Statistics for Management, Operations, and Operations Research
SECTION A – STATISTICS: CONCEPTS & DESCRIPTIVE ANALYSIS
1. Statistics in management is primarily used to:
A. Replace intuition with quantitative analysis
B. Eliminate human judgment
C. Avoid decision-making
D. Only summarize data
Answer: A
Explanation: Statistics brings objectivity and helps managers make rational decisions based on numerical evidence.*
2. Which of the following is not a function of statistics?
A. Data presentation
B. Forecasting
C. Moral judgment
D. Data collection
Answer: C
Explanation: Statistics is factual and quantitative; moral judgment is outside its scope.*
3. Descriptive statistics involves:
A. Summarizing and presenting data
B. Drawing inferences
C. Testing hypotheses
D. Estimating parameters
Answer: A
4. The process of drawing conclusions about a population based on sample data is called:
A. Inferential statistics
B. Descriptive statistics
C. Enumeration
D. Classification
Answer: A
5. Which of the following scales has a true zero?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
Answer: D
Explanation: Ratio scale includes an absolute zero, allowing ratio comparisons (e.g., weight, income).*
6. In a normal distribution, mean = median = mode.
Answer: True
Explanation: Normal distribution is symmetric; all measures of central tendency coincide.*
7. Which is the most affected by extreme values?
A. Median
B. Mode
C. Mean
D. Geometric mean
Answer: C
8. The measure that divides data into 100 equal parts is called:
A. Percentiles
B. Quartiles
C. Deciles
D. None
Answer: A
9. If Mean = 50 and SD = 5, what is the coefficient of variation (CV)?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: A
10. For skewed data, which measure is most appropriate?
A. Median
B. Mean
C. Mode
D. Range
Answer: A
Explanation: Median is less affected by extreme values and better represents central tendency.*
🔹 SECTION B – DISPERSION & PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTIONS
11. The square root of variance gives:
A. Mean deviation
B. Standard deviation
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Range
Answer: B
12. A low coefficient of variation indicates:
A. High consistency
B. High variability
C. Instability
D. None
Answer: A
13. In a binomial distribution, mean = np. If n = 10 and p = 0.3, mean = ?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: A
14. For Poisson distribution, variance = ?
A. Mean
B. np(1−p)
C. n²p
D. None
Answer: A
15. The shape of a normal distribution curve is:
A. Bell-shaped and symmetric
B. Positively skewed
C. Negatively skewed
D. Uniform
Answer: A
16. In a normal distribution, 95.45% of data lies within:
A. ±1σ
B. ±2σ
C. ±3σ
D. ±4σ
Answer: B
17. The total area under a probability density curve equals:
A. 1
B. 0
C. 100
D. Mean value
Answer: A
18. The expected number of occurrences in Poisson distribution is represented by:
A. m or λ
B. σ²
C. n
D. p
Answer: A
19. Exponential distribution is used to model:
A. Waiting or service time
B. Number of trials
C. Income distribution
D. None
Answer: A
20. If two events A and B are independent, then
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
🔹 SECTION C – SAMPLING AND QUESTIONNAIRE DESIGN
21. Sampling is used because:
A. Studying the whole population is costly and time-consuming
B. Complete enumeration is impossible
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C
22. Sampling error arises due to:
A. Observing only a part of population
B. Faulty data recording
C. Incorrect coding
D. None
Answer: A
23. In stratified sampling, the population is divided into:
A. Homogeneous groups (strata)
B. Heterogeneous groups
C. Random clusters
D. None
Answer: A
24. Systematic sampling involves:
A. Selecting every kth item from a list
B. Random selection
C. Dividing into strata
D. None
Answer: A
25. Snowball sampling is especially useful for:
A. Hidden or hard-to-reach populations
B. Large homogeneous populations
C. Statistical inference
D. None
Answer: A
26. The first step in questionnaire design is:
A. Defining objectives
B. Drafting questions
C. Testing
D. Editing
Answer: A
27. Which type of question allows freedom in answering?
A. Open-ended
B. Closed-ended
C. Dichotomous
D. Multiple choice
Answer: A
28. A biased questionnaire results in:
A. Invalid data
B. Accurate results
C. Efficient sampling
D. None
Answer: A
29. The purpose of pilot testing a questionnaire is:
A. To identify and correct errors before final use
B. To collect final data
C. To test reliability only
D. None
Answer: A
30. The most common non-probability sampling used in marketing surveys is:
A. Convenience sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Random sampling
D. Systematic sampling
Answer: A
🔹 SECTION D – HYPOTHESIS TESTING
31. The null hypothesis (H₀) assumes:
A. No significant difference exists
B. A difference exists
C. Sample is biased
D. None
Answer: A
32. The level of significance is:
A. Probability of committing Type I error
B. Probability of Type II error
C. Power of test
D. None
Answer: A
33. Type I error occurs when:
A. True H₀ is rejected
B. False H₀ is accepted
C. False H₁ is accepted
D. Both A and C
Answer: A
34. Which test is suitable for small samples with unknown variance?
A. t-test
B. Z-test
C. F-test
D. χ² test
Answer: A
35. Z-test is used when:
A. Population variance is known
B. Sample size is large (n>30)
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C
36. Chi-square test is applied to:
A. Qualitative or categorical data
B. Continuous data
C. Large numerical datasets
D. None
Answer: A
37. F-test is used to compare:
A. Two variances
B. Two means
C. Two proportions
D. Two correlations
Answer: A
38. In hypothesis testing, “p-value” indicates:
A. Probability of obtaining test statistic at least as extreme as observed
B. Mean of data
C. Sample size
D. None
Answer: A
39. A two-tailed test is used when:
A. Deviation can occur in either direction
B. Deviation occurs only on one side
C. Data are nominal
D. None
Answer: A
40. The decision to reject H₀ is made when:
A. p-value < α
B. p-value > α
C. Mean difference = 0
D. None
Answer: A
🔹 SECTION E – CORRELATION & REGRESSION
41. Karl Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures:
A. Strength and direction of linear relationship
B. Cause-effect relationship
C. Non-linear association
D. None
Answer: A
42. If r = +1, the two variables are:
A. Perfectly positively correlated
B. Perfectly negatively correlated
C. Unrelated
D. None
Answer: A
43. If correlation between X and Y is zero, it means:
A. No linear relationship
B. Independent variables
C. Non-linear relation exists
D. None
Answer: A
44. Regression analysis helps in:
A. Predicting one variable from another
B. Comparing means
C. Sampling
D. None
Answer: A
45. The slope (b) in regression equation indicates:
A. Change in Y per unit change in X
B. Mean of Y
C. Intercept
D. None
Answer: A
46. If r = 0.8, coefficient of determination
A. 0.64
B. 0.8
C. 1.6
D. 0.4
Answer: A
47. In multiple regression, number of independent variables is:
A. More than one
B. One
C. Two only
D. None
Answer: A
48. Regression coefficient can be negative.
Answer: True
49. Correlation implies causation.
Answer: False
Explanation: Correlation shows association, not cause-effect relationship.*
50. Spearman’s rank correlation is suitable for:
A. Ordinal data
B. Ratio data
C. Interval data
D. None
Answer: A
SECTION F – OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
51. Operations Management primarily deals with:
A. Conversion of inputs into outputs efficiently
B. Marketing of products
C. Accounting for profit
D. Setting financial goals
Answer: A
Explanation: Operations Management focuses on optimizing production and service processes to deliver value.*
52. The main objective of Operations Management is:
A. Increase efficiency and effectiveness
B. Maximize advertising
C. Minimize competition
D. None
Answer: A
53. Which of the following is not a function of Operations Management?
A. Product design
B. Plant layout
C. Inventory control
D. Stock valuation
Answer: D
54. Productivity is defined as:
A. Output / Input
B. Input / Output
C. Profit / Cost
D. Cost / Revenue
Answer: A
55. A major decision area in Operations Management includes:
A. Facility location
B. Promotion mix
C. Financial investment
D. Tax planning
Answer: A
56. Facility location decision is critical because:
A. It affects cost, accessibility, and efficiency
B. It changes daily
C. It has no long-term impact
D. None
Answer: A
57. The process layout is most suitable for:
A. Job production
B. Mass production
C. Continuous production
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation: In job production, different processes are grouped by function (e.g., hospital, repair shop).*
58. Product layout is ideal when:
A. Volume is high and variety is low
B. Volume is low and variety is high
C. Demand is uncertain
D. None
Answer: A
59. A fixed-position layout is used in:
A. Shipbuilding and construction projects
B. Assembly lines
C. Textile manufacturing
D. None
Answer: A
60. “Cellular Layout” combines advantages of:
A. Process and Product Layout
B. Job and Project Layout
C. Fixed and Functional Layout
D. None
Answer: A
SECTION G – ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP)
61. ERP stands for:
A. Enterprise Resource Planning
B. Enterprise Research Process
C. Efficient Resource Planning
D. None
Answer: A
62. ERP is best described as:
A. An integrated information system covering all functional areas
B. A financial planning tool
C. A marketing strategy
D. A manufacturing technique
Answer: A
63. The core modules of ERP typically include:
A. Finance, HR, Production, SCM, CRM
B. Advertising and Design
C. Tax and Audit
D. None
Answer: A
64. Which of the following is an ERP vendor?
A. SAP
B. Oracle
C. Microsoft Dynamics
D. All of the above
Answer: D
65. A major challenge in ERP implementation is:
A. Resistance to change
B. System integration
C. High cost
D. All of the above
Answer: D
66. ERP improves decision-making by:
A. Providing real-time data and integrated reports
B. Isolating departments
C. Reducing transparency
D. None
Answer: A
67. The first step in ERP implementation is:
A. Requirement analysis and planning
B. Testing
C. Data migration
D. Training
Answer: A
68. One of the main benefits of ERP is:
A. Reduced redundancy and duplication of data
B. Increased manual work
C. Fragmented systems
D. None
Answer: A
69. ERP integrates:
A. Information across departments
B. Competitors’ data
C. Market research
D. None
Answer: A
70. ERP’s biggest advantage in supply chain management is:
A. Visibility of inventory and orders
B. Advertisement design
C. Labour reduction
D. None
Answer: A
🔹 SECTION H – SCHEDULING, SEQUENCING & MONITORING
71. Scheduling refers to:
A. Determining when and in what order jobs are performed
B. Assigning machines to workers
C. Estimating production cost
D. None
Answer: A
72. Loading is:
A. Assigning jobs to specific machines or departments
B. Recording sales
C. Maintenance activity
D. None
Answer: A
73. Sequencing is about:
A. Deciding priority of jobs
B. Setting targets
C. Estimating time
D. None
Answer: A
74. The rule “SPT” in sequencing means:
A. Shortest Processing Time
B. Standard Production Target
C. Sequential Process Time
D. None
Answer: A
75. Monitoring in production control ensures:
A. Adherence to schedule and corrective actions
B. Pricing policy
C. Quality audit only
D. None
Answer: A
76. “Dispatching” in production control refers to:
A. Issuing work orders to start operations
B. Planning demand
C. Procurement
D. None
Answer: A
77. Which of the following minimizes average job flow time?
A. SPT rule
B. FCFS rule
C. EDD rule
D. LPT rule
Answer: A
78. A Gantt chart is used for:
A. Scheduling and progress tracking
B. Statistical analysis
C. Regression analysis
D. None
Answer: A
79. Bottleneck operations are:
A. Work centers limiting system capacity
B. Unused machines
C. Idle resources
D. None
Answer: A
80. Effective scheduling results in:
A. Improved utilization, reduced idle time, timely delivery
B. Increased cost
C. Delayed production
D. None
Answer: A
SECTION I – QUALITY MANAGEMENT
81. Quality means:
A. Fitness for intended purpose
B. High cost
C. Luxury
D. None
Answer: A
82. Statistical Quality Control (SQC) uses:
A. Control charts
B. Inventory models
C. Demand forecasting
D. None
Answer: A
83. Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasizes:
A. Continuous improvement and customer satisfaction
B. Inspection only
C. Reduction in workforce
D. None
Answer: A
84. Kaizen refers to:
A. Continuous small improvements
B. Employee layoffs
C. Major innovation
D. None
Answer: A
85. Benchmarking means:
A. Comparing performance with best practices
B. Copying competitors blindly
C. Auditing accounts
D. None
Answer: A
86. Six Sigma aims at:
A. Reducing defects to less than 3.4 per million opportunities
B. Achieving 100% output
C. Increasing production cost
D. None
Answer: A
87. The DMAIC cycle stands for:
A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
B. Develop, Manage, Audit, Implement, Correct
C. None
Answer: A
88. ISO 9000 is related to:
A. Quality management system standards
B. Environmental norms
C. Cost control
D. None
Answer: A
89. A Pareto chart identifies:
A. Major causes contributing most to problems (80/20 rule)
B. Average performance
C. Random variation
D. None
Answer: A
90. Control limits in control charts are set at:
A. ±3σ
B. ±1σ
C. ±2σ
D. None
Answer: A
SECTION J – OPERATIONS RESEARCH (OR)
91. Operations Research is:
A. Application of scientific methods to decision-making
B. Human resource study
C. Market analysis
D. None
Answer: A
92. Objective of Operations Research is:
A. Optimization of limited resources
B. Cost increase
C. Sales increase only
D. None
Answer: A
93. The transportation model aims to:
A. Minimize cost of shipping goods between sources and destinations
B. Forecast demand
C. Schedule maintenance
D. None
Answer: A
94. The initial feasible solution in transportation problems can be found by:
A. North-West Corner, Least Cost, VAM
B. Linear Regression
C. PERT
D. None
Answer: A
95. Queuing theory deals with:
A. Waiting lines and service systems
B. Inventory planning
C. Facility layout
D. None
Answer: A
96. Arrival rate (λ) and service rate (μ) are parameters in:
A. Queuing model
B. Regression model
C. Inventory model
D. None
Answer: A
97. Decision theory helps in:
A. Selecting best alternative under risk or uncertainty
B. Marketing segmentation
C. Labour planning
D. None
Answer: A
98. In PERT, expected time is calculated as:
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
99. Critical path in CPM represents:
A. Longest path determining project duration
B. Shortest path
C. Average path
D. None
Answer: A
100. Slack time indicates:
A. Maximum delay possible without affecting project completion
B. Idle labour
C. Cost overrun
D. None
Answer: A
