 cm
    (b) 50 cm
    (c) 70 cm
    (d) Less than 50 cm
    Answer: (a) 100 cm

    (iii) In which state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
    (a) Punjab
    (b) Delhi
    (c) Odisha
    (d) West Bengal
    Answer: (c) Odisha

    (iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves is not in the world network?
    (a) Manas
    (b) Nilgiri
    (c) Gulf of Mannar
    (d) Panna
    Answer: (d) Panna

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.
    → A protected area where flora, fauna, and ecosystems are conserved. Examples: Nanda Devi, Nilgiri.

    (ii) Name two animals found in tropical and montane vegetation.
    → Tropical: Elephant, tiger. Montane: Yak, snow leopard.

    Q3. Distinguish between:

    (i) Flora and Fauna

    • Flora: Plants of a region.

    • Fauna: Animals of a region.

    (ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests

    • Evergreen: Found in >200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves at different times, always green.

    • Deciduous: Found in 70–200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves in dry summer, dominant in India.

    Q4. Types of vegetation in India; describe vegetation of high altitudes.
    → Five types: Tropical evergreen, tropical deciduous, thorny forests, montane forests, mangroves.

    • High altitudes (Montane forests): Vegetation changes with altitude. Up to 2000 m: broadleaf trees (oak, chestnut). Between 1500–3000 m: conifers (pine, deodar, cedar). Above 3600 m: alpine grasslands and shrubs, merging into tundra with mosses and lichens.

    Q5. Why are some plants and animals endangered in India?
    → Hunting, deforestation, pollution, industrialisation, expansion of agriculture, and introduction of alien species have led to habitat loss. Overexploitation disturbs ecosystems, making many species endangered or extinct.

    Q6. Why does India have a rich heritage of flora and fauna?
    → Due to varied relief (mountains, plateaus, coasts), different soils, climatic diversity, monsoon influence, and long evolutionary history. Together these factors give India one of the richest biodiversities in the world.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the major types of vegetation in India.
    India has five major vegetation types. Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in areas with over 200 cm rainfall, such as Western Ghats and Andamans, with trees like ebony and mahogany. Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread, found in 70–200 cm rainfall zones, with teak, sal, and shisham. Tropical Thorn Forests grow in areas with less than 70 cm rainfall, such as Rajasthan, with cacti and acacia. Montane Forests change with altitude: oak and chestnut up to 2000 m, conifers up to 3000 m, and alpine vegetation above. Mangrove Forests are found in coastal deltas, with trees like sundari. This variety makes India’s vegetation diverse and rich.

    Q2. Explain the importance of forests and wildlife for human beings.
    Forests and wildlife are vital for ecological balance and human survival. Forests provide oxygen, purify air, regulate climate, prevent soil erosion, and conserve water. They are also a source of timber, fuel, fodder, and medicinal plants. Wildlife maintains the food chain, supports pollination, and enriches biodiversity. Animals like cows, buffaloes, and camels provide milk, draught power, and transport. Fish and birds provide food, while insects help pollinate crops. Loss of forests and wildlife disturbs ecosystems, causing floods, droughts, and climate change. Thus, their conservation is essential for present and future generations.

    Q3. Discuss the Montane forests and their fauna.
    Montane forests develop in mountainous regions where temperature decreases with altitude. Between 1000–2000 m, wet temperate broadleaf trees like oak and chestnut grow. Between 1500–3000 m, coniferous forests with pine, cedar, and deodar dominate. Above 3600 m, alpine vegetation with shrubs, grasses, mosses, and lichens is found. These zones are also grazing grounds for nomads like Gujjars. Fauna here include snow leopard, yak, Tibetan antelope, red panda, ibex, and wild sheep, adapted to cold climates. This gradual change from tropical to tundra vegetation makes montane forests unique.

    Q4. What measures has India taken to conserve flora and fauna?
    India has implemented several conservation measures. The Wildlife Protection Act (1972) created National Parks, Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves. Today, there are 106 National Parks and 573 sanctuaries. Projects like Project Tiger, Project Rhino, and Project Elephant protect specific species. India has 18 biosphere reserves, 12 of which are in UNESCO’s world network (e.g., Sundarbans, Nanda Devi). Botanical gardens receive support, and awareness campaigns encourage afforestation and wildlife protection. Such measures aim to protect endangered species, restore ecosystems, and conserve biodiversity for sustainable development.

    Q5. Why is biodiversity conservation necessary?
    Biodiversity conservation is necessary because every species plays a role in ecosystems. Plants provide food, oxygen, and medicine. Animals maintain ecological balance by controlling populations of other species and aiding pollination. Humans depend on biodiversity for agriculture, resources, and livelihood. Loss of species causes imbalance, leading to floods, droughts, and climate change. India’s 1,300 endangered plants and many threatened animals show urgent need for conservation. Protecting biodiversity ensures food security, ecological stability, and sustainable development for future generations.

    MCQs

    1. Natural vegetation refers to:
      (a) Cultivated plants
      (b) Virgin plants growing naturally
      (c) Botanical gardens
      (d) Crops and orchards
      Answer: (b)

    2. Flora means:
      (a) Animal species
      (b) Plant species
      (c) Soil type
      (d) Climate
      Answer: (b)

    3. Fauna means:
      (a) Animals of a region
      (b) Trees of a region
      (c) Rivers of a region
      (d) Minerals of a region
      Answer: (a)

    4. Evergreen forests are found in rainfall above:
      (a) 70 cm
      (b) 100 cm
      (c) 200 cm
      (d) 50 cm
      Answer: (c)

    5. Teak is dominant in:
      (a) Evergreen forests
      (b) Thorn forests
      (c) Moist deciduous forests
      (d) Mangroves
      Answer: (c)

    6. Dry deciduous forests found in:
      (a) 200–100 cm rainfall
      (b) 70–200 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–70 cm rainfall
      (d) <50 cm rainfall
      Answer: (c)

    7. Thorn forests grow in:
      (a) >200 cm rainfall
      (b) <70 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–200 cm rainfall
      (d) Coastal areas
      Answer: (b)

    8. Sundari tree is found in:
      (a) Western Ghats
      (b) Ganga delta
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    9. Largest mangrove forest in India:
      (a) Malabar Coast
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Andamans
      Answer: (b)

    10. Royal Bengal Tiger found in:
      (a) Gir Forest
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Nilgiris
      Answer: (b)

    11. Asiatic lion found in:
      (a) Kaziranga
      (b) Gir Forest
      (c) Sundarbans
      (d) Periyar
      Answer: (b)

    12. One-horned rhinoceros found in:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Assam
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    13. India’s only active volcano:
      (a) Narcondam
      (b) Barren Island
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Car Nicobar
      Answer: (b)

    14. “Project Tiger” launched in:
      (a) 1962
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1980
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)

    15. Number of National Parks in India (approx):
      (a) 106
      (b) 573
      (c) 28
      (d) 18
      Answer: (a)

    16. Medicinal plant for blood pressure:
      (a) Neem
      (b) Sarpagandha
      (c) Arjun
      (d) Tulsi
      Answer: (b)

    17. Biosphere reserves in UNESCO list:
      (a) 5
      (b) 8
      (c) 12
      (d) 18
      Answer: (c)

    18. Migratory bird “Siberian Crane” visits:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Rann of Kachchh
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Arunachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    19. Cold desert biosphere reserve is in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Ladakh
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Himachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    20. Wildlife Protection Act passed in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1982
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Virgin vegetation left undisturbed is called natural vegetation.

    2. Plants of a region are called flora.

    3. Animals of a region are called fauna.

    4. India has about 47,000 plant species.

    5. Tropical Evergreen forests remain green throughout the year.

    6. The most widespread forests in India are tropical deciduous.

    7. The only home of Asiatic lions is Gir forest in Gujarat.

    8. One-horned rhinoceros lives in Assam and West Bengal.

    9. The Sundarbans mangroves are famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    10. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in 1972.

  • Chapter 4: Climate, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the correct answer:

    (i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
    (a) Silchar
    (b) Mawsynram
    (c) Cherrapunji
    (d) Guwahati
    Answer: (b) Mawsynram

    (ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
    (a) Kaal Baisakhi
    (b) Loo
    (c) Trade Winds
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) Loo

    (iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
    (a) Early May
    (b) Early July
    (c) Early June
    (d) Early August
    Answer: (c) Early June

    (iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
    (a) Warm days and warm nights
    (b) Warm days and cold nights
    (c) Cool days and cold nights
    (d) Cold days and warm nights
    Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Controls affecting climate of India → Latitude, altitude, pressure & winds, distance from sea, ocean currents, relief.

    (ii) Why monsoon type of climate? → Seasonal reversal of winds; India’s unique location, Himalayas blocking cold winds, ITCZ shifts.

    (iii) Highest diurnal range of temperature? → Thar Desert (hot days, cold nights) because of arid conditions.

    (iv) Which winds bring rainfall along Malabar coast? → South-West Monsoon winds.

    (v) Define monsoon. What is “break” in monsoon? → Monsoon = seasonal reversal of winds. Break = wet/dry spells during rainy season.

    (vi) Why monsoon as unifying bond? → Despite diversity, agriculture, festivals, life, economy revolve around rains across India.

    Q3. Why rainfall decreases east to west in Northern India?
    → Monsoon winds from Bay of Bengal shed most moisture in east; progressively less as they move westward.

    Q4. Give reasons:

    (i) Seasonal reversal of winds → Differential heating of land and sea, ITCZ shift.
    (ii) Rainfall concentrated in few months → Southwest monsoon dominates June–Sept.
    (iii) Tamil Nadu coast gets winter rain → Retreating monsoon + NE monsoon winds.
    (iv) Eastern coast deltas struck by cyclones → Low-pressure systems from Bay of Bengal.
    (v) Rajasthan, Gujarat, leeward Ghats drought-prone → Located in rain shadow / far from monsoon path.

    Q5. Regional variations in climate of India:

    • Jaisalmer: hot desert, <10 cm rain.

    • Shillong: heavy rain (400+ cm).

    • Thiruvananthapuram: equable, coastal.

    • Drass/Leh: extreme cold.

    • Gujarat, MP: hot summers.

    Q6. Cold weather season conditions:

    • Nov–Feb. Temp falls, clear skies, cool days, cold nights.

    • NE trade winds prevail.

    • Western disturbances cause winter rain in north, snowfall in Himalayas.

    • “Mahawat” rain important for rabi crops.

    Q7. Characteristics & effects of monsoon rainfall:

    • Seasonal reversal, June–Sept.

    • Irregular, with breaks.

    • Uneven spatial distribution.

    • Excess = floods, deficit = droughts.

    • Vital for agriculture, economy, festivals.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the factors affecting India’s climate.
    Answer: Latitude (Tropic of Cancer divides), Altitude (Himalayas vs coast), Pressure & Winds (monsoon system), Distance from sea (continentality), Ocean currents (warming/cooling), Relief (rain shadow, windward rainfall).

    Q2. Describe the four seasons of India.
    Answer:

    • Winter (Nov–Feb) – Cold, NE monsoon, western disturbances.

    • Summer (Mar–May) – High temp, loo, dust storms, mango showers.

    • Advancing Monsoon (Jun–Sept) – SW monsoon, heavy rain, floods.

    • Retreating Monsoon (Oct–Nov) – Monsoon withdrawal, cyclones in east coast, October heat.

    Q3. “Monsoon is a unifying bond.” Explain.
    Answer: Despite diverse climates, agriculture, food habits, festivals, crops, river systems, economy—all revolve around monsoons. They bind India by setting agricultural calendar.

    Q4. Discuss regional variations in temperature & rainfall in India with examples.
    Answer: Rajasthan 50°C vs Drass –45°C; Thar diurnal variation vs Kerala equable climate; Mawsynram 400 cm vs Jaisalmer <10 cm; Tamil Nadu winter rain vs Punjab winter rain (western disturbances).

    Q5. Characteristics & significance of monsoon rainfall.
    Answer: Monsoon rainfall is seasonal, irregular, uncertain, unevenly distributed. It sustains Indian agriculture, hydroelectricity, transport, biodiversity, and festivals, but also causes floods and droughts.

    MCQs

    1. Climate refers to weather conditions over:
      (a) A short period
      (b) A long period (30+ years)
      (c) One week
      (d) A day
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
      (a) Middle of India
      (b) Northernmost tip
      (c) Southernmost tip
      (d) Only coastal areas
      Answer: (a)

    3. Cold winds from Central Asia don’t reach India because:
      (a) Deserts block them
      (b) Himalayas block them
      (c) Monsoon winds stop them
      (d) ITCZ shifts
      Answer: (b)

    4. Seasonal reversal of wind is called:
      (a) Westerlies
      (b) Trade winds
      (c) Monsoon
      (d) Cyclone
      Answer: (c)

    5. The “loo” is a:
      (a) Winter wind
      (b) Cold breeze
      (c) Hot, dry wind in summer
      (d) Sea breeze
      Answer: (c)

    6. Kaal Baisakhi occurs in:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) West Bengal
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (b)

    7. Mango showers occur in:
      (a) Kerala & Karnataka
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Punjab
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (a)

    8. Retreating monsoon occurs in:
      (a) June–Sept
      (b) Oct–Nov
      (c) Mar–May
      (d) Dec–Jan
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tamil Nadu gets rainfall in winter due to:
      (a) Western disturbances
      (b) Retreating NE monsoon
      (c) Cyclones only
      (d) Local thunderstorms
      Answer: (b)

    10. Western disturbances bring rain to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu coast
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Northern plains in winter
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (c)

    11. Mawsynram is in:
      (a) Meghalaya
      (b) Mizoram
      (c) Tripura
      (d) Assam
      Answer: (a)

    12. Monsoon enters India first at:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Tamil Nadu
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (a)

    13. October heat refers to:
      (a) Very hot May–June winds
      (b) Oppressive weather in Oct after rains
      (c) Heat waves in March
      (d) Cyclone season
      Answer: (b)

    14. Break in monsoon means:
      (a) Monsoon ends
      (b) Monsoon delayed
      (c) Wet and dry spells during rains
      (d) No rain for a year
      Answer: (c)

    15. The region with lowest rainfall in India:
      (a) Western Rajasthan & Leh
      (b) Assam
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (a)

    16. Highest diurnal temperature range in India:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Andaman & Nicobar
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (c)

    17. Rainfall decreases from east to west because:
      (a) Himalayas block it
      (b) Winds lose moisture westwards
      (c) Ocean currents deflect
      (d) Cyclones push rain eastwards
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which is NOT a control of climate?
      (a) Latitude
      (b) Altitude
      (c) Distance from moon
      (d) Relief
      Answer: (c)

    19. Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall because:
      (a) Leeward side effect
      (b) Orographic rainfall on windward side
      (c) Retreating monsoon
      (d) Winter rains
      Answer: (b)

    20. Cyclones in retreating monsoon often hit:
      (a) Gujarat coast
      (b) Godavari–Krishna–Kaveri deltas
      (c) Punjab plains
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Climate refers to average conditions over 30+ years.

    2. The word monsoon comes from Arabic word ‘mausim’ meaning season.

    3. Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia.

    4. The hot, dry summer winds in north India are called loo.

    5. Local thunderstorms in Bengal are called Kaal Baisakhi.

    6. Pre-monsoon showers in south India are called mango showers.

    7. The wettest place in the world is Mawsynram.

    8. The retreating monsoon occurs in October–November.

    9. Winter rains in north India are caused by western disturbances.

    10. Monsoon is called a unifying bond of India.

  • Chapter 2: Physical Features of India, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:
    (i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides → Peninsula (c)
    (ii) Eastern mountain ranges forming boundary with Myanmar → Purvachal (c)
    (iii) Western coastal strip, south of Goa → Kannad (c)
    (iv) Highest peak in the Eastern Ghats → Mahendragiri (c)

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is the bhabar?
    → A narrow belt (8–16 km wide) of pebbles lying parallel to the Shiwaliks, where rivers disappear into permeable soil.

    (ii) Three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south?
    → Himadri (Great Himalayas), Himachal (Lesser Himalayas), Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).

    (iii) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and Vindhyan ranges?
    → The Malwa Plateau.

    (iv) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.

    Q3. Distinguish between:

    (i) Bhangar and Khadar

    • Bhangar: Older alluvium, terrace-like, less fertile, contains kankar (lime nodules).

    • Khadar: Newer alluvium, renewed annually by floods, very fertile.

    (ii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats

    • Western Ghats: Continuous, higher (900–1600 m), cause orographic rainfall, include Anai Mudi and Doda Betta.

    • Eastern Ghats: Discontinuous, lower (600 m), cut by rivers into Bay of Bengal, include Mahendragiri.

    Q4. Major physiographic divisions of India. Contrast Himalayas & Peninsular Plateau.
    → Six divisions: Himalayas, Northern Plains, Peninsular Plateau, Indian Desert, Coastal Plains, Islands.

    • Himalayas: Young fold mountains, rugged, high peaks, glaciers.

    • Peninsular Plateau: Oldest landmass, igneous & metamorphic rocks, broad valleys, rich in minerals.

    Q5. Account of Northern Plains.
    → Formed by alluvium of Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra. Area: 7 lakh sq. km, length 2400 km, width 240–320 km. Fertile soils, flat land, densely populated. Divisions: Punjab Plains, Ganga Plains, Brahmaputra Plains. Relief features: Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar, Khadar. Known as “Granary of India.”

    Q6. Short notes:

    (i) Indian Desert: West of Aravalis, sandy plain, dunes, arid climate, <150 mm rainfall, sparse vegetation, only Luni river.
    (ii) Central Highlands: North of Narmada, includes Malwa Plateau, Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand, Chotanagpur. Rivers flow SW–NE.
    (iii) Island Groups: Lakshadweep (coral, 32 sq. km, HQ Kavaratti) and Andaman & Nicobar (volcanic, equatorial climate, biodiversity, strategic location).

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the Himalayas in detail.
    → Himalayas stretch 2400 km from Indus to Brahmaputra, width 150–400 km. Divided into Himadri (loftiest, perennially snow-bound), Himachal (valleys, hill stations), Shiwaliks (duns, sediments). Regional divisions: Punjab, Kumaon, Nepal, Assam Himalayas. Eastern extension = Purvachal (Patkai, Naga, Manipur, Mizo Hills).

    Q2. Discuss the importance of Northern Plains for India.
    → Alluvial, fertile, agriculture-based, supports high population. Rivers provide irrigation, transport, hydroelectricity. Flat land allows industrialisation and urbanisation. Historically, cradle of civilisation. Known as “food bowl” of India.

    Q3. Explain physiographic divisions of the Peninsular Plateau.
    → Two main parts: Central Highlands (Malwa, Bundelkhand, Baghelkhand, Chotanagpur) and Deccan Plateau (triangular, slopes eastwards, flanked by Ghats). Meghalaya Plateau (Garo, Khasi, Jaintia) part of NE extension. Black soil (Deccan Trap) from volcanic origin. Rich in minerals, crucial for industries.

    Q4. Describe Coastal Plains of India.
    → Narrow coastal strips flanking plateau.

    • Western Coast: Narrow, divided into Konkan (Mumbai–Goa), Kannad Plain, Malabar Coast.

    • Eastern Coast: Wide, level, divided into Northern Circar and Coromandel. Formed deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri. Important ports, fishing, Chilika Lake (saltwater lagoon).

    Q5. Discuss the Islands of India.
    → Lakshadweep (Arabian Sea): coral origin, 36 islands, small area, Kavaratti HQ. Rich marine life.
    Andaman & Nicobar (Bay of Bengal): volcanic origin, larger and numerous, divided into two groups. Equatorial climate, biodiversity, strategic naval location. India’s only active volcano (Barren Island).

    MCQs

    1. India’s physical features divided into ___ divisions.
      (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
      Answer: (b) 6

    2. Himalayas length is:
      (a) 1500 km (b) 2400 km (c) 2000 km (d) 2500 km
      Answer: (b)

    3. Himalayas average width in Arunachal Pradesh:
      (a) 150 km (b) 200 km (c) 250 km (d) 400 km
      Answer: (a)

    4. Highest peak in India:
      (a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanda Devi (d) Kamet
      Answer: (b)

    5. Longitudinal valleys between Lesser Himalaya & Shiwaliks:
      (a) Doabs (b) Duns (c) Khadar (d) Terai
      Answer: (b)

    6. Largest inhabited riverine island:
      (a) Sriharikota (b) Majuli (c) Lakshadweep (d) Pitti
      Answer: (b)

    7. “Doab” means:
      (a) Two mountains (b) Two rivers (c) Two waters (d) Two valleys
      Answer: (c)

    8. Old alluvium plain =
      (a) Khadar (b) Bhangar (c) Terai (d) Bhabar
      Answer: (b)

    9. Black soil of Deccan =
      (a) Alluvium (b) Volcanic origin (c) Marine (d) Desert soil
      Answer: (b)

    10. Highest peak in Eastern Ghats:
      (a) Anai Mudi (b) Doda Betta (c) Mahendragiri (d) Shevroy
      Answer: (c)

    11. Indian desert receives rainfall below:
      (a) 250 mm (b) 200 mm (c) 150 mm (d) 100 mm
      Answer: (c)

    12. Only large river of desert:
      (a) Ghaggar (b) Sabarmati (c) Luni (d) Chambal
      Answer: (c)

    13. Largest saltwater lake in India:
      (a) Sambhar (b) Chilika (c) Pulicat (d) Wular
      Answer: (b)

    14. Coral islands of India:
      (a) Andaman (b) Nicobar (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives
      Answer: (c)

    15. India’s only active volcano:
      (a) Popa (b) Krakatoa (c) Barren Island (d) Narcondam
      Answer: (c)

    16. Konkan coast lies between:
      (a) Mumbai–Goa (b) Goa–Kerala (c) Gujarat–Goa (d) Kerala–TN
      Answer: (a)

    17. Khasi, Garo, Jaintia Hills belong to:
      (a) Deccan Plateau (b) Meghalaya Plateau (c) Aravali Hills (d) Vindhya Hills
      Answer: (b)

    18. Chotanagpur plateau rich in:
      (a) Agriculture (b) Minerals (c) Desert (d) Fisheries
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which desert lies west of Aravallis?
      (a) Thar (b) Sahara (c) Kalahari (d) Gobi
      Answer: (a)

    20. Kavaratti is capital of:
      (a) Andaman (b) Lakshadweep (c) Nicobar (d) Maldives
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Himalayas are divided into Himadri, Himachal, Shiwaliks.

    2. The Northern Plains are formed by Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra rivers.

    3. Older alluvium is called Bhangar, newer alluvium is Khadar.

    4. The Deccan Plateau is of volcanic origin.

    5. The Western Ghats cause orographic rainfall.

    6. The Indian Desert lies to the west of Aravallis.

    7. The only large river of desert is the Luni.

    8. The eastern coastal strip is called Northern Circar & Coromandel.

    9. India’s largest saltwater lake is Chilika.

    10. India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island.

  • Chapter 1: India – Size and Location, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
    (a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tripura
    Answer: (b) Odisha

    Q2. The easternmost longitude of India is:
    (a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E
    Answer: (a) 97°25′E

    Q3. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
    (a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
    Answer: (c) Nepal

    Q4. If you visit Kavaratti, which Union Territory will you go to?
    (a) Puducherry (b) Lakshadweep (c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Daman and Diu
    Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

    Q5. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
    (a) Bhutan (b) Tajikistan (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
    Answer: (b) Tajikistan

    Q6. Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.

    Q7. Name the countries which are larger than India.
    → Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia.

    Q8. Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
    → Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

    Q9. Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
    → Sri Lanka and Maldives.

    Q10. Why does the sun rise two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh than Gujarat but watches show the same time?
    → Because of India’s great longitudinal extent (30°). To avoid confusion, 82°30′E (near Mirzapur, UP) is taken as the Standard Meridian, and one uniform IST is followed.

    Q11. Why is India’s central location at the head of the Indian Ocean significant?
    → It gives India a strategic advantage for trade and cultural exchange with West Asia, Africa, and Europe (from west coast) and with Southeast Asia and East Asia (from east coast). India’s location makes it a central hub of ocean routes.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the size and extent of India.
    Answer: India has an area of 3.28 million sq. km, about 2.4% of world’s land area, making it the seventh largest country. The mainland stretches between latitudes 8°4′N and 37°6′N and longitudes 68°7′E and 97°25′E. Its north-south extent is 3,214 km and east-west extent is 2,933 km. India has a land boundary of 15,200 km and coastline of 7,516.6 km. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides the country into almost two halves.

    Q2. Describe India’s neighbours and its political boundaries.
    Answer: India shares boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan (northwest), China, Nepal, Bhutan (north), and Bangladesh and Myanmar (east). Across the sea, India’s neighbours are Sri Lanka and Maldives. In South Asia, India occupies a central position with 28 states and 8 Union Territories. Its vast boundary connects it politically, economically, and culturally with neighbouring countries.

    Q3. How has India’s central location helped in establishing cultural and trade contacts?
    Answer: India’s location between East and West Asia made it a crossroads of trade and culture. Ancient land routes across mountain passes helped exchange of goods, like spices, muslin, and ideas like numerals and the decimal system. Sea routes via the Indian Ocean linked India with Southeast Asia, Africa, and Europe. India influenced and absorbed cultures such as Greek sculpture and West Asian architectural styles, making it a centre of interaction.

    Q4. Discuss the importance of Standard Meridian of India.
    Answer: India’s vast longitudinal spread (30°) causes time differences of about 2 hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. To avoid confusion, 82°30′E longitude (through Mirzapur, UP) is chosen as the Standard Meridian. It ensures uniformity of time across India and is called Indian Standard Time (IST). Without it, time differences would disrupt communication, travel, and administration.

    Q5. Explain how India’s geographical features influence its contacts with the world.
    Answer: The Himalayas in the north provide a natural barrier but also mountain passes for ancient contacts. The long coastline facilitated maritime trade. India’s peninsular location makes it project into the Indian Ocean, linking West Asia, Africa, and Europe with Southeast Asia and East Asia. This strategic location allowed India to play a major role in global trade, culture, and history.

    MCQs

    1. India’s total area is:
      (a) 2.4 million sq. km (b) 3.28 million sq. km (c) 4.5 million sq. km (d) 5.2 million sq. km
      Answer: (b)

    2. India is the ___ largest country in the world.
      (a) 5th (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
      Answer: (c)

    3. India accounts for about ___ of world’s land area.
      (a) 1.8% (b) 2.4% (c) 3.2% (d) 4%
      Answer: (b)

    4. India’s latitudinal extent is:
      (a) 8°4′N to 37°6′N (b) 6°4′N to 36°6′N (c) 10°N to 38°N (d) 9°N to 37°N
      Answer: (a)

    5. India’s longitudinal extent is:
      (a) 68°7′E to 97°25′E (b) 65°E to 95°E (c) 70°E to 98°E (d) 60°E to 95°E
      Answer: (a)

    6. India’s north-south extent is about:
      (a) 2,933 km (b) 3,214 km (c) 2,500 km (d) 3,500 km
      Answer: (b)

    7. India’s east-west extent is about:
      (a) 2,500 km (b) 3,000 km (c) 2,933 km (d) 3,214 km
      Answer: (c)

    8. India’s land boundary length:
      (a) 12,000 km (b) 13,500 km (c) 15,200 km (d) 16,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    9. India’s coastline length:
      (a) 5,216 km (b) 6,500 km (c) 7,516.6 km (d) 8,200 km
      Answer: (c)

    10. Southernmost point of India is:
      (a) Kanyakumari (b) Indira Point (c) Minicoy (d) Palk Strait
      Answer: (b)

    11. Indira Point submerged during:
      (a) Cyclone 1999 (b) Tsunami 2004 (c) Flood 2013 (d) Earthquake 2015
      Answer: (b)

    12. India’s Standard Meridian is:
      (a) 82°30′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 77°6′E
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which city does Standard Meridian pass through?
      (a) Delhi (b) Allahabad (c) Mirzapur (d) Lucknow
      Answer: (c)

    14. Which sea lies west of India?
      (a) Bay of Bengal (b) Arabian Sea (c) Red Sea (d) Caspian Sea
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which sea lies east of India?
      (a) Mediterranean (b) Caspian (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (c)

    16. Sri Lanka is separated from India by:
      (a) Gulf of Khambhat (b) Palk Strait (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Both b & c
      Answer: (d)

    17. Maldives lie to the:
      (a) South of Lakshadweep (b) East of Andamans (c) North of Kanyakumari (d) West of Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    18. India’s central location helped spread:
      (a) Greek numerals (b) Indian numerals & decimal system (c) Roman architecture (d) Chinese language
      Answer: (b)

    19. The Suez Canal reduced India–Europe distance by:
      (a) 5,000 km (b) 6,000 km (c) 7,000 km (d) 8,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    20. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
      (a) 28 states, 8 UTs (b) 29 states, 7 UTs (c) 27 states, 9 UTs (d) 30 states, 6 UTs
      Answer: (a)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s total area is 3.28 million sq. km.

    2. India is the 7th largest country in the world.

    3. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides India into two halves.

    4. The southernmost point of India is Indira Point.

    5. Indira Point submerged in 2004 Tsunami.

    6. India’s north-south extent is 3,214 km.

    7. India’s east-west extent is 2,933 km.

    8. The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′E.

    9. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar.

    10. India shares land boundaries with 7 countries.

  • Chapter 4: Working of Institutions, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

    • (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister ❌

    • (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has majority in Lok Sabha ❌

    • (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both Houses ✅

    • (d) Nominate leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers ❌

    Q2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

    • (a) District Collector ❌

    • (b) Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs ❌

    • (c) Home Minister ✅

    • (d) Director General of Police ❌

    Q3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
    (a) Every law passed by Parliament needs approval of Supreme Court ❌ (False)
    (b) Judiciary can strike down a law against the Constitution ✅ (True)
    (c) Judiciary is independent of Executive ✅ (True)
    (d) Any citizen can approach courts if rights are violated ✅ (True)
    Answer: (a) is false.

    Q4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
    (a) Supreme Court ❌
    (b) President ❌
    (c) Prime Minister ❌
    (d) Parliament ✅

    Q5. Match the ministry with the news:

    • (a) Increase jute exports → (iv) Ministry of Commerce & Industry

    • (b) Telephone services in rural areas → (v) Ministry of Communications & IT

    • (c) Price of rice/wheat in PDS ↓ → (ii) Ministry of Agriculture, Food & Public Distribution

    • (d) Pulse polio campaign → (iii) Ministry of Health

    • (e) Allowances of soldiers ↑ → (i) Ministry of Defence

    Q6. Institutions and powers:
    a) Allocation of money for development → Parliament
    b) Committee on stock exchange law → Parliament
    c) Dispute between two state governments → Supreme Court
    d) Relief for earthquake victims → Political Executive (Government/Ministry)

    Q7. Why is the Prime Minister not directly elected by people?
    Answer:

    • (a) is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, only leader of majority in Lok Sabha becomes PM.

    • Direct election would be costly and may cause conflict between PM and Parliament.

    • Lok Sabha can remove PM before term ends, so accountability is ensured.

    Q8. Film showing CM ruling for one day:
    Imran → Wrong: one-man rule is dangerous.
    Rizwan → Correct: Personal rule without institutions is harmful.
    Shankar → Also correct: No minister can change everything in one day.

    Q9. Mock Parliament choice – Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?
    Answer: Lok Sabha, because it has greater powers in money matters, controls Council of Ministers, and can dismiss government.

    Q10. Reservation order – students’ views:

    • Srinivas: Wrong, judiciary is independent even if it agreed.

    • Anjaiah: Correct, judiciary showed independence and directed modification.

    • Vijaya: Also reasonable, judiciary acted as mediator.
      Best Answer: Anjaiah’s view is most accurate.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of Parliament in a democracy.
    Answer:
    Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It makes, changes, and abolishes laws. It controls the executive through questions, debates, and no-confidence motions. It controls finances by approving budgets. It is also the highest forum for discussion and debate on national issues. Lok Sabha, being directly elected, holds more power than Rajya Sabha, especially in money matters and government accountability. Parliament thus represents the voice of the people.

    Q2. What are the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India?
    Answer:
    The PM is head of government and leader of majority party in Lok Sabha. He chairs Cabinet meetings, coordinates ministries, settles disputes, and supervises work of ministers. He distributes portfolios and can dismiss ministers. All ministers work under his leadership. The PM represents India internationally and influences party and parliamentary affairs. His power depends on majority strength, coalition politics, and his personality.

    Q3. Distinguish between the political executive and the permanent executive. Why is political executive more powerful?
    Answer:

    • Political executive → Elected representatives like PM, ministers; hold office for limited period.

    • Permanent executive → Civil servants/bureaucrats; work for long term irrespective of government.
      Civil servants have expertise, but ministers take final decisions because they are accountable to people. Ministers reflect the will of the people in democracy, hence they are more powerful.

    Q4. Describe the composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
    Answer:
    The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body. It settles disputes between citizens, between citizens and government, and between governments. It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It has the power of judicial review – it can strike down unconstitutional laws. It protects fundamental rights and allows PILs. Judges are appointed by President in consultation with judiciary, and can be removed only by impeachment. Its independence makes it guardian of the Constitution.

    Q5. Why are political institutions necessary in a democracy?
    Answer:
    Institutions like Parliament, Executive, and Judiciary ensure smooth governance. They divide responsibilities: Parliament makes laws, Executive implements them, Judiciary interprets and checks them. Institutions prevent misuse of power and ensure accountability. They provide space for debate and consultation, making decisions more democratic. Though institutions cause delays, they protect democracy by preventing hasty and unfair decisions.

    MCQs

    1. Which body makes laws in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PM
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who is head of state in India?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Speaker (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    3. Who is head of government in India?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) CJI (d) Governor
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who chairs Cabinet meetings?
      (a) President (b) PM (c) Speaker (d) Vice President
      Answer: (b)

    5. Which House controls money matters?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both equally (d) President
      Answer: (a)

    6. Which House is permanent?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Who is Supreme Commander of defence forces?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Defence Minister (d) Army Chief
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who appoints judges of Supreme Court?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament (d) CJI alone
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tenure of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (b)

    10. Tenure of Rajya Sabha members:
      (a) 4 yrs (b) 5 yrs (c) 6 yrs (d) 7 yrs
      Answer: (c)

    11. Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) President (c) PM (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    12. Who heads Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) PM (c) Vice President (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    13. Which body can strike down unconstitutional laws?
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    14. Judicial review is power of:
      (a) President (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    15. Who makes final decisions in ministries?
      (a) Civil servants (b) Ministers (c) Secretaries (d) Courts
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which institution ensures accountability of Executive?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Judiciary (d) Election Commission
      Answer: (a)

    17. PM is appointed by:
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who can remove Supreme Court judges?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament via impeachment (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (c)

    19. “Guardian of Constitution” is:
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) PM (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    20. Parliamentary democracy is also called:
      (a) Presidential govt (b) Cabinet govt (c) Federal govt (d) Dictatorship
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Parliament is the supreme law-making body in India.

    2. The President of India is the head of state.

    3. The Prime Minister is the head of government.

    4. Lok Sabha has greater power in money matters.

    5. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.

    6. The President appoints the Prime Minister and judges.

    7. The Supreme Court has power of judicial review.

    8. Political executive is elected, permanent executive is appointed.

    9. Parliament controls finances and approves budgets.

    10. Judiciary protects Fundamental Rights of citizens.

  • Chapter 3: Electoral Politics, 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
    a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government. ✅ True
    b) People select the representative of their choice in an election. ✅ True
    c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary. ❌ False
    d) People can indicate which policies they prefer. ✅ True

    Q2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
    a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. ❌ Not a valid reason.
    b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful. ✅ Valid.
    c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote. ✅ Valid.
    d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict. ✅ Valid.

    Q3. Match the following:

    a) It is necessary to keep the voters’ list up to date → (iv) Some people may have moved away from the area.
    b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that → (i) There is fair representation of all sections.
    c) Everyone has one and only one vote so that → (ii) Everyone has equal opportunity to elect.
    d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because → (iii) All candidates must have a fair chance.

    Q4. List all election-related activities in sequence.

    1. Making of voters’ list

    2. Announcing election schedule

    3. Filing nominations

    4. Releasing election manifestos

    5. Election campaign

    6. Casting of votes

    7. Counting of votes

    8. Declaration of results

    9. Ordering of repoll (if required)

    Q5. Suppose Surekha is an election officer. What should she focus on?
    a) Election campaign – Ensure parties follow Model Code of Conduct, no bribery or misuse of power.
    b) Polling day – Ensure free and fair voting, no rigging or intimidation, secrecy of ballot maintained.
    c) Counting day – Ensure accurate and transparent counting in presence of agents.

    Q6. Should the US have reservations in Congress?
    Answer: Yes, because Blacks and Hispanics are underrepresented compared to their population. A system of reservation would ensure inclusiveness and fair representation, like India’s SC/ST reservations.

    Q7. Can we draw these conclusions?
    a) ECI does not have enough powers → ❌ Wrong, it has very wide powers.
    b) High participation in elections → ✅ True, turnout in India is higher than many countries.
    c) Easy for ruling party to win → ❌ Wrong, ruling parties often lose.
    d) Many reforms are needed → ✅ True, issues like money power, criminalisation remain.

    Q8. Chinappa and Satbir were disqualified. Does it go against democracy?
    → No, it supports democracy. People guilty of crimes like dowry torture and untouchability should not contest. It ensures clean politics.

    Q9. Reports of malpractices:
    a) Nigeria – Counting manipulation → Learn from India’s independent EC and transparency.
    b) Fiji – Threats to voters → Learn from India’s law against intimidation.
    c) USA – Different state procedures → Learn from India’s uniform nationwide election system.

    Q10. Malpractices in India:
    a) Minister promising aid → Misuse of government position. Correct: Model Code of Conduct enforcement.
    b) Opposition denied media → Bias in coverage. Correct: Ensure equal access.
    c) Fake names in rolls → Flawed voter list. Correct: Regular updates and verification.
    d) Party hoodlums with guns → Violence. Correct: Strong police and EC monitoring.

    Q11. Correct Ramesh’s misconceptions:
    a) Women always vote as told → ❌ Wrong. Women make independent choices.
    b) Elections by consensus, not competition → ❌ Wrong. Competition ensures accountability.
    c) Only graduates should contest → ❌ Wrong. Democracy allows equal opportunity.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional body that conducts elections. It supervises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and presidential elections. It ensures free and fair elections by preparing voter lists, monitoring campaigns, enforcing the Model Code of Conduct, and preventing misuse of power. It can order repolls, transfer officials, and punish violators. Its independence is protected by the Constitution, making it a strong guardian of democracy.

    Q2. Describe the election process in India step by step.
    Answer (160 words):

    1. Constituencies are demarcated.

    2. Voters’ list is prepared and updated.

    3. Candidates file nominations with security deposits.

    4. Election campaigns are conducted, parties release manifestos.

    5. Polling takes place using EVMs, voters cast votes secretly.

    6. Counting is done under EC supervision.

    7. Results are declared, winners form government.
      This process ensures participation, fairness, and accountability.

    Q3. What are the major challenges of Indian elections?
    Answer (150 words):

    • Use of money power.

    • Criminalisation of politics.

    • Family dominance in parties.

    • Unequal playing field for independents.

    • Misuse of government resources.
      Despite these, Indian elections remain largely free and fair. Reforms like stricter expenditure limits, banning criminals, and more transparency are needed.

    Q4. Why are elections considered essential in a democracy?
    Answer (150 words):
    Elections are the means through which people choose representatives, change governments, and influence policies. They ensure accountability, equality (one person, one vote), and peaceful transfer of power. Without elections, democracy cannot function. They act as a mechanism for people’s consent and provide legitimacy to the government.

    Q5. “Elections in India are both free and fair but face limitations.” Discuss.
    Answer (160 words):
    Indian elections are largely free and fair due to the independent Election Commission, universal franchise, secret ballot, and regular participation. Ruling parties often lose, showing fairness. However, limitations exist: money power, muscle power, fake voters, and lack of choice. Thus, while the system is democratic, reforms are needed to make it fully fair.

    MCQs

    1. Who conducts elections in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Election Commission (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    2. Minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b)

    3. Minimum age to contest elections in India:
      (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30
      Answer: (c)

    4. What is an electoral roll?
      (a) Candidate list (b) Voters’ list (c) Party list (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lok Sabha constituencies in India:
      (a) 500 (b) 543 (c) 550 (d) 552
      Answer: (b)

    6. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for SCs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 100 (d) 90
      Answer: (a)

    7. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for STs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b)

    8. Model Code of Conduct prevents use of:
      (a) Religion, caste (b) Money, bribery (c) Government resources (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    9. Who can order a repoll?
      (a) Government (b) Election Commission (c) High Court (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which voting system is used in India?
      (a) Open ballot (b) Secret ballot (c) Lottery (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    11. When was EVM first used?
      (a) 1977 (b) 1982 (c) 2004 (d) 1999
      Answer: (b) (Kerala, 1982)

    12. A by-election means:
      (a) National election (b) State election (c) Election for one seat due to vacancy (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    13. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Judiciary
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which law caps candidate spending in Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Representation of People Act (b) Election Reform Act (c) Parliament Act (d) None
      Answer: (a)

    15. Election day is when voters:
      (a) Count votes (b) Cast votes (c) Campaign (d) File nomination
      Answer: (b)

    16. Independent candidates are given:
      (a) Party ticket (b) Party symbol (c) EC allotted symbol (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    17. “Garibi Hatao” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1967 (b) 1971 (c) 1977 (d) 1980
      Answer: (b)

    18. “Save Democracy” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1977 (b) 1980 (c) 1984 (d) 1991
      Answer: (a)

    19. Which organisation introduced EPIC (Voter ID)?
      (a) EC (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PMO
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who supervises polling inside booths?
      (a) Police (b) Candidate agents (c) Election officials (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India has 543 Lok Sabha constituencies.

    2. Election Commission of India conducts elections.

    3. Minimum age to contest elections is 25 years.

    4. The voters’ list is also called the electoral roll.

    5. 84 seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for SCs.

    6. 47 seats are reserved for STs.

    7. The ruling party cannot use government resources for campaigning.

    8. EVMs are used for voting in India.

    9. The process of holding elections in one seat due to vacancy is called by-election.

    10. Model Code of Conduct guides election campaigns.

  • Chapter 2: Constitutional Design, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite correctly.
    a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about democracy.
    → Mistake: They were committed to democracy.
    Correct: Leaders were committed to making India a democracy.

    b) Members of the Constituent Assembly held the same views.
    → Mistake: They had diverse opinions.
    Correct: Members had many different views but reached consensus.

    c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.
    → Mistake: Some non-democracies also have constitutions.
    Correct: All democracies have constitutions, but not all countries with constitutions are democratic.

    d) Constitution cannot be amended.
    → Mistake: It can be amended.
    Correct: Constitution can be amended to suit changing needs.

    Q2. Most salient conflict in South Africa’s constitution-making?
    → Conflict between the white minority and the black majority.

    Q3. Which provision is not found in a democratic constitution?
    → (d) Name of the country.

    Q4. Match the leaders:

    • Motilal Nehru → (iv) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

    • B.R. Ambedkar → (iii) Chairman of the Drafting Committee

    • Rajendra Prasad → (i) President of the Constituent Assembly

    • Sarojini Naidu → (ii) Member of the Constituent Assembly

    Q5. Read Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ and answer:
    a) Why “not wholly or in full measure”?
    → Because India had achieved independence, but social and economic challenges remained.

    b) What pledge?
    → To dedicate themselves to service of India, end poverty, ignorance, and inequality.

    c) “The greatest man of our generation”?
    → Mahatma Gandhi.

    Q6. Guiding values – Match:

    • Sovereign → (ii) People have supreme right to make decisions.

    • Republic → (iii) Head of state is elected.

    • Fraternity → (iv) People should live like brothers and sisters.

    • Secular → (i) Government does not favour any religion.

    Q7. Constitution Day celebration report (example):
    On 26 November, our school organised a special assembly. Students read the Preamble aloud. Teachers explained its meaning. Poster-making and essay competitions were held. We pledged to follow constitutional values.

    Q8. Opinions about India’s democracy:
    a) Gift of British → Limited importance, since democracy in India was shaped by freedom struggle.
    b) Freedom struggle → Very important, it rooted democracy in Indian soil.
    c) Leadership → Equally important, as leaders ensured democratic principles.

    Q9. Extract about women (1912 conduct book). Does it reflect constitutional values?
    → No. It goes against constitutional values of equality, dignity, and gender justice.

    Q10. Statements about constitution – True or Not True:
    a) Authority same as other laws → ❌ Not true, Constitution is supreme.
    b) Constitution lays down government organs → ✅ True.
    c) Rights of citizens and limits on power in Constitution → ✅ True.
    d) Constitution is about institutions, not values → ❌ Not true, it is about both.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Why do we need a Constitution?
    Answer: A constitution provides basic rules for governance. It establishes trust among diverse groups, specifies how governments are formed, limits powers of rulers, and guarantees rights of citizens. It also reflects aspirations of people for justice, equality, and liberty. Without a constitution, democracy cannot function smoothly.

    Q2. Explain the circumstances in which the Indian Constitution was made.
    Answer: India’s Constitution was drafted under difficult conditions:

    • Partition violence killed lakhs.

    • Over 500 princely states had to be integrated.

    • Citizens were moving from being subjects to citizens.
      Yet leaders had the advantage of shared ideals from the freedom struggle and prior experience of legislatures under colonial rule. They drew inspiration from global democratic ideals but adapted them to Indian needs.

    Q3. Describe the role of the Constituent Assembly.
    Answer: The Constituent Assembly of India, elected in 1946, had 299 members. It represented diverse social groups, regions, and ideologies. It functioned in a democratic, open, and consensual way. Under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, it debated for 3 years, considered over 2000 amendments, and finally adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949. This ensured its legitimacy.

    Q4. Discuss the guiding values of the Indian Constitution as reflected in the Preamble.
    Answer: The Preamble expresses foundational values:

    • Sovereign – India is free from external control.

    • Socialist – Aim of reducing inequality.

    • Secular – Equal respect to all religions.

    • Democratic – Rule by elected representatives.

    • Republic – Head of state is elected.
      It also ensures justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens. These values guide governance and serve as a standard to judge laws.

    Q5. How did South Africa achieve its democratic constitution?
    Answer: South Africa suffered under apartheid, where the black majority was oppressed. Nelson Mandela and the ANC led protests. Finally, the white regime agreed to majority rule, while blacks assured whites of property rights. A new constitution (1994) granted equal rights to all, ending apartheid. This constitution became a global model of reconciliation, justice, and democracy.

    MCQs

    1. The supreme law of a country is called:
      (a) Legislature (b) Constitution (c) Preamble (d) Parliament
      Answer: (b)

    2. Apartheid was practiced in:
      (a) India (b) USA (c) South Africa (d) China
      Answer: (c)

    3. Nelson Mandela was imprisoned for:
      (a) 15 years (b) 27 years (c) 20 years (d) 30 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. Which party led the anti-apartheid struggle?
      (a) African Unity Party (b) ANC (c) Communist Party of India (d) PAC
      Answer: (b)

    5. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:
      (a) 15 August 1947 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 26 November 1949 (d) 2 October 1950
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
      (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Nehru (d) Patel
      Answer: (b)

    7. President of the Constituent Assembly was:
      (a) Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) Patel (d) Ambedkar
      Answer: (b)

    8. Universal adult franchise means:
      (a) Only men vote (b) Only rich vote (c) All adults vote equally (d) Only educated vote
      Answer: (c)

    9. Indian Constitution was influenced by:
      (a) French Revolution (b) US Bill of Rights (c) British Parliament (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    10. India celebrates Republic Day on:
      (a) 15 Aug (b) 26 Jan (c) 2 Oct (d) 14 Nov
      Answer: (b)

    11. Constitution can be changed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament through amendments (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    12. Preamble reflects:
      (a) Philosophy of Constitution (b) Rules of election (c) Economic policy (d) Budget
      Answer: (a)

    13. “Tryst with Destiny” speech was given by:
      (a) Ambedkar (b) Nehru (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Patel
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which value was added by 42nd Amendment?
      (a) Socialist & Secular (b) Democratic & Republic (c) Sovereign & Equality (d) Justice & Liberty
      Answer: (a)

    15. How many amendments were discussed in Constituent Assembly?
      (a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 2000+ (d) 100
      Answer: (c)

    16. Constitution was adopted on:
      (a) 15 Aug 1947 (b) 26 Nov 1949 (c) 26 Jan 1950 (d) 2 Oct 1947
      Answer: (b)

    17. Who gave the slogan to wipe every tear from every eye?
      (a) Gandhi (b) Nehru (c) Patel (d) Ambedkar
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which right was emphasised in South Africa’s constitution?
      (a) Racial privilege (b) Equal rights for all (c) Dictatorship (d) Censorship
      Answer: (b)

    19. “We, the People of India…” appears in:
      (a) Directive Principles (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Preamble (d) Schedule
      Answer: (c)

    20. Number of members in Indian Constituent Assembly?
      (a) 500 (b) 299 (c) 450 (d) 350
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Apartheid was the system of racial segregation in South Africa.

    2. The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.

    3. It came into effect on 26 January 1950.

    4. The Constituent Assembly had 299 members.

    5. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

    6. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly.

    7. Preamble is called the soul of the Constitution.

    8. The South African struggle was led by the African National Congress.

    9. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic are key words of the Preamble.

    10. India celebrates Republic Day on 26 January every year.

  • Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9th, Political Science

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote. Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years. Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections. Country D: There is no independent Election Commission. Classify them.
    Answer:

    • Country A – Undemocratic (excludes people on religious basis).

    • Country B – Not sure (could be democratic, but repeated wins may hint unfairness).

    • Country C – Democratic (shows ruling party can lose).

    • Country D – Undemocratic (elections not free and fair).

    Q2. Country P: Parliament cannot pass a law about the army without army chief’s consent. Country Q: Parliament cannot pass a law reducing judiciary’s powers. Country R: Leaders cannot sign treaties without neighbouring country’s permission. Country S: Economic decisions are taken only by central bank officials. Classify.
    Answer:

    • Country P – Undemocratic (army controls government).

    • Country Q – Democratic (judiciary’s independence is protected).

    • Country R – Undemocratic (loss of sovereignty).

    • Country S – Not sure (technical experts may decide, but ministers must remain accountable).

    Q3. Which of these is not a good argument for democracy?
    a) People feel free and equal
    b) Democracies resolve conflict better
    c) Democratic government is more accountable
    d) Democracies are more prosperous
    Answer: (d) Democracies are not always more prosperous than others.

    Q4. Separate democratic and undemocratic elements in the statements:
    a) WTO requires laws – Undemocratic; Parliament passes laws – Democratic.
    b) Re-polling ordered – Democratic; Rigging happened – Undemocratic.
    c) Women’s demand for 1/3 seats – Democratic; Only 10% women present – Undemocratic.

    Q5. Which is not a valid reason that famines are less likely in democracy?
    Answer: (d) People are free to believe in any religion. (Religion is unrelated to famine.)

    Q6. Villagers without drinking water used methods to pressure government. Which is not democratic?
    Answer: (d) Paying bribes to officials.

    Q7. Write responses to arguments against democracy:
    a) Army rule is better – Wrong, because armies are not accountable to people.
    b) Rule of majority = ignorant rule – Wrong, democracy respects equality and collective wisdom.
    c) Religious leaders should rule – Wrong, politics mixed with religion excludes others and becomes undemocratic.

    Q8. Are these statements democratic?
    a) Father denies daughter’s opinion – Undemocratic.
    b) Teacher stops student’s questions – Undemocratic.
    c) Employee demands legal working hours – Democratic.

    Q9. A country with elections, but loans dictate policy, only one language used, leaders arrested, and press censored. Is it a democracy?
    Answer: No, because despite elections, freedom, equality, and rights are denied.

    Q10. Write an essay on Democracy and Poverty (based on US & Indian examples).
    Answer (short):
    Democracy allows participation, but poverty often limits it. In the US, wealthier people influence politics more. In India too, the poor struggle to make their voices heard. Yet democracy gives the poor opportunities through elections, protests, and court petitions. Democracy must reduce inequality to be meaningful.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain four major features of democracy with examples.
    Answer:

    1. Elected rulers – Leaders chosen by citizens (India, not Myanmar under military).

    2. Free and fair elections – Real choice of parties (India vs. China’s one-party rule).

    3. One person, one vote, one value – Universal adult franchise (India vs. Fiji’s unequal votes).

    4. Rule of law and rights – Leaders bound by Constitution and rights (Zimbabwe lacked this).

    Q2. Why is democracy considered the best form of government?
    Answer:

    • Ensures accountability of rulers.

    • Improves decision-making through consultation.

    • Peacefully resolves conflicts in diverse societies.

    • Enhances dignity of citizens.

    • Allows correction of mistakes.

    Q3. Explain any five arguments against democracy. Do you agree?
    Answer:

    1. Frequent changes cause instability.

    2. Decision-making is slow.

    3. Leaders may lack knowledge.

    4. Corruption due to elections.

    5. Ordinary people may not know best.
      While these are challenges, they can be improved within democracy. Other forms like dictatorship remove freedom and accountability, so democracy is still better.

    Q4. Distinguish between a democracy and dictatorship with examples.
    Answer:

    • Rulers: Elected by people in democracy (India), by force in dictatorship (Hitler’s Germany).

    • Elections: Free and fair in democracy, sham in dictatorship.

    • Rights: Citizens enjoy freedom in democracy; restricted in dictatorship.

    • Accountability: Governments answerable to people in democracy, not in dictatorship.

    Q5. “Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.” Explain.
    Answer:
    In democracy, every citizen has equal status regardless of wealth or education. People are rulers of their own destiny, not subjects of a monarch. This equality enhances dignity. Even the poorest voter’s choice counts as much as the richest. Citizens participate in decision-making and can criticise or replace leaders, which gives them self-respect.

    MCQs

    1. The word democracy comes from Greek words meaning:
      (a) Rule by law (b) Rule by the people (c) Rule by king (d) Rule by priests
      Answer: (b)

    2. In Pakistan, power rested finally with:
      (a) Parliament (b) General Musharraf (c) People (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    3. Elections in China are held every:
      (a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. PRI dominated elections in which country till 2000?
      (a) Mexico (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    5. Women got voting rights in Saudi Arabia only after:
      (a) 1950 (b) 2000 (c) 2015 (d) 1995
      Answer: (c)

    6. In Fiji, whose votes had more value?
      (a) Indian-Fijians (b) Indigenous Fijians (c) Women (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Robert Mugabe ruled which country?
      (a) Zambia (b) Zimbabwe (c) South Africa (d) Nigeria
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which feature ensures equality in democracy?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Universal adult franchise (c) Federalism (d) Elections
      Answer: (b)

    9. In democracy, rulers must:
      (a) Be nominated by king (b) Be elected by people (c) Be chosen by army (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which body ensures constitutional limits on government?
      (a) Army (b) Judiciary (c) Police (d) Media
      Answer: (b)

    11. Democracy in India is:
      (a) Direct (b) Representative (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
      Answer: (b)

    12. The famine in China (1958–61) showed failure of:
      (a) Dictatorship (b) Democracy (c) Army (d) Market
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which argument is NOT valid for democracy?
      (a) Provides dignity (b) Ensures accountability (c) More prosperous (d) Resolves conflicts
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who said democracy is “government of the people, by the people, for the people”?
      (a) Lincoln (b) Aristotle (c) Plato (d) Gandhi
      Answer: (a)

    15. In democracy, people are:
      (a) Subjects (b) Rulers themselves (c) Slaves (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which feature of democracy protects minorities?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Free elections (c) Equality of vote (d) Consultation & constitutional limits
      Answer: (d)

    17. Which is NOT an example of free and fair elections?
      (a) China’s one-party system
      (b) India’s multi-party elections
      (c) Mexico post-2000 elections
      (d) USA elections
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which feature distinguishes democracy from monarchy?
      (a) King rules by birth (b) Rulers elected by people (c) Both a & b (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    19. The principle “one person, one vote, one value” is linked to:
      (a) Equality (b) Liberty (c) Justice (d) Sovereignty
      Answer: (a)

    20. Democracy allows correction of:
      (a) Natural disasters (b) Its own mistakes (c) Poverty automatically (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Democracy means rule by the people.

    2. In Pakistan, General Musharraf held power through a coup.

    3. Elections in China allow only the Communist Party candidates.

    4. The PRI ruled Mexico continuously till 2000.

    5. Universal adult franchise means one person, one vote, one value.

    6. Robert Mugabe was the leader of Zimbabwe.

    7. Democracy ensures rule of law and citizens’ rights.

    8. The Judiciary protects fundamental rights.

    9. The famine in China killed nearly 3 crore people.

    10. Abraham Lincoln gave the famous definition of democracy.