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  • Chapter 6: Population, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

    (i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:
    (a) The area of departure
    (b) The area of arrival
    (c) Both the area of departure and arrival
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) Both the area of departure and arrival

    (ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
    (a) High birth rates
    (b) High life expectancies
    (c) High death rates
    (d) More married couples
    Answer: (a) High birth rates

    (iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to:
    (a) Total population of an area
    (b) Number of persons added each year/decade
    (c) Rate at which population increases
    (d) Number of females per 1000 males
    Answer: (b) Number of persons added each year/decade

    (iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who:
    (a) Can read and write his/her name
    (b) Can read and write any language
    (c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
    (d) Knows the 3 R’s (Reading, Writing, Arithmetic)
    Answer: (c)

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
    → Because birth rates have been declining gradually due to family planning, awareness, better healthcare, and improved literacy.

    (ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
    → Birth rate, death rate, and migration. Birth and death determine natural increase, while migration affects distribution and composition.

    (iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
    → Age structure: Proportion of different age groups in population.
    Birth rate: Live births per 1000 persons per year.
    Death rate: Deaths per 1000 persons per year.

    (iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
    → Migration changes size, composition, and distribution of population. Internal migration redistributes people; international migration alters population size.

    Q3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

    • Growth: Increase in number of people.

    • Change: Includes growth plus changes in distribution, composition, and migration.

    Q4. Relation between occupational structure and development.
    → Higher proportion in secondary/tertiary = more developed economy. Primary sector dominance = less development.

    Q5. Advantages of a healthy population.
    → Greater productivity, better quality of life, lower healthcare costs, improved economic growth.

    Q6. Significant features of National Population Policy 2000.
    → Universal free education up to 14 years, reduced infant mortality, universal immunisation, delayed marriage of girls, voluntary family welfare programs.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the size and distribution of India’s population.
    India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion, about 17% of the world’s population, spread over 3.28 million sq km. This makes India the second most populous country. Population distribution is highly uneven. Uttar Pradesh has 199 million people, the highest among states, while Sikkim and Lakshadweep have less than a million. Half of India’s population lives in just five states: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh. Population density is 382 persons/sq km on average, but varies from 1,102 in Bihar to only 17 in Arunachal Pradesh. Fertile plains and coastal regions are densely populated, while deserts, mountains, and forests are sparsely populated. This unevenness shows how geography influences human settlement.

    Q2. Discuss population growth trends in India since 1951.
    In 1951, India had 361 million people. Since then, population has increased steadily. Growth accelerated from 1951 to 1981, with rates peaking at 2.2% per year due to high birth rates and declining death rates. From 1981 onwards, growth rate declined gradually as fertility declined, but absolute increase remained high due to a large base population. For example, in the 1990s alone, 182 million people were added despite falling growth rates. By 2011, population reached 1.21 billion, and by 2023 India overtook China as the most populous nation. This shows that even with slower growth, the absolute additions remain large because of the sheer population base.

    Q3. Explain the role of migration in population change in India.
    Migration significantly affects population distribution and composition. Internal migration in India is mainly rural-to-urban due to push factors like poverty and unemployment and pull factors like jobs and better facilities in cities. This increases urbanisation; urban population grew from 17% in 1951 to over 31% in 2011, and continues rising. Migration also changes age and sex composition: men often migrate first, leaving women behind, while in cities, working-age groups dominate. International migration has also shaped India—large-scale emigration to Gulf countries and Western nations brings remittances, while immigration from neighbouring countries like Nepal or Bangladesh adds to diversity. Thus, migration redistributes population and impacts economy and society.

    Q4. Why is the adolescent population important for India?
    Adolescents (10–19 years) form one-fifth of India’s population. They are the future workforce and hold the key to economic growth. Proper nutrition and education are vital for them. However, many adolescents, especially girls, suffer from anaemia, malnutrition, and lack of healthcare. If neglected, this segment can become a burden instead of a resource. The government aims to improve adolescent health through literacy, awareness, and nutrition programs. Skilled, healthy adolescents can contribute to innovation, productivity, and nation-building. Hence, investment in this group ensures long-term development and prosperity for India.

    Q5. What are the objectives of National Population Policy 2000? Why is it significant?
    The NPP 2000 provides a comprehensive framework for family welfare and population stabilisation. Its key objectives include: universal free education up to 14 years, reducing infant mortality below 30 per 1000, universal immunisation of children, promoting delayed marriage for girls, voluntary family planning, and making reproductive healthcare accessible. The policy recognises that smaller, healthier families improve quality of life. It also focuses on adolescent health, raising awareness among girls, and ensuring nutrition and education. The significance of NPP lies in balancing population growth with sustainable development. By empowering individuals to plan families voluntarily, it links health, education, and gender equality with demographic goals.

    MCQs

    1. India’s population in 2011 was:
      (a) 1.02 billion
      (b) 1.21 billion
      (c) 1.31 billion
      (d) 1.11 billion
      Answer: (b)

    2. India’s share of world population is about:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 12%
      (c) 17%
      (d) 20%
      Answer: (c)

    3. The most populous state in 2011:
      (a) Bihar
      (b) Uttar Pradesh
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) West Bengal
      Answer: (b)

    4. Least populated state in 2011:
      (a) Goa
      (b) Sikkim
      (c) Manipur
      (d) Tripura
      Answer: (b)

    5. Population density of India in 2011:
      (a) 250/sq km
      (b) 350/sq km
      (c) 382/sq km
      (d) 400/sq km
      Answer: (c)

    6. Highest density state in 2011:
      (a) West Bengal
      (b) Bihar
      (c) Kerala
      (d) UP
      Answer: (b)

    7. Lowest density state:
      (a) Sikkim
      (b) Arunachal Pradesh
      (c) Mizoram
      (d) Nagaland
      Answer: (b)

    8. Census is conducted every:
      (a) 5 years
      (b) 10 years
      (c) 15 years
      (d) 20 years
      Answer: (b)

    9. First complete census in India:
      (a) 1857
      (b) 1872
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1901
      Answer: (c)

    10. Absolute increase in population means:
      (a) Total population
      (b) Number added during a period
      (c) Growth rate
      (d) Density
      Answer: (b)

    11. Growth rate of population is measured in:
      (a) % per decade
      (b) % per annum
      (c) Total headcount
      (d) Births per year
      Answer: (b)

    12. Birth rate means:
      (a) Births per 100 persons
      (b) Births per 1000 persons
      (c) Children per family
      (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    13. Death rate means:
      (a) Deaths per 100 persons
      (b) Deaths per 1000 persons
      (c) Life expectancy
      (d) Mortality ratio
      Answer: (b)

    14. Rural-urban migration in India is mainly due to:
      (a) Cultural reasons
      (b) Poverty & unemployment in villages
      (c) Religious reasons
      (d) Government policy
      Answer: (b)

    15. India overtook China in population in:
      (a) 2019
      (b) 2020
      (c) 2023
      (d) 2025
      Answer: (c)

    16. Adolescent population is defined as ages:
      (a) 5–15 years
      (b) 10–19 years
      (c) 12–20 years
      (d) 15–25 years
      Answer: (b)

    17. Percentage of adolescent population in India:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 15%
      (c) 20%
      (d) 25%
      Answer: (c)

    18. National Population Policy was adopted in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1980
      (c) 1991
      (d) 2000
      Answer: (d)

    19. NPP 2000 aims to reduce infant mortality rate below:
      (a) 40 per 1000
      (b) 35 per 1000
      (c) 30 per 1000
      (d) 25 per 1000
      Answer: (c)

    20. Which factor does NOT directly affect population growth?
      (a) Birth rate
      (b) Death rate
      (c) Migration
      (d) Rainfall
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion.

    2. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state.

    3. Sikkim has the least population among states.

    4. Population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq km.

    5. The highest density state is Bihar.

    6. The lowest density state is Arunachal Pradesh.

    7. First complete census in India was held in 1881.

    8. Absolute increase is the number of people added in a decade.

    9. Growth rate is measured in percent per annum.

    10. The National Population Policy was adopted in 2000.

  • Chapter 4: Climate, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the correct answer:

    (i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
    (a) Silchar
    (b) Mawsynram
    (c) Cherrapunji
    (d) Guwahati
    Answer: (b) Mawsynram

    (ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
    (a) Kaal Baisakhi
    (b) Loo
    (c) Trade Winds
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) Loo

    (iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
    (a) Early May
    (b) Early July
    (c) Early June
    (d) Early August
    Answer: (c) Early June

    (iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
    (a) Warm days and warm nights
    (b) Warm days and cold nights
    (c) Cool days and cold nights
    (d) Cold days and warm nights
    Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Controls affecting climate of India → Latitude, altitude, pressure & winds, distance from sea, ocean currents, relief.

    (ii) Why monsoon type of climate? → Seasonal reversal of winds; India’s unique location, Himalayas blocking cold winds, ITCZ shifts.

    (iii) Highest diurnal range of temperature? → Thar Desert (hot days, cold nights) because of arid conditions.

    (iv) Which winds bring rainfall along Malabar coast? → South-West Monsoon winds.

    (v) Define monsoon. What is “break” in monsoon? → Monsoon = seasonal reversal of winds. Break = wet/dry spells during rainy season.

    (vi) Why monsoon as unifying bond? → Despite diversity, agriculture, festivals, life, economy revolve around rains across India.

    Q3. Why rainfall decreases east to west in Northern India?
    → Monsoon winds from Bay of Bengal shed most moisture in east; progressively less as they move westward.

    Q4. Give reasons:

    (i) Seasonal reversal of winds → Differential heating of land and sea, ITCZ shift.
    (ii) Rainfall concentrated in few months → Southwest monsoon dominates June–Sept.
    (iii) Tamil Nadu coast gets winter rain → Retreating monsoon + NE monsoon winds.
    (iv) Eastern coast deltas struck by cyclones → Low-pressure systems from Bay of Bengal.
    (v) Rajasthan, Gujarat, leeward Ghats drought-prone → Located in rain shadow / far from monsoon path.

    Q5. Regional variations in climate of India:

    • Jaisalmer: hot desert, <10 cm rain.

    • Shillong: heavy rain (400+ cm).

    • Thiruvananthapuram: equable, coastal.

    • Drass/Leh: extreme cold.

    • Gujarat, MP: hot summers.

    Q6. Cold weather season conditions:

    • Nov–Feb. Temp falls, clear skies, cool days, cold nights.

    • NE trade winds prevail.

    • Western disturbances cause winter rain in north, snowfall in Himalayas.

    • “Mahawat” rain important for rabi crops.

    Q7. Characteristics & effects of monsoon rainfall:

    • Seasonal reversal, June–Sept.

    • Irregular, with breaks.

    • Uneven spatial distribution.

    • Excess = floods, deficit = droughts.

    • Vital for agriculture, economy, festivals.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the factors affecting India’s climate.
    Answer: Latitude (Tropic of Cancer divides), Altitude (Himalayas vs coast), Pressure & Winds (monsoon system), Distance from sea (continentality), Ocean currents (warming/cooling), Relief (rain shadow, windward rainfall).

    Q2. Describe the four seasons of India.
    Answer:

    • Winter (Nov–Feb) – Cold, NE monsoon, western disturbances.

    • Summer (Mar–May) – High temp, loo, dust storms, mango showers.

    • Advancing Monsoon (Jun–Sept) – SW monsoon, heavy rain, floods.

    • Retreating Monsoon (Oct–Nov) – Monsoon withdrawal, cyclones in east coast, October heat.

    Q3. “Monsoon is a unifying bond.” Explain.
    Answer: Despite diverse climates, agriculture, food habits, festivals, crops, river systems, economy—all revolve around monsoons. They bind India by setting agricultural calendar.

    Q4. Discuss regional variations in temperature & rainfall in India with examples.
    Answer: Rajasthan 50°C vs Drass –45°C; Thar diurnal variation vs Kerala equable climate; Mawsynram 400 cm vs Jaisalmer <10 cm; Tamil Nadu winter rain vs Punjab winter rain (western disturbances).

    Q5. Characteristics & significance of monsoon rainfall.
    Answer: Monsoon rainfall is seasonal, irregular, uncertain, unevenly distributed. It sustains Indian agriculture, hydroelectricity, transport, biodiversity, and festivals, but also causes floods and droughts.

    MCQs

    1. Climate refers to weather conditions over:
      (a) A short period
      (b) A long period (30+ years)
      (c) One week
      (d) A day
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
      (a) Middle of India
      (b) Northernmost tip
      (c) Southernmost tip
      (d) Only coastal areas
      Answer: (a)

    3. Cold winds from Central Asia don’t reach India because:
      (a) Deserts block them
      (b) Himalayas block them
      (c) Monsoon winds stop them
      (d) ITCZ shifts
      Answer: (b)

    4. Seasonal reversal of wind is called:
      (a) Westerlies
      (b) Trade winds
      (c) Monsoon
      (d) Cyclone
      Answer: (c)

    5. The “loo” is a:
      (a) Winter wind
      (b) Cold breeze
      (c) Hot, dry wind in summer
      (d) Sea breeze
      Answer: (c)

    6. Kaal Baisakhi occurs in:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) West Bengal
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (b)

    7. Mango showers occur in:
      (a) Kerala & Karnataka
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Punjab
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (a)

    8. Retreating monsoon occurs in:
      (a) June–Sept
      (b) Oct–Nov
      (c) Mar–May
      (d) Dec–Jan
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tamil Nadu gets rainfall in winter due to:
      (a) Western disturbances
      (b) Retreating NE monsoon
      (c) Cyclones only
      (d) Local thunderstorms
      Answer: (b)

    10. Western disturbances bring rain to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu coast
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Northern plains in winter
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (c)

    11. Mawsynram is in:
      (a) Meghalaya
      (b) Mizoram
      (c) Tripura
      (d) Assam
      Answer: (a)

    12. Monsoon enters India first at:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Tamil Nadu
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (a)

    13. October heat refers to:
      (a) Very hot May–June winds
      (b) Oppressive weather in Oct after rains
      (c) Heat waves in March
      (d) Cyclone season
      Answer: (b)

    14. Break in monsoon means:
      (a) Monsoon ends
      (b) Monsoon delayed
      (c) Wet and dry spells during rains
      (d) No rain for a year
      Answer: (c)

    15. The region with lowest rainfall in India:
      (a) Western Rajasthan & Leh
      (b) Assam
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (a)

    16. Highest diurnal temperature range in India:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Andaman & Nicobar
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (c)

    17. Rainfall decreases from east to west because:
      (a) Himalayas block it
      (b) Winds lose moisture westwards
      (c) Ocean currents deflect
      (d) Cyclones push rain eastwards
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which is NOT a control of climate?
      (a) Latitude
      (b) Altitude
      (c) Distance from moon
      (d) Relief
      Answer: (c)

    19. Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall because:
      (a) Leeward side effect
      (b) Orographic rainfall on windward side
      (c) Retreating monsoon
      (d) Winter rains
      Answer: (b)

    20. Cyclones in retreating monsoon often hit:
      (a) Gujarat coast
      (b) Godavari–Krishna–Kaveri deltas
      (c) Punjab plains
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Climate refers to average conditions over 30+ years.

    2. The word monsoon comes from Arabic word ‘mausim’ meaning season.

    3. Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia.

    4. The hot, dry summer winds in north India are called loo.

    5. Local thunderstorms in Bengal are called Kaal Baisakhi.

    6. Pre-monsoon showers in south India are called mango showers.

    7. The wettest place in the world is Mawsynram.

    8. The retreating monsoon occurs in October–November.

    9. Winter rains in north India are caused by western disturbances.

    10. Monsoon is called a unifying bond of India.

  • Chapter 3: Drainage, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:
    (i) Wular Lake is in → (d) Jammu & Kashmir
    (ii) Narmada source → (c) Amarkantak
    (iii) Salt water lake → (a) Sambhar
    (iv) Longest Peninsular river → (c) Godavari
    (v) River flowing in rift valley → (d) Tapi

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a water divide?
    → An elevated area separating two drainage basins. Example: Ambala between Indus & Ganga basins.

    (ii) Largest river basin in India?
    → The Ganga basin.

    (iii) Origin of Indus & Ganga?
    → Indus – Tibet near Mansarovar.
    Ganga – Gangotri Glacier (Bhagirathi).

    (iv) Two headstreams of Ganga? Where do they meet?
    → Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet at Devaprayag.

    (v) Why does Brahmaputra carry less silt in Tibet?
    → Tibet is dry and cold, with little rainfall → less water, less silt.

    (vi) Two Peninsular rivers flowing through troughs?
    → Narmada and Tapi.

    (vii) Economic benefits of rivers and lakes?
    → Irrigation, drinking water, hydropower, fisheries, navigation, tourism, soil fertility, climate moderation.

    Q3. Classify lakes (Natural / Human-made):

    • Natural: Wular, Dal, Nainital, Bhimtal, Loktak, Barapani, Chilika, Sambhar, Pulicat, Kolleru.

    • Human-made: Gobind Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Nizam Sagar, Nagarjuna Sagar, Hirakud.

    Q4. Difference between Himalayan and Peninsular rivers:

    • Himalayan: Perennial, long, deep valleys, depositional features (deltas, meanders, oxbow lakes).

    • Peninsular: Seasonal, short, flow in plateaus, shallow valleys, estuaries (west-flowing), smaller deltas (east-flowing).

    Q5. Compare east- and west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India:

    • East-flowing (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri): Flow into Bay of Bengal, form deltas, longer courses.

    • West-flowing (Narmada, Tapi): Flow into Arabian Sea, form estuaries, shorter courses, swift flow.

    Q6. Why are rivers important for India’s economy?
    → They provide irrigation, hydroelectricity, transport, fisheries, tourism, fertile soil, drinking water. Most Indian agriculture depends on rivers, making them the lifeline of the economy.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the Himalayan river systems.
    → Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra. Long, perennial, joined by tributaries. Indus (2,900 km) with Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj. Ganga (2,500 km) with Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Chambal, Betwa, Son. Brahmaputra (Tsangpo in Tibet, Jamuna in Bangladesh) causes floods, forms Majuli island.

    Q2. Explain the Peninsular river systems.
    → Shorter, seasonal, most flow eastwards into Bay of Bengal forming deltas (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri). West-flowing Narmada & Tapi form estuaries. Other west-flowing: Sabarmati, Mahi, Periyar. Their basins are smaller than Himalayan rivers.

    Q3. Write a note on lakes in India.
    → Natural (Dal, Nainital, Chilika, Wular, Sambhar) and man-made (Bhakra Nangal – Gobind Sagar, Hirakud, Nagarjuna Sagar). Lakes regulate river flow, prevent floods, help irrigation, hydropower, fisheries, recreation, tourism, and biodiversity.

    Q4. Role of rivers in Indian economy.
    → Rivers provide irrigation (agriculture), hydropower (electricity), navigation (transport), tourism (boating, pilgrimages), fishing, and fertile soil for crops. Major cities developed on rivers (Delhi – Yamuna, Kolkata – Hooghly, Varanasi – Ganga).

    Q5. Causes and effects of river pollution in India.
    → Causes: sewage, industrial effluents, agricultural runoff, religious practices. Effects: unsafe water, fish death, ecosystem damage, health hazards. Example: Ganga pollution led to Ganga Action Plan & NRCP.

    MCQs

    • The largest river basin in India is:
      (a) Indus
      (b) Ganga
      (c) Brahmaputra
      (d) Godavari
      Answer: (b) Ganga

    • The Indus River originates near:
      (a) Mt. Everest
      (b) Mt. Kailash
      (c) Lake Mansarovar
      (d) Amarkantak
      Answer: (c) Lake Mansarovar

    • Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet to form the Ganga at:
      (a) Haridwar
      (b) Devaprayag
      (c) Allahabad
      (d) Rishikesh
      Answer: (b) Devaprayag

    • The Yamuna meets the Ganga at:
      (a) Varanasi
      (b) Haridwar
      (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)
      (d) Kanpur
      Answer: (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)

    • The Brahmaputra is known in Tibet as:
      (a) Tsangpo
      (b) Jamuna
      (c) Dihang
      (d) Lohit
      Answer: (a) Tsangpo

    • The world’s largest delta is:
      (a) Mekong Delta
      (b) Amazon Delta
      (c) Mississippi Delta
      (d) Sundarbans Delta
      Answer: (d) Sundarbans Delta

    • The Narmada river rises from:
      (a) Satpura Hills
      (b) Amarkantak Hills
      (c) Western Ghats
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b) Amarkantak Hills

    • The Tapi river originates from:
      (a) Aravali Hills
      (b) Himalayas
      (c) Satpura Ranges
      (d) Vindhya Ranges
      Answer: (c) Satpura Ranges

    • The Godavari is also called:
      (a) Dakshin Ganga
      (b) Krishna of the South
      (c) Peninsular Lifeline
      (d) Bharat Ganga
      Answer: (a) Dakshin Ganga

    • The largest saltwater lake in India is:
      (a) Sambhar Lake
      (b) Chilika Lake
      (c) Pulicat Lake
      (d) Wular Lake
      Answer: (b) Chilika Lake

    • The Sambhar Lake is located in:
      (a) Uttar Pradesh
      (b) Madhya Pradesh
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (c) Rajasthan

    • The Wular Lake is situated in:
      (a) Himachal Pradesh
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Assam
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir

    • The Shivasamudram waterfall is formed by:
      (a) Krishna River
      (b) Godavari River
      (c) Kaveri River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (c) Kaveri River

    • The longest Peninsular river is:
      (a) Mahanadi
      (b) Krishna
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Kaveri
      Answer: (c) Godavari

    • The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow into the:
      (a) Bay of Bengal
      (b) Arabian Sea
      (c) Indian Ocean
      (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (b) Arabian Sea

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” is:
      (a) Kosi
      (b) Damodar
      (c) Gandak
      (d) Ghaghara
      Answer: (a) Kosi

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” is:
      (a) Damodar
      (b) Mahananda
      (c) Subarnarekha
      (d) Hooghly
      Answer: (a) Damodar

    • Majuli, the world’s largest riverine island, is formed by:
      (a) Ganga
      (b) Brahmaputra
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Yamuna
      Answer: (b) Brahmaputra

    • The Indira Gandhi Canal gets its water mainly from:
      (a) Yamuna
      (b) Sutlej
      (c) Beas
      (d) Ravi
      Answer: (b) Sutlej

    • The Hirakud Dam is built on the:
      (a) Godavari River
      (b) Krishna River
      (c) Narmada River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (d) Mahanadi

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The area drained by a river system is called a drainage basin.

    2. Elevated area separating basins is a water divide.

    3. Indus Water Treaty (1960) allows India to use 20% of Indus water.

    4. The Ganga’s headwaters are Bhagirathi and Alaknanda.

    5. The Brahmaputra is called Jamuna in Bangladesh.

    6. The Sundarbans delta is home of the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    7. Narmada flows through a rift valley.

    8. The Godavari is also known as Dakshin Ganga.

    9. Wular Lake was formed by tectonic activity.

    10. The National River Conservation Plan began in 1995.

  • Chapter 1: India – Size and Location, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
    (a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tripura
    Answer: (b) Odisha

    Q2. The easternmost longitude of India is:
    (a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E
    Answer: (a) 97°25′E

    Q3. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
    (a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
    Answer: (c) Nepal

    Q4. If you visit Kavaratti, which Union Territory will you go to?
    (a) Puducherry (b) Lakshadweep (c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Daman and Diu
    Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

    Q5. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
    (a) Bhutan (b) Tajikistan (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
    Answer: (b) Tajikistan

    Q6. Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.

    Q7. Name the countries which are larger than India.
    → Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia.

    Q8. Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
    → Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

    Q9. Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
    → Sri Lanka and Maldives.

    Q10. Why does the sun rise two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh than Gujarat but watches show the same time?
    → Because of India’s great longitudinal extent (30°). To avoid confusion, 82°30′E (near Mirzapur, UP) is taken as the Standard Meridian, and one uniform IST is followed.

    Q11. Why is India’s central location at the head of the Indian Ocean significant?
    → It gives India a strategic advantage for trade and cultural exchange with West Asia, Africa, and Europe (from west coast) and with Southeast Asia and East Asia (from east coast). India’s location makes it a central hub of ocean routes.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the size and extent of India.
    Answer: India has an area of 3.28 million sq. km, about 2.4% of world’s land area, making it the seventh largest country. The mainland stretches between latitudes 8°4′N and 37°6′N and longitudes 68°7′E and 97°25′E. Its north-south extent is 3,214 km and east-west extent is 2,933 km. India has a land boundary of 15,200 km and coastline of 7,516.6 km. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides the country into almost two halves.

    Q2. Describe India’s neighbours and its political boundaries.
    Answer: India shares boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan (northwest), China, Nepal, Bhutan (north), and Bangladesh and Myanmar (east). Across the sea, India’s neighbours are Sri Lanka and Maldives. In South Asia, India occupies a central position with 28 states and 8 Union Territories. Its vast boundary connects it politically, economically, and culturally with neighbouring countries.

    Q3. How has India’s central location helped in establishing cultural and trade contacts?
    Answer: India’s location between East and West Asia made it a crossroads of trade and culture. Ancient land routes across mountain passes helped exchange of goods, like spices, muslin, and ideas like numerals and the decimal system. Sea routes via the Indian Ocean linked India with Southeast Asia, Africa, and Europe. India influenced and absorbed cultures such as Greek sculpture and West Asian architectural styles, making it a centre of interaction.

    Q4. Discuss the importance of Standard Meridian of India.
    Answer: India’s vast longitudinal spread (30°) causes time differences of about 2 hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. To avoid confusion, 82°30′E longitude (through Mirzapur, UP) is chosen as the Standard Meridian. It ensures uniformity of time across India and is called Indian Standard Time (IST). Without it, time differences would disrupt communication, travel, and administration.

    Q5. Explain how India’s geographical features influence its contacts with the world.
    Answer: The Himalayas in the north provide a natural barrier but also mountain passes for ancient contacts. The long coastline facilitated maritime trade. India’s peninsular location makes it project into the Indian Ocean, linking West Asia, Africa, and Europe with Southeast Asia and East Asia. This strategic location allowed India to play a major role in global trade, culture, and history.

    MCQs

    1. India’s total area is:
      (a) 2.4 million sq. km (b) 3.28 million sq. km (c) 4.5 million sq. km (d) 5.2 million sq. km
      Answer: (b)

    2. India is the ___ largest country in the world.
      (a) 5th (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
      Answer: (c)

    3. India accounts for about ___ of world’s land area.
      (a) 1.8% (b) 2.4% (c) 3.2% (d) 4%
      Answer: (b)

    4. India’s latitudinal extent is:
      (a) 8°4′N to 37°6′N (b) 6°4′N to 36°6′N (c) 10°N to 38°N (d) 9°N to 37°N
      Answer: (a)

    5. India’s longitudinal extent is:
      (a) 68°7′E to 97°25′E (b) 65°E to 95°E (c) 70°E to 98°E (d) 60°E to 95°E
      Answer: (a)

    6. India’s north-south extent is about:
      (a) 2,933 km (b) 3,214 km (c) 2,500 km (d) 3,500 km
      Answer: (b)

    7. India’s east-west extent is about:
      (a) 2,500 km (b) 3,000 km (c) 2,933 km (d) 3,214 km
      Answer: (c)

    8. India’s land boundary length:
      (a) 12,000 km (b) 13,500 km (c) 15,200 km (d) 16,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    9. India’s coastline length:
      (a) 5,216 km (b) 6,500 km (c) 7,516.6 km (d) 8,200 km
      Answer: (c)

    10. Southernmost point of India is:
      (a) Kanyakumari (b) Indira Point (c) Minicoy (d) Palk Strait
      Answer: (b)

    11. Indira Point submerged during:
      (a) Cyclone 1999 (b) Tsunami 2004 (c) Flood 2013 (d) Earthquake 2015
      Answer: (b)

    12. India’s Standard Meridian is:
      (a) 82°30′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 77°6′E
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which city does Standard Meridian pass through?
      (a) Delhi (b) Allahabad (c) Mirzapur (d) Lucknow
      Answer: (c)

    14. Which sea lies west of India?
      (a) Bay of Bengal (b) Arabian Sea (c) Red Sea (d) Caspian Sea
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which sea lies east of India?
      (a) Mediterranean (b) Caspian (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (c)

    16. Sri Lanka is separated from India by:
      (a) Gulf of Khambhat (b) Palk Strait (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Both b & c
      Answer: (d)

    17. Maldives lie to the:
      (a) South of Lakshadweep (b) East of Andamans (c) North of Kanyakumari (d) West of Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    18. India’s central location helped spread:
      (a) Greek numerals (b) Indian numerals & decimal system (c) Roman architecture (d) Chinese language
      Answer: (b)

    19. The Suez Canal reduced India–Europe distance by:
      (a) 5,000 km (b) 6,000 km (c) 7,000 km (d) 8,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    20. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
      (a) 28 states, 8 UTs (b) 29 states, 7 UTs (c) 27 states, 9 UTs (d) 30 states, 6 UTs
      Answer: (a)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s total area is 3.28 million sq. km.

    2. India is the 7th largest country in the world.

    3. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides India into two halves.

    4. The southernmost point of India is Indira Point.

    5. Indira Point submerged in 2004 Tsunami.

    6. India’s north-south extent is 3,214 km.

    7. India’s east-west extent is 2,933 km.

    8. The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′E.

    9. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar.

    10. India shares land boundaries with 7 countries.

  • Chapter 4: Working of Institutions, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

    • (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister ❌

    • (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has majority in Lok Sabha ❌

    • (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both Houses ✅

    • (d) Nominate leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers ❌

    Q2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

    • (a) District Collector ❌

    • (b) Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs ❌

    • (c) Home Minister ✅

    • (d) Director General of Police ❌

    Q3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
    (a) Every law passed by Parliament needs approval of Supreme Court ❌ (False)
    (b) Judiciary can strike down a law against the Constitution ✅ (True)
    (c) Judiciary is independent of Executive ✅ (True)
    (d) Any citizen can approach courts if rights are violated ✅ (True)
    Answer: (a) is false.

    Q4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
    (a) Supreme Court ❌
    (b) President ❌
    (c) Prime Minister ❌
    (d) Parliament ✅

    Q5. Match the ministry with the news:

    • (a) Increase jute exports → (iv) Ministry of Commerce & Industry

    • (b) Telephone services in rural areas → (v) Ministry of Communications & IT

    • (c) Price of rice/wheat in PDS ↓ → (ii) Ministry of Agriculture, Food & Public Distribution

    • (d) Pulse polio campaign → (iii) Ministry of Health

    • (e) Allowances of soldiers ↑ → (i) Ministry of Defence

    Q6. Institutions and powers:
    a) Allocation of money for development → Parliament
    b) Committee on stock exchange law → Parliament
    c) Dispute between two state governments → Supreme Court
    d) Relief for earthquake victims → Political Executive (Government/Ministry)

    Q7. Why is the Prime Minister not directly elected by people?
    Answer:

    • (a) is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, only leader of majority in Lok Sabha becomes PM.

    • Direct election would be costly and may cause conflict between PM and Parliament.

    • Lok Sabha can remove PM before term ends, so accountability is ensured.

    Q8. Film showing CM ruling for one day:
    Imran → Wrong: one-man rule is dangerous.
    Rizwan → Correct: Personal rule without institutions is harmful.
    Shankar → Also correct: No minister can change everything in one day.

    Q9. Mock Parliament choice – Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?
    Answer: Lok Sabha, because it has greater powers in money matters, controls Council of Ministers, and can dismiss government.

    Q10. Reservation order – students’ views:

    • Srinivas: Wrong, judiciary is independent even if it agreed.

    • Anjaiah: Correct, judiciary showed independence and directed modification.

    • Vijaya: Also reasonable, judiciary acted as mediator.
      Best Answer: Anjaiah’s view is most accurate.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of Parliament in a democracy.
    Answer:
    Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It makes, changes, and abolishes laws. It controls the executive through questions, debates, and no-confidence motions. It controls finances by approving budgets. It is also the highest forum for discussion and debate on national issues. Lok Sabha, being directly elected, holds more power than Rajya Sabha, especially in money matters and government accountability. Parliament thus represents the voice of the people.

    Q2. What are the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India?
    Answer:
    The PM is head of government and leader of majority party in Lok Sabha. He chairs Cabinet meetings, coordinates ministries, settles disputes, and supervises work of ministers. He distributes portfolios and can dismiss ministers. All ministers work under his leadership. The PM represents India internationally and influences party and parliamentary affairs. His power depends on majority strength, coalition politics, and his personality.

    Q3. Distinguish between the political executive and the permanent executive. Why is political executive more powerful?
    Answer:

    • Political executive → Elected representatives like PM, ministers; hold office for limited period.

    • Permanent executive → Civil servants/bureaucrats; work for long term irrespective of government.
      Civil servants have expertise, but ministers take final decisions because they are accountable to people. Ministers reflect the will of the people in democracy, hence they are more powerful.

    Q4. Describe the composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
    Answer:
    The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body. It settles disputes between citizens, between citizens and government, and between governments. It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It has the power of judicial review – it can strike down unconstitutional laws. It protects fundamental rights and allows PILs. Judges are appointed by President in consultation with judiciary, and can be removed only by impeachment. Its independence makes it guardian of the Constitution.

    Q5. Why are political institutions necessary in a democracy?
    Answer:
    Institutions like Parliament, Executive, and Judiciary ensure smooth governance. They divide responsibilities: Parliament makes laws, Executive implements them, Judiciary interprets and checks them. Institutions prevent misuse of power and ensure accountability. They provide space for debate and consultation, making decisions more democratic. Though institutions cause delays, they protect democracy by preventing hasty and unfair decisions.

    MCQs

    1. Which body makes laws in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PM
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who is head of state in India?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Speaker (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    3. Who is head of government in India?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) CJI (d) Governor
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who chairs Cabinet meetings?
      (a) President (b) PM (c) Speaker (d) Vice President
      Answer: (b)

    5. Which House controls money matters?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both equally (d) President
      Answer: (a)

    6. Which House is permanent?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Who is Supreme Commander of defence forces?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Defence Minister (d) Army Chief
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who appoints judges of Supreme Court?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament (d) CJI alone
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tenure of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (b)

    10. Tenure of Rajya Sabha members:
      (a) 4 yrs (b) 5 yrs (c) 6 yrs (d) 7 yrs
      Answer: (c)

    11. Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) President (c) PM (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    12. Who heads Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) PM (c) Vice President (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    13. Which body can strike down unconstitutional laws?
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    14. Judicial review is power of:
      (a) President (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    15. Who makes final decisions in ministries?
      (a) Civil servants (b) Ministers (c) Secretaries (d) Courts
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which institution ensures accountability of Executive?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Judiciary (d) Election Commission
      Answer: (a)

    17. PM is appointed by:
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who can remove Supreme Court judges?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament via impeachment (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (c)

    19. “Guardian of Constitution” is:
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) PM (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    20. Parliamentary democracy is also called:
      (a) Presidential govt (b) Cabinet govt (c) Federal govt (d) Dictatorship
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Parliament is the supreme law-making body in India.

    2. The President of India is the head of state.

    3. The Prime Minister is the head of government.

    4. Lok Sabha has greater power in money matters.

    5. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.

    6. The President appoints the Prime Minister and judges.

    7. The Supreme Court has power of judicial review.

    8. Political executive is elected, permanent executive is appointed.

    9. Parliament controls finances and approves budgets.

    10. Judiciary protects Fundamental Rights of citizens.

  • Chapter 3: Electoral Politics, 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
    a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government. ✅ True
    b) People select the representative of their choice in an election. ✅ True
    c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary. ❌ False
    d) People can indicate which policies they prefer. ✅ True

    Q2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
    a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. ❌ Not a valid reason.
    b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful. ✅ Valid.
    c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote. ✅ Valid.
    d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict. ✅ Valid.

    Q3. Match the following:

    a) It is necessary to keep the voters’ list up to date → (iv) Some people may have moved away from the area.
    b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that → (i) There is fair representation of all sections.
    c) Everyone has one and only one vote so that → (ii) Everyone has equal opportunity to elect.
    d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because → (iii) All candidates must have a fair chance.

    Q4. List all election-related activities in sequence.

    1. Making of voters’ list

    2. Announcing election schedule

    3. Filing nominations

    4. Releasing election manifestos

    5. Election campaign

    6. Casting of votes

    7. Counting of votes

    8. Declaration of results

    9. Ordering of repoll (if required)

    Q5. Suppose Surekha is an election officer. What should she focus on?
    a) Election campaign – Ensure parties follow Model Code of Conduct, no bribery or misuse of power.
    b) Polling day – Ensure free and fair voting, no rigging or intimidation, secrecy of ballot maintained.
    c) Counting day – Ensure accurate and transparent counting in presence of agents.

    Q6. Should the US have reservations in Congress?
    Answer: Yes, because Blacks and Hispanics are underrepresented compared to their population. A system of reservation would ensure inclusiveness and fair representation, like India’s SC/ST reservations.

    Q7. Can we draw these conclusions?
    a) ECI does not have enough powers → ❌ Wrong, it has very wide powers.
    b) High participation in elections → ✅ True, turnout in India is higher than many countries.
    c) Easy for ruling party to win → ❌ Wrong, ruling parties often lose.
    d) Many reforms are needed → ✅ True, issues like money power, criminalisation remain.

    Q8. Chinappa and Satbir were disqualified. Does it go against democracy?
    → No, it supports democracy. People guilty of crimes like dowry torture and untouchability should not contest. It ensures clean politics.

    Q9. Reports of malpractices:
    a) Nigeria – Counting manipulation → Learn from India’s independent EC and transparency.
    b) Fiji – Threats to voters → Learn from India’s law against intimidation.
    c) USA – Different state procedures → Learn from India’s uniform nationwide election system.

    Q10. Malpractices in India:
    a) Minister promising aid → Misuse of government position. Correct: Model Code of Conduct enforcement.
    b) Opposition denied media → Bias in coverage. Correct: Ensure equal access.
    c) Fake names in rolls → Flawed voter list. Correct: Regular updates and verification.
    d) Party hoodlums with guns → Violence. Correct: Strong police and EC monitoring.

    Q11. Correct Ramesh’s misconceptions:
    a) Women always vote as told → ❌ Wrong. Women make independent choices.
    b) Elections by consensus, not competition → ❌ Wrong. Competition ensures accountability.
    c) Only graduates should contest → ❌ Wrong. Democracy allows equal opportunity.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional body that conducts elections. It supervises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and presidential elections. It ensures free and fair elections by preparing voter lists, monitoring campaigns, enforcing the Model Code of Conduct, and preventing misuse of power. It can order repolls, transfer officials, and punish violators. Its independence is protected by the Constitution, making it a strong guardian of democracy.

    Q2. Describe the election process in India step by step.
    Answer (160 words):

    1. Constituencies are demarcated.

    2. Voters’ list is prepared and updated.

    3. Candidates file nominations with security deposits.

    4. Election campaigns are conducted, parties release manifestos.

    5. Polling takes place using EVMs, voters cast votes secretly.

    6. Counting is done under EC supervision.

    7. Results are declared, winners form government.
      This process ensures participation, fairness, and accountability.

    Q3. What are the major challenges of Indian elections?
    Answer (150 words):

    • Use of money power.

    • Criminalisation of politics.

    • Family dominance in parties.

    • Unequal playing field for independents.

    • Misuse of government resources.
      Despite these, Indian elections remain largely free and fair. Reforms like stricter expenditure limits, banning criminals, and more transparency are needed.

    Q4. Why are elections considered essential in a democracy?
    Answer (150 words):
    Elections are the means through which people choose representatives, change governments, and influence policies. They ensure accountability, equality (one person, one vote), and peaceful transfer of power. Without elections, democracy cannot function. They act as a mechanism for people’s consent and provide legitimacy to the government.

    Q5. “Elections in India are both free and fair but face limitations.” Discuss.
    Answer (160 words):
    Indian elections are largely free and fair due to the independent Election Commission, universal franchise, secret ballot, and regular participation. Ruling parties often lose, showing fairness. However, limitations exist: money power, muscle power, fake voters, and lack of choice. Thus, while the system is democratic, reforms are needed to make it fully fair.

    MCQs

    1. Who conducts elections in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Election Commission (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    2. Minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b)

    3. Minimum age to contest elections in India:
      (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30
      Answer: (c)

    4. What is an electoral roll?
      (a) Candidate list (b) Voters’ list (c) Party list (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lok Sabha constituencies in India:
      (a) 500 (b) 543 (c) 550 (d) 552
      Answer: (b)

    6. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for SCs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 100 (d) 90
      Answer: (a)

    7. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for STs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b)

    8. Model Code of Conduct prevents use of:
      (a) Religion, caste (b) Money, bribery (c) Government resources (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    9. Who can order a repoll?
      (a) Government (b) Election Commission (c) High Court (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which voting system is used in India?
      (a) Open ballot (b) Secret ballot (c) Lottery (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    11. When was EVM first used?
      (a) 1977 (b) 1982 (c) 2004 (d) 1999
      Answer: (b) (Kerala, 1982)

    12. A by-election means:
      (a) National election (b) State election (c) Election for one seat due to vacancy (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    13. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Judiciary
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which law caps candidate spending in Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Representation of People Act (b) Election Reform Act (c) Parliament Act (d) None
      Answer: (a)

    15. Election day is when voters:
      (a) Count votes (b) Cast votes (c) Campaign (d) File nomination
      Answer: (b)

    16. Independent candidates are given:
      (a) Party ticket (b) Party symbol (c) EC allotted symbol (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    17. “Garibi Hatao” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1967 (b) 1971 (c) 1977 (d) 1980
      Answer: (b)

    18. “Save Democracy” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1977 (b) 1980 (c) 1984 (d) 1991
      Answer: (a)

    19. Which organisation introduced EPIC (Voter ID)?
      (a) EC (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PMO
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who supervises polling inside booths?
      (a) Police (b) Candidate agents (c) Election officials (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India has 543 Lok Sabha constituencies.

    2. Election Commission of India conducts elections.

    3. Minimum age to contest elections is 25 years.

    4. The voters’ list is also called the electoral roll.

    5. 84 seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for SCs.

    6. 47 seats are reserved for STs.

    7. The ruling party cannot use government resources for campaigning.

    8. EVMs are used for voting in India.

    9. The process of holding elections in one seat due to vacancy is called by-election.

    10. Model Code of Conduct guides election campaigns.

  • Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9th, Political Science

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote. Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years. Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections. Country D: There is no independent Election Commission. Classify them.
    Answer:

    • Country A – Undemocratic (excludes people on religious basis).

    • Country B – Not sure (could be democratic, but repeated wins may hint unfairness).

    • Country C – Democratic (shows ruling party can lose).

    • Country D – Undemocratic (elections not free and fair).

    Q2. Country P: Parliament cannot pass a law about the army without army chief’s consent. Country Q: Parliament cannot pass a law reducing judiciary’s powers. Country R: Leaders cannot sign treaties without neighbouring country’s permission. Country S: Economic decisions are taken only by central bank officials. Classify.
    Answer:

    • Country P – Undemocratic (army controls government).

    • Country Q – Democratic (judiciary’s independence is protected).

    • Country R – Undemocratic (loss of sovereignty).

    • Country S – Not sure (technical experts may decide, but ministers must remain accountable).

    Q3. Which of these is not a good argument for democracy?
    a) People feel free and equal
    b) Democracies resolve conflict better
    c) Democratic government is more accountable
    d) Democracies are more prosperous
    Answer: (d) Democracies are not always more prosperous than others.

    Q4. Separate democratic and undemocratic elements in the statements:
    a) WTO requires laws – Undemocratic; Parliament passes laws – Democratic.
    b) Re-polling ordered – Democratic; Rigging happened – Undemocratic.
    c) Women’s demand for 1/3 seats – Democratic; Only 10% women present – Undemocratic.

    Q5. Which is not a valid reason that famines are less likely in democracy?
    Answer: (d) People are free to believe in any religion. (Religion is unrelated to famine.)

    Q6. Villagers without drinking water used methods to pressure government. Which is not democratic?
    Answer: (d) Paying bribes to officials.

    Q7. Write responses to arguments against democracy:
    a) Army rule is better – Wrong, because armies are not accountable to people.
    b) Rule of majority = ignorant rule – Wrong, democracy respects equality and collective wisdom.
    c) Religious leaders should rule – Wrong, politics mixed with religion excludes others and becomes undemocratic.

    Q8. Are these statements democratic?
    a) Father denies daughter’s opinion – Undemocratic.
    b) Teacher stops student’s questions – Undemocratic.
    c) Employee demands legal working hours – Democratic.

    Q9. A country with elections, but loans dictate policy, only one language used, leaders arrested, and press censored. Is it a democracy?
    Answer: No, because despite elections, freedom, equality, and rights are denied.

    Q10. Write an essay on Democracy and Poverty (based on US & Indian examples).
    Answer (short):
    Democracy allows participation, but poverty often limits it. In the US, wealthier people influence politics more. In India too, the poor struggle to make their voices heard. Yet democracy gives the poor opportunities through elections, protests, and court petitions. Democracy must reduce inequality to be meaningful.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain four major features of democracy with examples.
    Answer:

    1. Elected rulers – Leaders chosen by citizens (India, not Myanmar under military).

    2. Free and fair elections – Real choice of parties (India vs. China’s one-party rule).

    3. One person, one vote, one value – Universal adult franchise (India vs. Fiji’s unequal votes).

    4. Rule of law and rights – Leaders bound by Constitution and rights (Zimbabwe lacked this).

    Q2. Why is democracy considered the best form of government?
    Answer:

    • Ensures accountability of rulers.

    • Improves decision-making through consultation.

    • Peacefully resolves conflicts in diverse societies.

    • Enhances dignity of citizens.

    • Allows correction of mistakes.

    Q3. Explain any five arguments against democracy. Do you agree?
    Answer:

    1. Frequent changes cause instability.

    2. Decision-making is slow.

    3. Leaders may lack knowledge.

    4. Corruption due to elections.

    5. Ordinary people may not know best.
      While these are challenges, they can be improved within democracy. Other forms like dictatorship remove freedom and accountability, so democracy is still better.

    Q4. Distinguish between a democracy and dictatorship with examples.
    Answer:

    • Rulers: Elected by people in democracy (India), by force in dictatorship (Hitler’s Germany).

    • Elections: Free and fair in democracy, sham in dictatorship.

    • Rights: Citizens enjoy freedom in democracy; restricted in dictatorship.

    • Accountability: Governments answerable to people in democracy, not in dictatorship.

    Q5. “Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.” Explain.
    Answer:
    In democracy, every citizen has equal status regardless of wealth or education. People are rulers of their own destiny, not subjects of a monarch. This equality enhances dignity. Even the poorest voter’s choice counts as much as the richest. Citizens participate in decision-making and can criticise or replace leaders, which gives them self-respect.

    MCQs

    1. The word democracy comes from Greek words meaning:
      (a) Rule by law (b) Rule by the people (c) Rule by king (d) Rule by priests
      Answer: (b)

    2. In Pakistan, power rested finally with:
      (a) Parliament (b) General Musharraf (c) People (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    3. Elections in China are held every:
      (a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. PRI dominated elections in which country till 2000?
      (a) Mexico (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    5. Women got voting rights in Saudi Arabia only after:
      (a) 1950 (b) 2000 (c) 2015 (d) 1995
      Answer: (c)

    6. In Fiji, whose votes had more value?
      (a) Indian-Fijians (b) Indigenous Fijians (c) Women (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Robert Mugabe ruled which country?
      (a) Zambia (b) Zimbabwe (c) South Africa (d) Nigeria
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which feature ensures equality in democracy?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Universal adult franchise (c) Federalism (d) Elections
      Answer: (b)

    9. In democracy, rulers must:
      (a) Be nominated by king (b) Be elected by people (c) Be chosen by army (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which body ensures constitutional limits on government?
      (a) Army (b) Judiciary (c) Police (d) Media
      Answer: (b)

    11. Democracy in India is:
      (a) Direct (b) Representative (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
      Answer: (b)

    12. The famine in China (1958–61) showed failure of:
      (a) Dictatorship (b) Democracy (c) Army (d) Market
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which argument is NOT valid for democracy?
      (a) Provides dignity (b) Ensures accountability (c) More prosperous (d) Resolves conflicts
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who said democracy is “government of the people, by the people, for the people”?
      (a) Lincoln (b) Aristotle (c) Plato (d) Gandhi
      Answer: (a)

    15. In democracy, people are:
      (a) Subjects (b) Rulers themselves (c) Slaves (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which feature of democracy protects minorities?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Free elections (c) Equality of vote (d) Consultation & constitutional limits
      Answer: (d)

    17. Which is NOT an example of free and fair elections?
      (a) China’s one-party system
      (b) India’s multi-party elections
      (c) Mexico post-2000 elections
      (d) USA elections
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which feature distinguishes democracy from monarchy?
      (a) King rules by birth (b) Rulers elected by people (c) Both a & b (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    19. The principle “one person, one vote, one value” is linked to:
      (a) Equality (b) Liberty (c) Justice (d) Sovereignty
      Answer: (a)

    20. Democracy allows correction of:
      (a) Natural disasters (b) Its own mistakes (c) Poverty automatically (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Democracy means rule by the people.

    2. In Pakistan, General Musharraf held power through a coup.

    3. Elections in China allow only the Communist Party candidates.

    4. The PRI ruled Mexico continuously till 2000.

    5. Universal adult franchise means one person, one vote, one value.

    6. Robert Mugabe was the leader of Zimbabwe.

    7. Democracy ensures rule of law and citizens’ rights.

    8. The Judiciary protects fundamental rights.

    9. The famine in China killed nearly 3 crore people.

    10. Abraham Lincoln gave the famous definition of democracy.

  • Chapter 7: Factors of Production, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. How are the factors of production different from each other? What are the difficulties you faced in classifying the factors of production in the exercise given in-text?
    Answer:
    Factors of production differ in nature:

    • Land: Natural resources like soil, water, minerals.

    • Labour: Human effort, both physical and mental.

    • Capital: Man-made resources like tools, machinery, and money.

    • Entrepreneurship: The initiative to organise the other three factors.

    Difficulties: Some resources overlap. For example, technology can be classified as capital, but it also acts as a facilitator. Similarly, knowledge belongs to labour but is also counted under human capital.

    Q2. How does human capital differ from physical capital?
    Answer:

    • Human capital: Knowledge, skills, health, and abilities of people that make them productive.

    • Physical capital: Tangible assets like machinery, tools, and buildings.
      Human capital cannot be seen or touched but is vital for using physical capital effectively. Without skilled workers, machines remain underutilised.

    Q3. How do you think technology is changing how people develop their skills and knowledge?
    Answer:
    Technology has transformed learning and skill development by:

    • Providing online courses (like SWAYAM, MOOCs).

    • Offering virtual training and simulations for jobs.

    • Allowing access to global resources via the internet.

    • Helping people upgrade skills flexibly while working.
      Thus, technology has made knowledge more accessible, affordable, and widespread.

    Q4. If you could learn one skill today, what would it be and why?
    Answer (sample):
    If I could learn one skill, it would be coding. Coding is important in today’s digital world. It opens opportunities in jobs like app development, robotics, and artificial intelligence. Learning coding would also help me solve real-life problems with technology and keep pace with modern innovations.

    Q5. Do you think entrepreneurship is the ‘driving force’ of production? Why or why not?
    Answer:
    Yes, entrepreneurship is the driving force because entrepreneurs bring together land, labour, and capital to create goods and services. They take risks, make decisions, and innovate to solve problems. Without entrepreneurship, the other factors remain unused or poorly utilised. However, entrepreneurship needs support like finance, skills, and favourable policies.

    Q6. Can technology replace other factors like labour? Is this good or bad? Support your answer with the help of an example.
    Answer:
    Technology can replace some labour, e.g., machines harvesting crops instead of farmers. This increases efficiency but can reduce jobs. However, technology also creates new opportunities, such as software development or drone operation. Thus, it is both good and bad—good for productivity but challenging for employment unless workers upgrade skills.

    Q7. How do education and skill training affect human capital? Can they substitute for each other, or do they complement each other?
    Answer:
    Education builds knowledge, while skill training develops practical abilities. They complement each other because:

    • Education provides theory, training provides application.

    • Both are needed for a productive workforce.
      For example, a doctor requires medical education (theory) and hospital training (practice). They cannot substitute for each other.

    Q8. Imagine you want to start a business that produces steel water bottles. What kind of inputs are needed? How would you obtain them? Suppose one of the factors is missing; what happens to your business operations?
    Answer:
    Inputs needed:

    • Land (factory space),

    • Labour (skilled workers),

    • Capital (machines, money),

    • Entrepreneurship (to organise).

    If any factor is missing:

    • No land → no place for production.

    • No labour → machines remain unused.

    • No capital → cannot buy raw materials.

    • No entrepreneurship → no vision to run the business.
      Thus, all factors are interconnected and essential.

    Q9. Interview an entrepreneur or founder to understand their motivation to start a business and the opportunities and challenges they saw.
    Answer (sample):
    I interviewed a bakery owner. She said her motivation was her love for baking and demand for fresh bread in the area. Opportunities included a growing customer base and scope for online delivery. Challenges were lack of funds, rising raw material costs, and competition. Her success came from innovation (unique cakes) and good customer service.

    Q10. Think like an economist. Suppose you are Ratna (restaurant owner). How would you handle these situations?

    • Rent doubles: Shift to a cheaper place or raise prices slightly.

    • Worker quits: Hire a replacement quickly or distribute tasks temporarily.

    • Loan for new technology: Invest in modern kitchen equipment to improve quality and efficiency.

    • New restaurant nearby: Improve service, maintain quality, and innovate with new dishes.

    • Ease of business laws: Advocate for simpler licensing and lower taxes to help small businesses grow.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Name the four main factors of production.
      → Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneurship.

    2. What is human capital?
      → Skills, knowledge, and health of people that make them productive.

    3. Give one example of capital.
      → Machinery in a factory.

    4. Who is called an entrepreneur?
      → A person who takes risks, innovates, and organises factors of production.

    5. Name two facilitators of human capital.
      → Education and healthcare.

    🔹 Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the interdependence of factors of production with suitable examples.
    Answer (150 words):
    All factors of production—land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship—are interdependent. For example, in agriculture, land is required for farming, labour for cultivation, capital for tractors, and entrepreneurship to manage resources. In industries, machines (capital) cannot function without skilled workers (labour). Similarly, an entrepreneur cannot succeed without land, funds, and skilled people. Modern technology further links all these factors by increasing efficiency. If one factor is missing, production suffers. Hence, production is a teamwork of all factors.

    Q2. Discuss the role of human capital in production.
    Answer (150 words):
    Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge, health, and abilities of people. It is the most important factor because it decides how effectively land, labour, and capital are used. For example, skilled farmers produce more from the same land than unskilled ones. Engineers use machines more productively than untrained workers. Education, training, and healthcare improve human capital, making workers efficient. Without healthy and educated people, machines and resources remain underutilised. Thus, human capital drives innovation, productivity, and economic growth.

    Q3. “Entrepreneurship is the engine of economic growth.” Justify this statement.
    Answer (160 words):
    Entrepreneurship is the driving force of production because entrepreneurs take risks and combine land, labour, and capital to produce goods and services. They innovate by creating new products and services that improve people’s lives. For example, J.R.D. Tata built industries in steel, airlines, and automobiles, contributing to India’s development. Entrepreneurs also create jobs, support supply chains, and generate income for society. They promote competition, efficiency, and global trade. Without entrepreneurship, resources remain idle, and economic growth slows. Thus, entrepreneurship acts as the engine of growth.

    MCQs

    1. Which is not a factor of production?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Money spent in markets
      Answer: (d)

    2. Human capital refers to:
      (a) Machines (b) Money (c) Skills and knowledge (d) Raw materials
      Answer: (c)

    3. Which factor of production is called “nature’s gift”?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who among the following is an entrepreneur?
      (a) Worker (b) Factory owner (c) Innovator taking risks (d) Engineer only
      Answer: (c)

    5. Which of these is physical capital?
      (a) Education (b) Healthcare (c) Machines (d) Training
      Answer: (c)

    6. Who was the founder of Air India?
      (a) Tata Sons (b) J.R.D. Tata (c) Birla (d) Narayana Murthy
      Answer: (b)

    7. Which system trains people in specific job skills?
      (a) Education (b) Training (c) Culture (d) Motivation
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which country applies the concept of kaizen for continuous improvement?
      (a) India (b) China (c) Japan (d) Germany
      Answer: (c)

    9. Which resource includes soil, forests, and minerals?
      (a) Labour (b) Land (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (b)

    10. SWAYAM platform is used for:
      (a) Banking (b) Online courses (c) Farming (d) Trading
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship are the main factors of production.

    2. Skills, knowledge, and health are part of human capital.

    3. Machines and tools are examples of physical capital.

    4. Entrepreneurs are the risk-takers and organisers.

    5. J.R.D. Tata received the Bharat Ratna in 1992.

    6. The Japanese concept of continuous improvement is called kaizen.

    7. The Great Famine of 1876–78 showed the dangers of poor agricultural systems.

    8. Online courses under the Government are available on SWAYAM.

    9. The Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha.

    10. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) became mandatory in 2014.

    True/False

    1. Land includes natural resources like water, soil, and minerals. ✅

    2. Human capital and physical capital mean the same thing. ❌

    3. Entrepreneurs only work for profit. ❌

    4. Technology can act as a facilitator of production. ✅

    5. SWAYAM is an online education platform. ✅

    6. Capital includes both money and man-made resources. ✅

    7. Kaizen refers to a German work ethic. ❌ (It is Japanese)

    8. India is the world’s largest mobile phone manufacturer. ❌ (Second after China)

    9. CSR requires companies to spend part of their profits on social activities. ✅

    10. A healthy and skilled population increases productivity. ✅

  • Chapter 6: The Parliamentary System – Legislature and Executive, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Find out how many representatives from your state are in each House of the Parliament.
    Answer:
    The number of representatives from each state in the Lok Sabha depends on its population. For example:

    • Uttar Pradesh has the maximum with 80 Lok Sabha MPs.

    • Smaller states like Sikkim, Nagaland, and Mizoram have 1 Lok Sabha MP each.

    • In the Rajya Sabha, representation is also based on population. For example, Uttar Pradesh sends 31 members, while smaller states like Goa send 1 member.
      (Students must check their own state’s Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha representation for the most accurate number.)

    Q2. What makes the Indian Parliament the “voice of the people”? How does it ensure that different opinions are heard?
    Answer:
    The Indian Parliament is called the “voice of the people” because it directly represents citizens through their elected members. Every citizen above 18 years votes to elect MPs, who then speak for them in Parliament. Different political parties, regional groups, and communities are represented. Parliamentary debates, Question Hour, and committees allow diverse opinions to be discussed before decisions are made. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs ensures even marginalised groups are heard. This inclusiveness makes Parliament a true reflection of India’s diversity.

    Q3. Why do you think the Constitution made the Executive responsible to the Legislature?
    Answer:
    The Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) is responsible to the Legislature (Lok Sabha) to ensure accountability. Since the Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people, making the Executive answerable to it means the government must work according to the people’s will. Mechanisms like Question Hour, motions of no-confidence, and committee reports ensure that ministers explain and justify their actions. This prevents misuse of power and keeps democracy healthy.

    Q4. Why do you think we have chosen the system of bicameral legislature at the Union level?
    Answer:
    India has a bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to balance representation and ensure better law-making.

    • The Lok Sabha represents people directly.

    • The Rajya Sabha represents the states and ensures their interests are not ignored.
      This system provides checks and balances, prevents hasty decisions, and reflects India’s federal structure. Two houses also allow for deeper debates and review of bills before they become law.

    Q5. Track the journey of a recent bill passed by the Parliament.
    Answer (example: Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023):

    • Introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Lok Sabha on 20 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Rajya Sabha on 21 September 2023.

    • Sent to the President for assent and became law shortly after.
      This bill reserved 33% of seats for women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies. The journey shows how bills are introduced, debated in both houses, and require presidential assent before becoming law.

    Q6. Why might it have taken over 25 years for the Women’s Reservation Bill to be passed, despite wide support?
    Answer:
    The Women’s Reservation Bill was first introduced in 1996 but faced repeated delays due to:

    • Lack of consensus among political parties.

    • Debates about sub-reservation for women from OBC and minority communities.

    • Political hesitation, as many leaders feared losing their constituencies.
      Only in 2023, after decades of discussions, was there enough agreement to pass it. This shows that even popular reforms take time because Parliament must balance many different interests.

    Q7. Sometimes Parliament is disrupted and does not function for the number of days it is supposed to. What impact does this have?
    Answer:
    Disruptions reduce the productivity of Parliament. Important bills get delayed or passed without proper debate. People lose trust in their representatives, as time and taxpayer money are wasted. Healthy discussions, which are the essence of democracy, are lost. This weakens the quality of laws and prevents Parliament from being the true “voice of the people.”

    Q8. What is the role that the Judiciary plays in Indian democracy? What could happen if we didn’t have an independent judiciary?
    Answer:
    The Judiciary interprets laws, protects Fundamental Rights, and checks the powers of the Legislature and Executive. It ensures that government actions follow the Constitution. Without an independent judiciary, there would be no safeguard against misuse of power, corruption, or violation of rights. Democracy would collapse into dictatorship.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. What is a bicameral legislature?
      → A system with two houses, e.g., Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

    2. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
      → The Speaker.

    3. Who is the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha?
      → The Vice President of India.

    4. What is Question Hour?
      → The first hour of a Parliamentary session when MPs question ministers about government policies.

    5. What is a Money Bill?
      → A bill related to taxation or government expenditure that can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the law-making process in the Indian Parliament.
    Answer (150–170 words):
    A law begins as a bill. It can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, except a Money Bill which can only start in the Lok Sabha.

    1. The bill is introduced and goes through its first reading.

    2. It is then debated and discussed clause by clause.

    3. It may be referred to a standing committee for detailed study.

    4. After discussion, it is put to vote.

    5. If passed, the bill moves to the other House where the process is repeated.

    6. After both houses pass it, the bill goes to the President for assent.
      Once signed, it becomes a law and is published in the Gazette of India.

    This process ensures thorough scrutiny, debate, and accountability, reflecting the democratic spirit of Parliament.

    Q2. Compare the Legislature and the Executive in India.
    Answer (150–160 words):
    The Legislature (Parliament) makes laws, while the Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) implements them.

    • Composition: The Legislature consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The Executive consists of the President, Vice President, and Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister.

    • Role: The Legislature debates, passes laws, and controls finances. The Executive runs the government, enforces laws, and prepares policies.

    • Accountability: The Executive is responsible to the Lok Sabha and must answer questions or face a no-confidence motion.

    • Checks: The Legislature monitors the Executive through Question Hour and committees, while the Executive introduces most bills.

    Thus, while both are interconnected, the Legislature represents the people and checks the Executive, ensuring democratic balance.

    Q3. What challenges does the Indian Parliament face today? Suggest measures to overcome them.
    Answer (150–180 words):
    Challenges include frequent disruptions, low productivity, absenteeism of MPs, and poor quality of debates. Many bills are rushed without proper discussion. Another challenge is the presence of MPs with criminal cases, which reduces public trust. Excessive influence of money and power in elections also affects representation.

    Measures:

    • Strict rules against disruptions and stronger enforcement by the Speaker/Chairman.

    • Encouraging MPs to attend and participate in debates.

    • Ensuring pre-legislative consultations and referring more bills to committees.

    • Banning candidates with serious criminal charges.

    • Strengthening transparency and public involvement.

    By tackling these issues, Parliament can truly become the voice of the people and a model of democratic governance.

    MCQs

    1. The Indian Parliament consists of:
      (a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
      (b) President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      (c) President and Lok Sabha only
      (d) Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      Answer: (b)

    2. The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is:
      (a) Vice President
      (b) Prime Minister
      (c) Speaker
      (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    3. The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Vice President
      (c) President
      (d) Deputy Speaker
      Answer: (b)

    4. A Money Bill can be introduced only in:
      (a) Lok Sabha
      (b) Rajya Sabha
      (c) Either House
      (d) State Assembly
      Answer: (a)

    5. Who gives assent to bills passed by Parliament?
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Speaker
      (c) President
      (d) Chief Justice
      Answer: (c)

    6. Which article provides for Parliament?
      (a) Article 50
      (b) Article 79
      (c) Article 100
      (d) Article 356
      Answer: (b)

    7. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 500
      (b) 550
      (c) 552
      (d) 600
      Answer: (c) 552

    8. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) 250
      (b) 245
      (c) 260
      (d) 270
      Answer: (a) 250

    9. The term of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years
      (b) 5 years
      (c) 6 years
      (d) 3 years
      Answer: (b)

    10. The Rajya Sabha is also called:
      (a) Upper House
      (b) Permanent House
      (c) House of States
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552.

    2. The Vice President of India is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

    3. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    4. The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha sessions.

    5. The Question Hour is the first hour of a Parliamentary session.

    6. The President must give assent before a bill becomes law.

    7. The Rajya Sabha represents the states of India.

    8. Lal Bahadur Shastri resigned as Railway Minister in 1956, showing moral responsibility.

    9. India’s Parliament is based on the British model.

    10. The Judiciary ensures checks and balances in democracy.

    True/False

    1. The Lok Sabha is also called the House of the People. ✅

    2. Rajya Sabha members are elected directly by the citizens. ❌

    3. The President is the real executive authority of India. ❌

    4. The Prime Minister is the de facto head of the Executive. ✅

    5. Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. ❌

    6. Money Bills can be introduced in either House. ❌

    7. The Speaker presides over the Rajya Sabha. ❌

    8. Judiciary protects the Constitution and citizens’ rights. ✅

    9. Disruptions in Parliament increase its productivity. ❌

    10. Question Hour ensures accountability of the Executive. ✅

  • Chapter-14-Economic Activities Around Us, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    Q1. What is the primary sector? How is it different from the secondary sector? Give two examples.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    The primary sector includes all activities that depend directly on nature for raw materials. Examples are farming, fishing, forestry, livestock rearing, and mining. People engaged in these activities produce goods directly from natural resources.

    The secondary sector uses raw materials from the primary sector and processes or manufactures them into finished products. For example, cotton is turned into cloth in textile factories, and sugarcane is processed into sugar.

    Difference:

    • Primary = extraction of raw materials from nature.
    • Secondary = conversion of raw materials into finished goods.

    Examples:

    • Primary: Agriculture, mining.
    • Secondary: Automobile manufacturing, flour mills.

    Q2. How does the secondary sector depend on the tertiary sector? Illustrate with a few examples.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    The secondary sector cannot function without the services provided by the tertiary sector. Factories need:

    • Transport services to carry raw materials like coal, iron, and cotton from mines and fields to factories, and to distribute finished goods to markets.
    • Banking services to provide loans, manage salaries, and enable business transactions.
    • Communication services like mobile phones and the internet to coordinate with suppliers and customers.
    • Warehouses and retail stores to store and sell products.

    For example, a textile mill needs cotton (primary), machines and workers (secondary), and then relies on transport, banks, and shops (tertiary) to sell clothes to customers. Thus, the tertiary sector supports both production and distribution.

    Q3. Give an example of interdependence between primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors. Show it using a flow diagram.

    Answer (Example: Dairy industry):

    • Primary sector: Farmers rear cows and produce milk.
    • Secondary sector: Milk is processed into butter, cheese, and milk powder in factories.
    • Tertiary sector: Trucks, railways, and shops transport and sell these products to customers.

    Flow Diagram:
    Farmer (milk production) → Dairy factory (milk products) → Transport & shops (distribution and sales).

    Extra Questions – Chapter 14: Economic Activities Around Us

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. What is meant by economic sector?
      Answer: A group of economic activities with similar features, such as primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors.
    2. Give two examples of primary sector activities.
      Answer: Farming and fishing.
    3. Give two examples of secondary sector activities.
      Answer: Automobile manufacturing and textile production.
    4. Give two examples of tertiary sector activities.
      Answer: Banking and transportation.
    5. Which sector is also called the service sector?
      Answer: The tertiary sector.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. Why is the tertiary sector becoming increasingly important in modern times?
    Answer: With globalisation and technology, services like IT, banking, communication, and transport have become crucial. They connect producers to markets, improve efficiency, and provide jobs.

    Q7. Explain the importance of cooperatives like AMUL in economic life.
    Answer: AMUL brought farmers together to sell milk collectively, set up processing plants, and eliminate middlemen. This improved farmers’ income and gave India a strong dairy industry.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. Explain how all three economic sectors are interdependent with the help of the book-making process.
    Answer (150–180 words):
    The making of a textbook shows interdependence among sectors. The primary sector provides wood from forests, which is processed into pulp. The secondary sector turns pulp into paper, and printing presses produce textbooks. The tertiary sector distributes books through transport, warehouses, and bookshops. Even software and education services play a role when books are digitised as e-books. If any one sector is missing — no trees, no paper factories, or no transport — the whole chain breaks down. This example proves that while each sector has its own function, they must work together for the economy to function smoothly.

  • Chapter-13-The Value of Work , Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. How are economic activities different from non-economic activities?

    Answer (120 words):
    Economic activities are those which involve earning money or wealth. People perform them in exchange for wages, salaries, profit, or payment in kind. Examples include a teacher teaching in a school for salary, a farmer selling crops, or a doctor treating patients for a fee.

    Non-economic activities are done out of love, care, gratitude, or duty, not for money. Examples are parents cooking for children, a person teaching neighbours free of cost, or volunteers cleaning a park.

    Thus, while economic activities generate income and contribute to the economy, non-economic activities contribute to social welfare and emotional wellbeing. Both are valuable for society.

    Q2. What kind of economic activities do people engage in? Illustrate with examples.

    Answer (150 words):
    People engage in various kinds of economic activities:

    1. Primary Activities: Related to natural resources — farming, fishing, mining, and forestry. Example: Farmers selling wheat in the market.
    2. Secondary Activities: Processing raw materials into finished goods. Example: A carpenter making furniture, factory workers making cars.
    3. Tertiary Activities: Providing services. Example: Doctors, teachers, lawyers, shopkeepers, drivers.
    4. Quaternary Activities (knowledge-based): Software engineers, researchers, scientists, etc.

    For example, Kavya’s uncle operating a bulldozer is a secondary activity, her aunt working in the post office is a tertiary activity, and Sahil the farm labourer earning wages is a primary activity. All these activities generate income and support everyday life.

    Q3. There is great value attached to people who are engaged in community service activities. Comment on this statement.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Community service activities may not earn money but they are very valuable. For example, volunteers serving food at langars in gurudwaras, or people cleaning public spaces under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, or planting trees during Van Mahotsav. These activities create social harmony, a cleaner environment, and mutual support.

    Such work promotes values like selflessness, compassion, and cooperation. For instance, when neighbours help during floods or natural disasters, their service saves lives. Even at festivals, people decorating together and sharing food strengthen community bonds.

    Therefore, community service holds great value as it improves the quality of life, builds unity, and teaches responsibility towards society.

    Q4. What are the various ways in which people are compensated for various economic activities? Give some examples.

    Answer (100–120 words):
    People are compensated for economic activities in different ways:

    1. Wages: Daily or weekly payment for labour (e.g., construction workers).
    2. Salary: Fixed monthly income (e.g., teachers, office employees).
    3. Profit: Earned by business people selling goods or services (e.g., shopkeepers, traders).
    4. Fees: Payment for professional services (e.g., doctors, lawyers).
    5. Payment in kind: Goods given instead of cash (e.g., a farm labourer receiving part of the crop).

    Thus, compensation depends on the type of work and agreement between worker and employer.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 13: The Value of Work

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. What is meant by value addition?
      Answer: Increasing the value of a product by processing or improving it (e.g., turning wood into furniture).
    2. What is sevā?
      Answer: Selfless service performed without expecting anything in return.
    3. Name one community service activity practised in gurudwaras.
      Answer: Langar (community kitchen).
    4. What is payment in kind?
      Answer: Non-cash payment given as goods or produce instead of money.
    5. Who said, “Do work as worship”?
      Answer: Swami Vivekananda.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. Why are non-economic activities important?
    Answer: They promote love, care, and social harmony. Examples include caring for elders, volunteering, or community festivals. They improve emotional wellbeing and strengthen relationships.

    Q7. How do citizens contribute to cleanliness drives like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan?
    Answer: By cleaning homes and public areas, segregating waste, reducing plastic use, and spreading awareness. Their participation ensures long-term success.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. Explain with examples how both economic and non-economic activities are necessary for society.
    Answer (150–180 words):
    Economic activities provide money, goods, and services. Farmers grow crops, shopkeepers sell goods, doctors and teachers provide services. These activities meet material needs and keep the economy running. Without them, society cannot survive.

    Non-economic activities, though unpaid, meet emotional and social needs. Parents cook food, elders guide children, volunteers serve in disasters, and people plant trees or clean neighbourhoods. These activities strengthen social bonds, spread kindness, and ensure happiness.

    For example, a teacher in school (economic activity) earns a salary, while a retired teacher giving free tuition (non-economic activity) helps poor children. Both contribute equally to society’s progress.

    Thus, society needs a balance of both types of activities for overall development.



  • Chapter-12-Grassroots Democracy — Part 3: Local Government in Urban Areas, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. On your way to school, you and your friends notice that a water pipe is leaking. A lot of water is being wasted on account of the leak. What would you and your friends do in such a situation?

    Answer (80–100 words):
    We would immediately inform the local municipal ward office or water department about the leakage. If there is a helpline or complaint app, we would register the issue there. Meanwhile, we would also spread awareness among residents not to waste water. If possible, we would place a temporary container under the leak to reduce wastage until it is repaired. Responsible citizens must act quickly, because water is precious, and small problems can become big if ignored.

    Q2. Invite a member of an urban local body near you to your class. Discuss with them their role and responsibilities. Prepare a set of questions to ask them so that the meeting is fruitful.

    Answer (Model – Questions List):

    1. What are the main duties of a municipal councillor?
    2. How does the corporation/municipality collect funds for its activities?
    3. What steps are being taken to keep our city clean?
    4. How do you solve complaints like garbage collection or road repair?
    5. What role do citizens play in helping the municipality?
    6. How do you ensure the safety and welfare of children and senior citizens?
    7. What future development plans are there for our ward/city?

    Q3. Discuss with adult members of your family and neighbourhood, and make a list of their expectations from the urban local bodies.

    Answer (sample list):

    • Regular garbage collection and cleanliness.
    • Supply of safe drinking water.
    • Repair of damaged roads and street lights.
    • Proper drainage and sewage system.
    • Public parks and playgrounds for children.
    • Affordable healthcare and dispensaries.
    • Safety and security, including traffic management.
    • Quick response to complaints.

    Q4. Make a list of characteristics of a good urban local body.

    Answer:

    • Transparency in decision-making.
    • Quick redressal of public complaints.
    • Regular garbage collection and waste management.
    • Efficient use of funds for development.
    • Proper infrastructure: roads, lights, water, drainage.
    • Active participation of citizens through ward committees.
    • Special care for disadvantaged groups.
    • Honesty and accountability of councillors.

    Q5. What are the similarities and differences between the Panchayati Raj system in rural areas and the urban local bodies?

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Similarities:

    • Both are systems of local self-government.
    • Both have three levels of governance: village/block/district in rural areas, and ward/municipality/corporation in urban areas.
    • In both, representatives are directly elected by the people.
    • Both focus on solving local problems like sanitation, water supply, and infrastructure.

    Differences:

    • Panchayati Raj works in villages, while urban local bodies work in towns and cities.
    • Head of Gram Panchayat is called Sarpanch, while head of a Municipal Corporation is the Mayor.
    • Panchayats focus more on agriculture, irrigation, and rural welfare, while urban bodies focus on city needs like traffic, solid waste management, and housing.

    Together, they ensure democracy works at the grassroots in both rural and urban India.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 12: Grassroots Democracy – Part 3

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. What are urban local bodies?
      Answer: Local self-government institutions in towns and cities.
    2. Name the oldest municipal corporation in India.
      Answer: The Madras Corporation (now Greater Chennai Corporation), established in 1688.
    3. Which city has been ranked cleanest under Swachh Survekshan for seven years in a row?
      Answer: Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
    4. What is the head of a Municipal Corporation called?
      Answer: The Mayor.
    5. What is the smallest urban local body?
      Answer: Nagar Panchayat.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. How do urban local bodies fund their activities?
    Answer: They collect taxes (property tax, water tax, trade licenses), fees for services, fines, and also receive grants from the state and central governments.

    Q7. Give examples of services provided by a Municipal Corporation.
    Answer: Garbage collection, sewage management, street lighting, maintaining parks, issuing birth/marriage certificates, fire services, and healthcare facilities.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. Why are urban local bodies important in democracy?
    Answer (150–180 words):
    Urban local bodies bring democracy closer to the people in towns and cities. They provide basic civic services like water, sanitation, roads, garbage collection, and public health. They also manage local development projects and maintain public amenities. By dividing cities into wards, citizens can elect representatives who voice their needs. This ensures that governance is not only top-down but also participatory.

    Urban bodies also raise awareness about social issues like cleanliness, environment, and health. For example, Indore’s success in cleanliness was possible only because both the municipal corporation and citizens cooperated. Moreover, urban local bodies create employment, regulate trade, and provide emergency services like fire and disaster management.

    Thus, they play a crucial role in strengthening democracy at the grassroots and improving the quality of urban life.



  • Chapter-11-Grassroots Democracy — Part 2: Local Government in Rural Areas,Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. Test yourself — without looking at the text above, can you name the three tiers of the Panchayati Raj system? What are the key functions of each of the three tiers?

    Answer (150 words):
    The Panchayati Raj system works at three tiers:

    1. Gram Panchayat (Village level):
      • Headed by a Sarpanch/Pradhan.
      • Directly elected by the Gram Sabha (all adult villagers).
      • Manages local needs like drinking water, sanitation, primary schools, and resolving small disputes.
    2. Panchayat Samiti (Block level):
      • Coordinates the work of many Gram Panchayats.
      • Prepares development plans, manages government schemes (like rural roads, health centres).
      • Acts as a link between Gram Panchayats and Zila Parishad.
    3. Zila Parishad (District level):
      • Oversees planning and development of the entire district.
      • Allocates funds and resources for big projects like hospitals, irrigation, and district schools.

    Together, they ensure self-governance and bring democracy closer to rural people.

    Q2. Write a letter to the Sarpanch regarding the issue of plastic bags lying on the roadside in the village.

    Answer (Model Letter):

    To,
    The Sarpanch,
    [Village Name]

    Respected Sir/Madam,

    I would like to bring to your attention the problem of plastic bags lying on the roadside in our village. These bags are polluting our environment, blocking drains, and harming animals who eat them. I request you to take steps to ban the use of plastic bags, install dustbins, and organise cleanliness drives. Please encourage villagers to use cloth or jute bags instead.

    Your action will help keep our village clean and healthy.

    Yours sincerely,
    [Your Name]
    Class VI Student

    Q3. In your view, what type of person should be a Gram Panchayat member?

    Answer (80–100 words):
    A Gram Panchayat member should be honest, responsible, and willing to serve the people. They must listen to everyone’s problems, especially women, children, and disadvantaged groups. The member should have leadership qualities, respect for all communities, and the ability to solve disputes fairly. Education and awareness of government schemes are also important, so that they can guide the villagers. Most importantly, the member should work selflessly for development without corruption.

    Q4. Let us suppose that you study in a village school. The school is located next to a highway and students find it difficult to cross the road when they come to school or leave at the end of the day. What are the options to solve this issue? Which institutions in the Panchayati Raj can help you? What can the students do?

    Answer (120–150 words):
    To solve this issue, some options are:

    • Building a speed breaker and zebra crossing near the school.
    • Requesting traffic police to be present during school hours.
    • Constructing an overbridge or underground crossing if possible.

    Institutions that can help:

    • Gram Panchayat: Can raise the issue in Gram Sabha meetings and request funds.
    • Panchayat Samiti: Can coordinate with the Public Works Department to build road safety measures.
    • Zila Parishad: Can allocate funds and approve larger projects like footbridges.

    What students can do:

    • Write a letter to the Sarpanch.
    • Spread awareness about road safety in the village.
    • Request parents and villagers to support the demand.

    This way, the Panchayati Raj institutions and community can work together to ensure children’s safety.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 11: Grassroots Democracy – Part 2

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. Who is the head of a Gram Panchayat?
      Answer: Sarpanch or Pradhan.
    2. What is the Gram Sabha?
      Answer: The assembly of all adult villagers who are registered voters.
    3. Who maintains land records in villages?
      Answer: The Patwari.
    4. What is the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
      Answer: Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (block), Zila Parishad (district).
    5. What proportion of Panchayat seats are reserved for women?
      Answer: One-third.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. Why are Panchayati Raj institutions important in democracy?
    Answer: They allow people to participate directly in decision-making, manage local issues effectively, and bring governance closer to rural communities.

    Q7. What is the role of a Panchayat Samiti?
    Answer: It coordinates Gram Panchayat plans, implements schemes, and acts as a link between villages and the district.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. Explain with examples how Panchayati Raj has empowered disadvantaged sections of society.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Panchayati Raj institutions reserve seats for women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes. This gives disadvantaged groups a voice in governance. For example, Vandana Bahadur Maida from Madhya Pradesh became the first female Sarpanch of her village and worked for education and sanitation. In Maharashtra, transgender Sarpanch Dnyaneshwar Kamble promoted social harmony. Hiware Bazar transformed into a model village under Popatrao Pawar through rainwater harvesting. These examples show that Panchayati Raj enables marginalised people to participate in decision-making, improve village life, and contribute to democracy at the grassroots.

  • Chapter-10-Grassroots Democracy — Part 1: Governance, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. Test yourself — What is the meaning of democracy? What is the difference between direct democracy and representative democracy?

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Democracy means “rule of the people.” It is a system of government in which citizens have the right to participate in decision-making. In ancient times, small communities sometimes practised direct democracy, where every citizen voted directly on decisions. An example is when a class votes on where to go for a picnic.

    In modern nations like India, direct democracy is not possible because the population is very large. Instead, we follow representative democracy, where citizens elect leaders to represent them in assemblies. These elected members (MLAs and MPs) discuss laws and policies on behalf of the people. Thus, the main difference is:

    • Direct democracy = people decide directly.
    • Representative democracy = elected representatives decide on behalf of the people.

    Q2. Recall the three organs of government. What are their different roles?

    Answer:

    1. Legislature – Makes laws, updates or removes old ones. In India, this includes Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) at the Centre and State Assemblies.
    2. Executive – Implements laws and ensures administration. At the Centre, it includes the Prime Minister, ministers, and officers; at the State, the Chief Minister and government departments.
    3. Judiciary – Interprets laws, punishes criminals, and ensures justice. It includes the Supreme Court, High Courts, and lower courts.

    These three organs act separately but work together, maintaining balance through a “separation of powers.”

    Q3. Why do we need three tiers of government?

    Answer (100–120 words):
    India is a vast country with many states, districts, and villages. A single central government cannot handle all problems. Therefore, we need three tiers:

    • Local Government – Works at village, town, or city level; solves local issues like sanitation, drinking water, and street lighting.
    • State Government – Manages issues within a state, such as law and order, health, education, and agriculture.
    • Central Government – Handles national issues like defence, foreign affairs, and currency.

    These three levels ensure that decisions are taken closer to the people, problems are solved efficiently, and democracy works at the grassroots.

    Q4. Project: Many of you will remember the lockdown that took place during the COVID-19 pandemic. Make a list of all the actions that were taken at that time? Which tiers of government were involved in managing the situation? What was the role of each of the organs of government?

    Answer (150–180 words, model):
    During the COVID-19 lockdown, many actions were taken: closing schools, markets, and offices; providing medical facilities; distributing food; arranging vaccination drives; and enforcing safety rules like wearing masks and maintaining social distance.

    • Central Government: Announced national lockdowns, provided guidelines, organised vaccine production, and deployed funds.
    • State Governments: Imposed curfews, managed hospitals, provided oxygen and medicines, and arranged transport for migrants.
    • Local Governments: Distributed food packets, sanitised streets, and ensured help reached people at the grassroots.

    Organs of Government:

    • Legislature: Passed emergency financial measures.
    • Executive: Implemented lockdown rules, vaccination, and relief schemes.
    • Judiciary: Ensured human rights were protected, monitored distribution of oxygen and hospital facilities.

    This shows how all three levels and all three organs of government worked together during the pandemic.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 10: Grassroots Democracy – Part 1

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. What does the word “democracy” literally mean?
      Answer: Rule of the people.
    2. Which organ of government enforces laws?
      Answer: The Executive.
    3. Which organ checks whether laws are fair?
      Answer: The Judiciary.
    4. Who is the nominal head of India’s government?
      Answer: The President of India.
    5. Who is called the “Missile Man of India”?
      Answer: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. What is meant by the separation of powers?
    Answer: It means that the three organs of government — legislature, executive, and judiciary — must remain independent but work together. This prevents misuse of power and maintains balance in governance.

    Q7. Give one example where government affects your daily life.
    Answer: The government provides electricity and water supply in my area. It makes rules for safety and ensures fair pricing, directly affecting my daily life.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. Why is democracy important?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Democracy is important because it gives people the right to choose their leaders and hold them accountable. It ensures equality, freedom of speech, and justice for all citizens. In a democracy, laws are made through discussion and debate, reflecting the will of the people. It prevents misuse of power by dividing authority among legislature, executive, and judiciary. Democracy also protects cultural diversity and individual dignity, as seen in India’s unity in diversity. Without democracy, citizens may lose their rights and freedom. Thus, democracy is not only a form of government but also a way of life that values participation, responsibility, and respect for all.

  • Chapter-9-Family and Community, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. What are some of the rules you follow in your family and neighbourhood? Why are they important?

    Answer (100–120 words):
    In my family, we follow rules like respecting elders, helping in household work, and speaking politely to each other. At home, I must finish my homework before playing, and avoid wasting food or water. In the neighbourhood, I avoid littering, greet neighbours respectfully, and follow traffic rules. These rules are important because they teach discipline, responsibility, and cooperation. They also ensure harmony within the family and safety in society. Following rules helps us live peacefully with others and shows that we care for both people and the environment.

    Q2. Do you think some rules are unfair to a few people in the family or community? Why?

    Answer (80–100 words):
    Yes, sometimes rules may feel unfair. For example, in some families, only women are expected to cook and clean, while men do not share household chores. Similarly, in some communities, certain groups face restrictions in using public spaces or resources. Such rules are unfair because they burden some members and give privileges to others. Rules should be equal and just for everyone, so that all members of a family or community can live with dignity, respect, and fairness.

    Q3. Describe several situations that you have observed where community support makes a difference. You can draw or write about these.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    I have seen many situations where community support is very helpful. During festivals like Diwali and Eid, neighbours share sweets and help in decorations, making celebrations joyful. In times of crisis, like heavy rains or floods, people in our colony worked together to remove water and provide food to those affected. During the COVID-19 lockdown, our housing society arranged for delivery of groceries and medicines for elderly people. Similarly, when someone in the neighbourhood has a wedding or function, all families join in cooking, cleaning, and organising. These examples show that community support gives strength during difficulties and spreads happiness during celebrations.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 9: Family and Community

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. What is the smallest unit of society?
      Answer: The family.
    2. What are the two main types of families?
      Answer: Joint families and nuclear families.
    3. What do Indian languages often call cousins?
      Answer: Brothers or sisters (no separate word).
    4. What does “halma” mean in the Bhil community?
      Answer: Coming together to support each other in times of crisis.
    5. Name one new type of community in urban areas.
      Answer: Residents’ Welfare Associations.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. What values do children learn from family life?
    Answer: Children learn love, cooperation, responsibility, discipline, sharing, respect for elders, and cultural traditions from family life.

    Q7. How did Shalini’s family in Kerala practise family values?
    Answer: They sacrificed their own desires and bought clothes for her uncle’s family during Onam, showing love, sharing, and caring for relatives in need.

    Q8. What role did Tenzing’s grandparents play in his life?
    Answer: His grandmother told wise stories, and his grandfather helped with homework, accompanied him to the bus stop, and participated in community service.

  • Chapter-8-Unity in Diversity, or Many in the One, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. Conduct a class discussion on the two quotations at the start of the chapter.

    Answer (model – 120 words):
    Rabindranath Tagore’s quotation means that even in the variety of life, we should feel the touch of the One, the eternal truth. Sri Aurobindo’s words explain that India’s identity is based on unity in diversity. Though India has many languages, religions, customs, and traditions, they all form part of one civilisation. This unity gives India its strength. The message of both thinkers is that diversity is not a weakness but an enrichment. When we see “the Many in the One,” we understand the deep cultural and spiritual unity of India.

    Q2. Select a few stories from the Pañchatantra and discuss how their message is still valid today. Do you know of any similar stories from your region?

    Answer (100–120 words):
    One story from the Pañchatantra is “The Monkey and the Crocodile”. It teaches that wisdom and quick thinking can save us in difficult times. Another is “The Lion and the Clever Rabbit”, which shows how intelligence is more powerful than strength. These messages are still valid today, reminding us to use our mind wisely. In my region, we have folk tales like Tenali Raman’s stories, which also teach lessons of wit, honesty, and justice. Such stories remain popular because their morals are timeless.

    Q3. Collect a few folk tales from your region and discuss their message.

    Answer (model – 100 words):
    In my region, one folk tale is about a farmer who shared his food with a hungry traveller. Later, the traveller turned out to be a deity who blessed him with prosperity. The message is kindness and generosity always bring rewards. Another tale is about a crow and a snake, teaching courage and cleverness in facing enemies. These folk tales are simple but convey values like honesty, bravery, kindness, and respect for nature.

    Q4. Is there any ancient story that you have seen being depicted through a form of art? It could be a sculpture, a painting, a dance performance, a movie … Discuss with your classmates.

    Answer (example – 100 words):
    Yes, I have seen the story of Rāmāyaṇa depicted in the classical dance drama Kathakali in Kerala. The scene of Hanuman carrying the Sanjeevani mountain was performed with great expressions and costumes. I have also seen Rāmāyaṇa episodes painted on temple walls in Tamil Nadu. In movies too, the Mahābhārata and Rāmāyaṇa have been recreated. These artistic depictions help keep ancient stories alive and make them understandable for new generations.

    Q5. Discuss in class the following quotation by Jawaharlal Nehru.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Jawaharlal Nehru observed that India’s cultural roots are deeply influenced by the epics Rāmāyaṇa and Mahābhārata. Even illiterate villagers could recite verses and relate morals from these epics in their daily conversations. This shows the powerful role of literature in shaping Indian society. These epics gave people values of truth, courage, sacrifice, and dharma, uniting them across regions. Nehru’s words also highlight the role of oral tradition in preserving knowledge. Today, even with television and books, the moral lessons of the epics continue to inspire. They remind us of our shared culture and the unity that binds Indians together.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 8: Unity in Diversity

    Very Short Answer Questions

    1. Who said, “Oh, grant me my prayer, that I may never lose the bliss of the touch of the one in the play of the many”?
      Answer: Rabindranath Tagore.
    2. What was the People of India Project?
      Answer: A survey by the Anthropological Survey of India studying 4,635 communities, their languages, and cultures.
    3. Name two common food grains found all over India.
      Answer: Rice and wheat.
    4. Which two Indian epics have united people across the country?
      Answer: The Rāmāyaṇa and the Mahābhārata.
    5. Which traditional Indian dress reflects unity in diversity?
      Answer: The sari.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. Explain how the sari reflects unity in diversity.
    Answer: The sari is a single piece of cloth worn all over India, but it has hundreds of variations in weaving, fabric, colour, and draping styles. Whether it is Kanjivaram silk, Banarasi brocade, or cotton handloom, the sari represents both the common cultural heritage (unity) and the regional creativity (diversity) of India.

    Q7. Give examples of a common festival celebrated under different names in India.
    Answer: The harvest festival is celebrated as Pongal in Tamil Nadu, Lohri in Punjab, Bihu in Assam, Uttarayan in Gujarat, and Makar Sankranti in Maharashtra. Though names and rituals differ, the essence is the same — thanksgiving for harvest.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q8. What is meant by “unity in diversity” in the Indian scenario?
    Answer (150 words):
    “Unity in diversity” means that India, though diverse in languages, religions, food, dress, and customs, has an underlying unity of culture and values. With more than 1.4 billion people, 325 languages, and thousands of communities, India could appear divided. But shared traditions, respect for nature, and common values like dharma, truth, and family ties unite the nation. Festivals like Diwali, Holi, and Eid are celebrated by all communities. Epics like the Rāmāyaṇa and Mahābhārata are known in every region in different versions. Common food grains, clothing styles, and arts also strengthen this unity. Thus, India celebrates diversity as enrichment while preserving unity as its foundation.

    Q9. How do epics like the Rāmāyaṇa and Mahābhārata represent unity in diversity?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    The Rāmāyaṇa and Mahābhārata are originally in Sanskrit, but they have been translated and adapted into every major Indian language. Many regional and tribal communities have their own versions of these stories, linking their history with epic heroes like Rama, Sita, or the Pandavas. Folk songs, dances, plays, paintings, and sculptures depict episodes from the epics in local styles. Even outside India, in Southeast Asia, the Rāmāyaṇa has versions in Thailand, Indonesia, and Cambodia. Despite the diversity of forms, the values of dharma, sacrifice, and truth are common. This shows how the same story unites different regions, cultures, and communities across India and Asia.

  • Chapter 7 – India’s Cultural Roots, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. If you were Nachiketa, what questions would you like to ask Yama? Write them down in 100–150 words.

    Answer (model):
    If I were Nachiketa, I would ask Yama:

    • What happens after death — does life end or continue in another form?
    • What is the true purpose of human life?
    • Why do people suffer even if they do good deeds?
    • How can one overcome fear, anger, and attachment?
    • What is the path to attaining peace and liberation?

    These questions would help me understand the mystery of life and death, the meaning of karma, and the way to live a righteous and fearless life.

    Q2. Explain a few central ideas of Buddhism. Briefly comment upon them.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Central ideas of Buddhism include:

    1. Four Noble Truths: Life has suffering; suffering arises from desire; it can end; and the Eightfold Path leads to its end.
    2. Eightfold Path: Right understanding, thought, speech, action, livelihood, effort, mindfulness, and meditation.
    3. Ahimsa: Non-harming of all beings.
    4. Middle Path: Avoid extremes of luxury and hardship.

    Comment: These ideas emphasise simplicity, discipline, and compassion. They focus on inner transformation rather than rituals. Even today, Buddhist values of peace and mindfulness are relevant worldwide.

    Q3. Discuss the quotation of the Buddha: “Not by water is one made pure, though many people may bathe here [in sacred rivers]. But one is pure in whom truth and dharma reside.”

    Answer (80–100 words):
    The Buddha’s quotation means that real purity is not external but internal. Bathing in rivers may clean the body, but true purity comes from following truth, dharma (righteousness), and self-control. A person who is honest, kind, and non-violent is purer than one who only performs rituals. This teaching emphasises inner discipline, good actions, and moral values over external appearances.

    Q4. Explain a few central ideas of Jainism. Briefly comment upon them.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    Central ideas of Jainism are:

    1. Ahimsa: Non-violence towards all living beings, including insects and plants.
    2. Anekāntavāda: Truth has many sides; no single view is complete.
    3. Aparigraha: Non-attachment to possessions and simplicity in life.
    4. Karma: One’s actions decide the future cycle of birth.

    Comment: Jain philosophy highlights compassion, tolerance, and simplicity. Its teachings are deeply ecological, showing respect for all life forms. Even today, these principles guide people towards peace, environmental care, and ethical living.

    Q5. Consider and discuss André Béteille’s thought (p. 122).

    Answer (100–120 words):
    André Béteille said that castes and tribes in India influenced each other’s beliefs and practices. This means that Indian culture developed through interaction, borrowing, and sharing. Tribal deities became part of Hinduism (like Jagannath of Puri), while Hindu epics were retold in tribal versions. Such exchange made Indian culture rich, diverse, and united. This mutual influence shows that culture is never one-sided but a blend of traditions. It also reminds us to respect every community’s contribution to India’s civilisation.

    Q6. Make a list of popular gods and goddesses in your region and the festivals they are associated with.

    Answer (model – students adapt):

    • Durga – Durga Puja (West Bengal)
    • Krishna – Janmashtami (Uttar Pradesh)
    • Ganesh – Ganesh Chaturthi (Maharashtra)
    • Jagannath – Rath Yatra (Odisha)
    • Shiva – Mahashivaratri (all over India)

    Q7. List two or three tribal groups from your region or State. Document some of their art and belief systems.

    Answer (model – example from central India):

    • Gonds: Worship nature; famous for Gond paintings.
    • Santhals: Worship Singbonga (sun god); celebrate Sohrai harvest festival.
    • Baiga: Known for tattoo art; follow traditional forest rituals.

    True or False

    1. The Vedic hymns were written on palm-leaf manuscripts. – False. They were passed orally.
    2. The Vedas are India’s oldest texts. – True.
    3. The Vedic statement ekam sat viprā bahudhā vadanti reflects belief in unity of cosmic powers. – True.
    4. Buddhism is older than the Vedas. – False. Vedas are older.
    5. Jainism emerged as a branch of Buddhism. – False. It is an independent school.
    6. Both Buddhism and Jainism advocated peaceful coexistence and non-violence. – True.
    7. Tribal belief systems are limited to spirits and minor deities. – False. They also have supreme deities and rich traditions.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 7: India’s Cultural Roots

    Very Short Answer Questions

    Q1. What does the word “Veda” mean? – Knowledge.
    Q2. Who composed the Vedic hymns? – Rishis and rishikas.
    Q3. What does “aham brahmāsmi” mean? – I am divine.
    Q4. Who founded Buddhism? – Siddhārtha Gautama (the Buddha).
    Q5. Who founded Jainism? – Mahāvīra.

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. What is the concept of karma?
    Answer: Karma means actions and their results. Good deeds bring happiness, while bad deeds bring suffering.

    Q7. What is anekāntavāda in Jainism?
    Answer: It is the belief that truth has many aspects and no single statement can describe it fully.

    Q8. How did tribal traditions enrich Hinduism?
    Answer: Tribal deities like Jagannath were adopted into Hinduism, while tribal groups adapted Hindu epics in their own style.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q9. Explain the contribution of the Vedas to Indian culture.
    Answer (120 words):
    The Vedas are the oldest Indian texts and a foundation of Indian culture. They contain hymns to gods like Indra, Agni, Sarasvatī, and Varuṇa. Their teachings emphasise truth, unity, and harmony in the cosmos. The Upanishads developed deeper ideas like ātman, brahman, karma, and rebirth. Vedic culture influenced rituals, festivals, philosophy, and social organisation. The oral preservation of Vedic hymns is recognised by UNESCO as world heritage. Even today, Vedic prayers and values guide Indian traditions and spirituality.

    Q10. How are Buddhism, Jainism, and Vedic schools similar and different?
    Answer (150 words):

    • Similarities: All three stress dharma, karma, rebirth, and liberation from suffering. They value non-violence, truth, and simplicity.
    • Differences:
      • Vedic schools accept the authority of the Vedas; Buddhism and Jainism reject it.
      • Buddhism emphasises the Middle Path and meditation.
      • Jainism stresses ahimsa in the strictest sense and detachment (aparigraha).

    Vedanta teaches that everything is one divine essence, brahman.
    Thus, despite differences, these schools enriched Indian thought and created a diverse yet unified cultural tradition.

  • Chapter 6 – The Beginnings of Indian Civilisation, Class 6th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Answers

    Q1. Why does the civilisation studied in this chapter have several names? Discuss their significance.

    Answer (120–150 words):
    The civilisation has many names:

    • Indus Civilisation – because many cities like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro grew along the Indus River.
    • Harappan Civilisation – named after Harappa, the first site excavated in 1920–21.
    • Indus-Sarasvatī or Sindhu-Sarasvatī Civilisation – because many sites were also found along the Sarasvatī (Ghaggar-Hakra) River.

    These names highlight its geographical spread. It was not limited to the Indus Valley but extended to present-day Punjab, Sindh, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Gujarat. Using multiple names helps us understand the vastness of the civilisation and the role of different rivers in shaping its culture.

    Q2. Write a brief report (150–200 words) summing up some of the achievements of the Indus-Sarasvatī civilisation.

    Answer:
    The Indus-Sarasvatī Civilisation (2600–1900 BCE) was one of the world’s earliest urban civilisations. Its cities like Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, Dholavira, and Rakhigarhi show advanced town-planning with wide streets, fortifications, and drainage systems. Mohenjo-daro’s Great Bath and Dholavira’s large reservoirs prove their skill in water management.

    Harappans were skilled farmers, growing wheat, barley, millets, rice, and cotton, which was used for making clothes. They domesticated animals and fished in rivers and seas.

    They were also excellent craftspersons, making beads of carnelian, bronze tools, terracotta toys, ornaments, and figurines like the “Dancing Girl.” They traded actively with Mesopotamia, Oman, and other regions using land and sea routes.

    Although the civilisation declined due to climatic changes and drying rivers, its achievements in urbanism, crafts, agriculture, and trade laid the foundation for later Indian culture.

    Q3. Imagine you have to travel from the city of Harappa to Kalibangan. What are your different options? Can you make a rough estimation of the amount of time each option might take?

    Answer (model):

    • On foot: This might take 25–30 days, as the distance is about 600 km.
    • By bullock cart: About 15–20 days.
    • By boat (using Indus and its tributaries): Around 10–12 days, depending on water flow.

    Thus, rivers were the fastest means of transport in those times.

    Q4. Let us imagine a Harappan man or woman being transported to an average kitchen in today’s India. What are the four or five biggest surprises awaiting them?

    Answer:

    • Use of LPG gas stoves and microwaves instead of firewood.
    • Variety of steel, plastic, and glass utensils instead of clay pots.
    • Packaged food, spices, and ready-to-cook items.
    • Refrigerators for storage and mixer-grinders for cooking.
    • Electricity and water taps inside the kitchen.

    Q5. Looking at all the pictures in this chapter, make a list of the ornaments / gestures / objects that still feel familiar in our 21st century.

    Answer:

    • Bangles covering the entire arm (still worn in Gujarat and Rajasthan).
    • Beads, shell bangles, and pendants.
    • Terracotta toys and whistles (similar to clay toys today).
    • The “namaste” gesture.
    • Board games resembling modern ludo or chess.

    Q6. What mindset does the system of reservoirs at Dholavira reflect?

    Answer (80–100 words):
    The reservoirs at Dholavira reflect the Harappans’ advanced civic sense, planning, and concern for sustainable living. They realised the importance of water in a dry region and built huge reservoirs, some cut into rocks. These were connected by underground drains for harvesting and storing water. This shows their ability to organise collective labour, manage resources, and create long-lasting infrastructure. It highlights their scientific approach and sense of responsibility towards society.

    Q7. In Mohenjo-daro, about 700 wells built with bricks have been counted. They seem to have been regularly maintained and used for several centuries. Discuss the implications.

    Answer:
    The 700 wells of Mohenjo-daro show the Harappans’ concern for hygiene, community health, and water supply. Their maintenance over centuries suggests there was a proper administration and civic body. It also means people valued clean water and had rules for its use. This indicates a highly organised society with collective responsibility, which is an important lesson even for modern cities.

    Q8. It is often said that the Harappans had a high civic sense. Discuss the significance of this statement. Do you agree with it? Compare with citizens in a large city of India today.

    Answer (150–180 words):
    Yes, the Harappans had a high civic sense. Their cities had wide streets, advanced drainage, wells, public baths, and planned housing. Both small and big houses were built with similar quality, showing fairness in society. The Great Bath and large reservoirs prove their attention to cleanliness and water management.

    In comparison, modern Indian cities often face problems like overflowing drains, unclean roads, and water shortages. While we have advanced technology, citizens sometimes neglect cleanliness and waste management. The Harappans, with fewer resources, still maintained discipline and collective responsibility.

    Thus, their example teaches us that civic sense and cooperation are vital for healthy urban life.

    Extra Questions – Chapter 6: The Beginnings of Indian Civilisation

    Very Short Answer Questions

    Q1. Why are Harappans also called Indus people?
    Because their cities grew along the Indus River and its tributaries.

    Q2. Which was the first Harappan site excavated?
    Harappa (in present-day Pakistan).

    Q3. Which metal alloy did Harappans make using copper and tin?
    Bronze.

    Q4. Name one important port city of the Harappans.
    Lothal in Gujarat.

    Q5. Which famous figurine from Mohenjo-daro shows artistic skills?
    The bronze “Dancing Girl.”

    Short Answer Questions

    Q6. What did Harappans grow in their fields?
    They grew wheat, barley, millets, rice, pulses, vegetables, and cotton.

    Q7. What were Harappan seals used for?
    Seals were used for trade and identification. They carried animal figures and script signs.

    Q8. Mention two reasons for the decline of the Harappan civilisation.
    Climatic change causing drought, and drying up of the Sarasvatī River.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q9. Explain the importance of Harappan trade.
    Harappans traded beads, ornaments, cotton, timber, and food with Mesopotamia, Oman, and other regions. They used land, river, and sea routes. The dockyard at Lothal shows maritime trade. Seals helped identify goods. Trade spread Harappan culture and linked India with other civilisations.

    Q10. What do we learn about Harappan society from excavated objects?
    We learn that they used bronze mirrors, terracotta pots, weights, chisels, toys, and whistles in daily life. Figurines like the “Priest King,” “Dancing Girl,” and seals with deities show their culture and beliefs. Ornaments, bangles, and beads reflect fashion still familiar today. These finds tell us about their economy, religion, and lifestyle.