Tag: UGC NET Dec NTA 2025

UGC NET Economics Unit 1– Decision Making under Uncertainty and Attitude towards Risk – MCQs

1.

Decision-making under risk differs from decision-making under uncertainty because:
A) Under risk, probabilities of outcomes are known.
B) Under uncertainty, outcomes are known but not probabilities.
C) Both A and B are correct.
D) Neither A nor B.
Answer: C

2.

Which of the following statements describes the Expected Utility Theory?
A) Individuals maximize expected income.
B) Individuals maximize expected satisfaction.
C) Individuals maximize expected utility.
D) Individuals minimize expected loss.
Answer: C

3.

The concept of Expected Utility was introduced by:
A) Adam Smith
B) von Neumann and Morgenstern
C) J.R. Hicks
D) Milton Friedman
Answer: B

4.

Expected Utility is calculated as:

$E U = \sum p_{i} \times U (x_{i})$

This implies that:
A) Utility depends only on income.
B) Expected utility is the weighted average of utilities.
C) Probabilities are irrelevant.
D) Only risk-free options matter.
Answer: B

5.

A person is said to be risk-averse if:
A) They prefer risky outcomes to certain ones.
B) They are indifferent between risky and certain outcomes.
C) They prefer certainty to risk with the same expected value.
D) They dislike certainty.
Answer: C

6.

For a risk-averse individual, the utility function is:
A) Linear
B) Concave to the origin
C) Convex to the origin
D) Vertical
Answer: B

7.

A risk lover has a utility function that is:
A) Concave
B) Linear
C) Convex
D) Steeply declining
Answer: C

8.

A risk-neutral person has:
A) Diminishing marginal utility of income
B) Constant marginal utility of income
C) Increasing marginal utility of income
D) No marginal utility
Answer: B

9.

The Certainty Equivalent (CE) refers to:
A) Expected value of income
B) Guaranteed income providing same utility as expected utility of risky prospect
C) Minimum income level
D) The probability of a risky event
Answer: B

10.

If a person is risk-averse, then the certainty equivalent will be:
A) Greater than expected income
B) Less than expected income
C) Equal to expected income
D) Independent of expected utility
Answer: B

11.

The Risk Premium is defined as:
A) The amount paid to avoid risk
B) The extra return for taking risk
C) The probability of success in risky projects
D) The difference between utility and income
Answer: A

12.

The mathematical expression for the Risk Premium is:

$R P = E (W) - C E$

For a risk-averse individual, this will be:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Undefined
Answer: A

13.

The Arrow-Pratt Measure of Risk Aversion is given by:

$r (W) = - \frac{U^{''} (W)}{U^{'} (W)}$

It measures:
A) Risk tolerance
B) Curvature of the utility function
C) Expected value of risk
D) Marginal probability
Answer: B

14.

When $U^{''} (W) < 0$ , the individual is:
A) Risk-averse
B) Risk-neutral
C) Risk-loving
D) Indifferent
Answer: A

15.

Under the Maximin Criterion, the decision-maker:
A) Chooses the alternative with the maximum possible payoff
B) Chooses the alternative with the maximum of the minimum payoffs
C) Chooses based on highest average payoff
D) Ignores the worst outcomes
Answer: B

16.

The Maximax Criterion is typically adopted by:
A) Pessimists
B) Optimists
C) Realists
D) Neutral decision-makers
Answer: B

17.

The Hurwicz Criterion uses:
A) Probabilities of all outcomes
B) Coefficient of optimism between 0 and 1
C) Only maximum payoff
D) Only minimum payoff
Answer: B

18.

The Laplace Criterion assumes:
A) Equal probabilities for all outcomes
B) Unequal probabilities
C) Extreme pessimism
D) Extreme optimism
Answer: A

19.

The Minimax Regret Criterion focuses on:
A) Maximizing profit
B) Minimizing maximum possible loss
C) Minimizing maximum regret
D) Maximizing minimum gain
Answer: C

20.

Which decision rule is associated with a pessimistic outlook?
A) Maximax
B) Maximin
C) Laplace
D) Hurwicz
Answer: B

21.

According to Expected Utility Theory, rational individuals will choose:
A) The option with maximum expected income
B) The option with maximum expected utility
C) The option with least variance
D) The option with least cost
Answer: B

22.

Which of the following correctly represents risk aversion?
A) $U (E (W)) = E [U (W)]$
B) $U (E (W)) > E [U (W)]$
C) $U (E (W)) < E [U (W)]$
D) $U (E (W)) = 0$
Answer: B

23.

The concept of risk premium arises because of:
A) Diminishing marginal utility of income
B) Increasing marginal utility of income
C) Constant marginal utility
D) No marginal utility
Answer: A

24.

The Expected Monetary Value (EMV) criterion differs from Expected Utility Theory because:
A) It ignores risk preferences
B) It measures subjective utility
C) It uses non-probabilistic outcomes
D) It considers regret
Answer: A

25.

If the utility function is linear, the person is:
A) Risk-averse
B) Risk-neutral
C) Risk-loving
D) Risk-ignorant
Answer: B

26.

In the Prospect Theory by Kahneman and Tversky, individuals:
A) Evaluate outcomes based on absolute wealth
B) Evaluate outcomes relative to a reference point
C) Always act rationally
D) Ignore losses
Answer: B

27.

According to Prospect Theory, individuals exhibit:
A) Risk-seeking behaviour in gains and risk aversion in losses
B) Risk aversion in gains and risk-seeking in losses
C) Neutral behaviour
D) Indifference between gain and loss
Answer: B

28.

In real-world decision-making, individuals often satisfice rather than maximize. This concept was proposed by:
A) John von Neumann
B) Herbert Simon
C) Milton Friedman
D) Kenneth Arrow
Answer: B

29.

A risk-neutral firm evaluates projects based on:
A) Expected profit only
B) Expected utility
C) Risk premium
D) Certainty equivalent
Answer: A

30.

Which of the following statements is true about decision-making under uncertainty?
A) Probabilities of outcomes are precisely known.
B) Expected utility can always be calculated.
C) Decision depends on subjective attitude towards risk.
D) Risk premium is always zero.
Answer: C

October 31, 2025
UGC NET Economics Unit-1 Theory of Consumer Behaviour MCQs-2

1.

In the indifference curve approach, consumer equilibrium is achieved when:
A) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y}$
B) $M R S_{x y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
C) $M R S_{x y} = M U_{x} / M U_{y}$
D) $P_{x} / P_{y} = M U_{y} / M U_{x}$
Answer: B

2.

Which of the following assumptions is not necessary for the ordinal utility approach?
A) Rational behaviour
B) Measurability of utility
C) Diminishing MRS
D) Transitivity of preferences
Answer: B

3.

The shape of an indifference curve showing perfect complements will be:
A) Downward-sloping straight line
B) Convex to the origin
C) L-shaped
D) Upward-sloping
Answer: C

4.

If a consumer’s income and all prices double, the budget line will:
A) Shift outward parallelly
B) Rotate about the origin
C) Remain unchanged
D) Become flatter
Answer: C

5.

The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility forms the basis of:
A) Law of Demand
B) Law of Supply
C) Theory of Factor Pricing
D) Indifference Curve Analysis
Answer: A

6.

In Revealed Preference Theory, if a consumer chooses bundle A over B when both are affordable, it implies:
A) A is less preferred than B
B) A and B are equally preferred
C) A is revealed preferred to B
D) Prices are identical
Answer: C

7.

The slope of the budget line is equal to:
A) $- P_{x} / P_{y}$
B) $- P_{y} / P_{x}$
C) $M U_{x} / M U_{y}$
D) $M R S_{x y}$
Answer: A

8.

The indifference curve is convex to the origin because of:
A) Increasing MRS
B) Constant MRS
C) Diminishing MRS
D) Negative utility
Answer: C

9.

A straight-line indifference curve indicates:
A) Perfect substitutes
B) Perfect complements
C) No relation between goods
D) Inferior goods
Answer: A

10.

If MRS diminishes at a decreasing rate, indifference curves will be:
A) Linear
B) Steeper than normal
C) More convex
D) Less convex
Answer: D

11.

Consumer Surplus is the:
A) Difference between total utility and total expenditure
B) Difference between marginal utility and price
C) Ratio of utility to price
D) Product of utility and price
Answer: A

12.

Who first introduced the concept of Consumer Surplus?
A) J.R. Hicks
B) Alfred Marshall
C) Vilfredo Pareto
D) Paul Samuelson
Answer: B

13.

In the Hicksian method, Consumer Surplus is measured through:
A) Marginal Utility
B) Compensating and Equivalent Variations
C) Money Income
D) Revealed Preferences
Answer: B

14.

According to Samuelson’s Revealed Preference Theory, the Law of Demand can be derived without:
A) Indifference curves
B) Utility measurement
C) Budget constraints
D) Price ratios
Answer: B

15.

The tangency point between the budget line and indifference curve represents:
A) Minimum satisfaction
B) Maximum satisfaction
C) Equal satisfaction
D) Minimum expenditure
Answer: B

16.

If income increases and the prices of both goods remain constant, the budget line:
A) Shifts outward parallelly
B) Shifts inward parallelly
C) Rotates clockwise
D) Becomes vertical
Answer: A

17.

When the consumer’s equilibrium shifts due to a fall in price of good X, it is an example of:
A) Income effect only
B) Substitution effect only
C) Both income and substitution effects
D) Price effect
Answer: D

18.

The slope of the indifference curve measures:
A) Marginal Utility
B) Marginal Rate of Substitution
C) Price Ratio
D) Total Utility
Answer: B

19.

The Law of Equi-Marginal Utility states that a consumer allocates his expenditure such that:
A) $M U_{x} = M U_{y}$
B) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y}$
C) $M U_{x} / M U_{y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
D) $M U_{x} = P_{y}$
Answer: B

20.

Which of the following statements is true about a Giffen good?
A) Income effect is positive and greater than substitution effect
B) Substitution effect dominates income effect
C) Price effect is negative
D) Income effect and substitution effect are equal
Answer: A

21.

The Slutsky Equation decomposes the price effect into:
A) Income and substitution effects
B) Income and price effects
C) Price and demand effects
D) Substitution and cross-price effects
Answer: A

22.

A consumer’s equilibrium can also be expressed as:
A) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y} = M U_{m}$
B) $M U_{x} / M U_{y} = P_{y} / P_{x}$
C) $M R S_{x y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
D) All of the above
Answer: D

23.

If two indifference curves intersect, it violates:
A) Non-satiation
B) Rationality
C) Consistency and transitivity
D) Convexity
Answer: C

24.

The Ordinal Utility Theory was introduced by:
A) Alfred Marshall
B) Vilfredo Pareto
C) Lionel Robbins
D) Adam Smith
Answer: B

25.

The Revealed Preference Theory improves on Indifference Curve Analysis by:
A) Using real-life behaviour instead of assumptions
B) Measuring utility in numbers
C) Ignoring rationality
D) Using only one good
Answer: A

26.

The indifference curve approach was popularized through the work of:
A) Hicks and Allen
B) Pareto and Marshall
C) Robbins and Pigou
D) Keynes and Fisher
Answer: A

27.

A horizontal budget line implies that:
A) The price of good Y is zero
B) The price of good X is zero
C) The consumer has zero income
D) The goods are perfect complements
Answer: B

28.

If both income and the price of X double while the price of Y remains constant, the budget line will:
A) Shift outward
B) Shift inward
C) Rotate about the Y-axis
D) Remain unchanged
Answer: C

29.

In consumer theory, the substitution effect isolates:
A) Change in quantity demanded due to change in real income
B) Change due to change in relative prices
C) Change in utility level
D) Total price effect
Answer: B

30.

Under the Revealed Preference Hypothesis, preferences are assumed to be:
A) Random and inconsistent
B) Transitive, consistent, and rational
C) Constant but non-transitive
D) Dependent on income only
Answer: B

October 30, 2025
UGC NET Economics Unit-1 Theory of Consumer Behaviour MCQs-1

1.

The Indifference Curve technique assumes:
A) Utility is measurable in cardinal numbers.
B) Consumer behaviour is inconsistent.
C) Utility is comparable only in order of preference.
D) Marginal utility of money is diminishing.
Answer: C

2.

According to the Ordinal Utility approach, consumer equilibrium is obtained when:
A) The consumer attains maximum utility subject to income constraint.
B) Marginal utilities of goods are equal.
C) Price of one good equals its marginal utility.
D) Income equals total expenditure.
Answer: A

3.

Which of the following is not an assumption of the Indifference Curve analysis?
A) Rationality of the consumer
B) Constant income
C) Interdependence of utilities
D) Transitivity of preferences
Answer: C

4.

The Law of Equi-Marginal Utility can be expressed as:
A) $M U_{x} = M U_{y} = M U_{z}$
B) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y} = M U_{z} / P_{z}$
C) $M U_{x} \times P_{x} = M U_{y} \times P_{y}$
D) $M U_{x} / M U_{y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
Answer: B

5.

The slope of the Indifference Curve equals:
A) Marginal Rate of Substitution
B) Ratio of total utilities
C) Price ratio of goods
D) Marginal utilities of income
Answer: A

6.

If the price of good X falls and all else remains constant, the new equilibrium point will:
A) Move upward along the indifference map
B) Move downward along the same curve
C) Shift to a higher indifference curve
D) Remain unchanged
Answer: C

7.

Under Revealed Preference theory, a consumer reveals preference for bundle A over B when:
A) Bundle A is cheaper than B.
B) Both bundles yield equal utility.
C) A is chosen even when B was affordable.
D) Prices of goods remain constant.
Answer: C

8.

The Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution implies that:
A) Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
B) Indifference curves are straight lines.
C) Consumer preferences are inconsistent.
D) Goods are perfect complements.
Answer: A

9.

Which of the following combinations depicts consumer equilibrium under the Ordinal Utility approach?
A) $M R S_{x y} = M U_{x} / M U_{y}$
B) $M R S_{x y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
C) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y}$
D) $M U_{x} = M U_{y} = 0$
Answer: B

10.

The substitution effect shows:
A) Change in consumption due to change in real income.
B) Change due to change in relative prices of goods.
C) Change in total utility.
D) Shift in budget line parallelly outward.
Answer: B

11.

When two goods are perfect substitutes, the indifference curves will be:
A) Concave to the origin.
B) Convex to the origin.
C) L-shaped.
D) Straight lines.
Answer: D

12.

In Marshall’s concept of Consumer Surplus, utility is:
A) Ordinal
B) Cardinal and measurable in money terms
C) Relative
D) Socially determined
Answer: B

13.

Hicksian measurement of consumer surplus is based on:
A) Compensating and Equivalent Variations.
B) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility.
C) Demand function only.
D) Revealed preferences.
Answer: A

14.

In the Indifference Curve analysis, the consumer’s budget line shifts parallelly outward when:
A) Prices fall in the same proportion.
B) Income increases.
C) Prices rise in the same proportion.
D) Income decreases.
Answer: B

15.

The Revealed Preference approach assumes that consumer behaviour is:
A) Irrational but measurable.
B) Consistent and transitive.
C) Random and unpredictable.
D) Dependent only on income.
Answer: B

16.

The equilibrium between marginal utilities and prices in the Cardinal approach indicates:
A) Maximization of satisfaction.
B) Minimization of expenditure.
C) Constant total utility.
D) Equality of total utilities.
Answer: A

17.

Which one of the following correctly expresses consumer equilibrium in the Cardinal Utility approach?
A) $M U_{x} / M U_{y} = P_{x} / P_{y}$
B) $M U_{x} / P_{x} = M U_{y} / P_{y} = M U_{m}$
C) $M U_{x} = P_{x} = M U_{y} = P_{y}$
D) $M U_{x} + M U_{y} = M U_{m}$
Answer: B

18.

The Slutsky Equation divides the price effect into:
A) Income effect + Substitution effect
B) Price effect + Utility effect
C) Income effect + Wealth effect
D) Price effect + Demand effect
Answer: A

19.

If two indifference curves intersect, the assumption violated is:
A) Rationality
B) Transitivity of preferences
C) Diminishing MRS
D) Completeness of choice
Answer: B

20.

The Law of Demand under Revealed Preference Theory can be derived because:
A) Utility is measurable.
B) Consumers behave inconsistently.
C) Price-quantity relationship is observable.
D) Consumers’ income remains fixed.
Answer: C

21.

Under Cardinal Utility theory, the marginal utility of money is assumed to be:
A) Constant
B) Increasing
C) Decreasing
D) Negative
Answer: A

22.

A rightward rotation of the budget line around the Y-axis indicates:
A) Fall in price of good X.
B) Increase in price of good Y.
C) Rise in consumer income.
D) Fall in income.
Answer: A

23.

In case of Giffen goods:
A) Both income and substitution effects reinforce each other.
B) Negative income effect outweighs substitution effect.
C) Substitution effect dominates income effect.
D) Price effect is positive.
Answer: B

24.

Consumer equilibrium changes to a higher indifference curve when:
A) Income decreases.
B) Price of one good rises.
C) Income increases or price falls.
D) Budget line becomes steeper.
Answer: C

25.

The Indifference Map represents:
A) All combinations giving different levels of satisfaction.
B) Combinations yielding the same utility.
C) Price combinations of goods.
D) Income levels at equilibrium.
Answer: A

26.

An upward-sloping indifference curve would indicate:
A) Normal goods.
B) Inferior goods.
C) Giffen goods.
D) Both goods are ‘bads’.
Answer: D

27.

In consumer theory, the substitution effect is always:
A) Negative
B) Positive
C) Neutral
D) Equal to price effect
Answer: B

28.

If the income effect is zero, the good must be:
A) Normal
B) Inferior
C) Neutral
D) Giffen
Answer: C

29.

The convexity of indifference curves reflects:
A) Diminishing MRS
B) Increasing MRS
C) Constant MRS
D) Increasing marginal utility
Answer: A

30.

According to Hicks, the main advantage of the Ordinal approach over the Cardinal one is:
A) It does not require utility measurement.
B) It eliminates the need for demand theory.
C) It measures satisfaction in monetary terms.
D) It assumes increasing marginal utility.
Answer: A

October 30, 2025

UGC NET Economics Unit 1-Theory of Consumer Behaviour

1. Introduction

The Theory of Consumer Behaviour deals with how consumers allocate their limited income among various goods and services to maximize satisfaction (utility). It forms the foundation of microeconomic analysis and demand theory.

The central question it addresses is:

“Given income and prices, what combination of goods will a rational consumer choose to maximize satisfaction?”

2. Approaches to the Theory of Consumer Behaviour

A. Cardinal Utility Approach (Marshallian Approach)

Assumptions

Measurable Utility: Utility can be measured in cardinal numbers like 1, 2, 3… (Utils).
Rational Consumer: The consumer aims to maximize total utility.
Diminishing Marginal Utility: As more of a good is consumed, the additional utility derived from each extra unit declines.
Independent Utilities: The utility of one commodity is independent of others.
Constant Marginal Utility of Money: The marginal utility of money remains unchanged.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility (DMU)

“As more units of a good are consumed, the additional satisfaction from each successive unit decreases.”

Mathematically:

$M U_{x} = \frac{Δ T U}{Δ Q_{x}}$

where $M U_{x}$ = Marginal Utility of good X, $Δ T U$ = change in total utility, $Δ Q_{x}$ = change in quantity consumed.

Consumer’s Equilibrium under Cardinal Utility

A consumer attains equilibrium when:

$\frac{M U_{x}}{P_{x}} = \frac{M U_{y}}{P_{y}} = M U_{m}$

where $M U_{m}$ is the marginal utility of money.

B. Ordinal Utility Approach (Indifference Curve Analysis)

Key Contributors

Vilfredo Pareto (1906), further developed by Hicks and Allen (1934) in Value and Capital.

Core Concept

Utility cannot be measured; it can only be ranked (ordered). Consumers can indicate preferences between bundles, not the exact level of satisfaction.

Assumptions

Rationality: Consumer seeks to maximize satisfaction.
Ordinal Utility: Preferences can be ordered (A preferred to B, etc.).
Transitivity: If A > B and B > C, then A > C.
Non-satiation: More of a good gives higher satisfaction.
Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution (DMRS): As a consumer substitutes X for Y, the amount of Y he gives up for one more unit of X decreases.

3. Indifference Curve Analysis

Indifference Curve (IC)

An IC shows combinations of two goods that provide equal satisfaction to the consumer.
Thus, the consumer is indifferent among all combinations on the same IC.

Properties of Indifference Curves

Negatively Sloped: More of one good means less of the other to maintain same utility.
Convex to the Origin: Due to the law of diminishing MRS.
Non-Intersecting: Two ICs cannot cross each other.
Higher ICs Indicate Higher Utility: IC3 > IC2 > IC1.

Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS)

The rate at which the consumer is willing to give up Y for one more unit of X, keeping satisfaction constant.

$M R S_{x y} = - \frac{Δ Y}{Δ X}$

Diminishing MRS: As more of X is consumed, less of Y is sacrificed — hence IC is convex.

Budget Line

Represents all possible combinations of two goods that a consumer can buy with given income (M) and prices $P_{x}, P_{y}$ .

$P_{x} X + P_{y} Y = M$

Slope of the budget line: $- \frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}$

Shifts:

Increase in income → Parallel outward shift.
Increase in price of one good → Rotation of line.

Consumer’s Equilibrium (Hicksian Equilibrium)

Occurs where Indifference Curve is tangent to the Budget Line:

$\frac{M U_{x}}{M U_{y}} = \frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}$

At this point, MRS = Price Ratio. The consumer maximizes satisfaction given constraints.

4. Revealed Preference Theory (Samuelson, 1947)

This theory avoids the unobservable concept of utility. Instead, it relies on observed choices.

Assumptions

Rationality: Consumer prefers more to less.
Consistency: If A is preferred to B, B cannot be preferred to A.
Transitivity: If A > B and B > C, then A > C.
Stable Preferences: Preferences remain unchanged during analysis.

Axiom of Revealed Preference

If a consumer chooses bundle A over B when both are affordable, A is revealed preferred to B.

Implications

Law of Demand can be derived without measuring utility.
Indifference curves can be deduced from observed behaviour.

5. Theory of Consumer Surplus

Origin:

Introduced by A.J. Dupuit (1844) and later formalized by Alfred Marshall.

Meaning:

The difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and what he actually pays.

Mathematically:

$C S = T U - (P \times Q)$

Hicksian Measurement (Indifference Curve Method):

Hicks redefined consumer surplus in ordinal terms using indifference curves and budget constraints — a superior alternative to Marshall’s cardinal concept.

6. Criticisms and Limitations

Theory	Key Limitations
Cardinal Utility	Unrealistic measurability of utility; constant MU of money assumption.
Indifference Curve	Complex for more than two goods; assumes stable preferences.
Revealed Preference	Ignores psychological motives; assumes consistency.
Consumer Surplus	Cannot be precisely measured; not applicable to necessities.

7. Modern Developments in Consumer Behaviour

Behavioral Economics: Challenges the assumption of rationality (bounded rationality, heuristics, biases).
Expected Utility and Risk: Consumers make choices under uncertainty using probability-weighted utilities.
Intertemporal Choice: Examines consumption decisions over time (Fisher model).

8. Key Diagrams for UGC NET

Indifference Curve and Budget Line (Consumer Equilibrium)
Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution
Revealed Preference and Budget Constraint
Hicksian Consumer Surplus Measurement

9. Summary Points

The theory of consumer behaviour explains how consumers make choices under constraints.
Ordinal utility replaces cardinal measurement for realistic analysis.
Indifference curve analysis is central to modern microeconomics.
Revealed preference theory provides a scientific basis using observed choices.
Consumer surplus measures welfare from consumption.

10. Suggested Readings

Hicks, J.R. Value and Capital
Samuelson, P.A. Foundations of Economic Analysis
Dwivedi, D.N. Principles of Economics
Mankiw, G.N. Principles of Microeconomics
Koutsoyiannis, A. Modern Microeconomics

October 30, 2025

UGC NET Western Theories on Art and Performance Studies – Performing Arts

1. Introduction

Western aesthetic theory has developed through centuries of philosophical reflection on the nature, purpose, and value of art.
From Plato’s suspicion of art as imitation to Dewey’s idea of art as experience, these theories have gradually shifted emphasis—from representation to creation, from object to experience, and from beauty to meaning and utility.

Understanding these frameworks helps connect Bharata’s Rasa theory with global aesthetic discourse.

2. Art as Imitation and Catharsis

(a) Plato – Art as Imitation (Mimesis)

Plato (427–347 BCE) in The Republic described art as mimesis, or imitation of the physical world.
Since the physical world itself is a copy of the perfect world of Ideas or Forms, art becomes an imitation of an imitation, twice removed from truth.
He regarded poets and painters as deceivers, appealing to emotion rather than reason, and potentially corrupting society.
Hence, Plato banished poets from his ideal state.
Purpose: None—art is misleading and morally dangerous.
Impact: Initiated a long debate on truth vs. appearance in aesthetics.

Indian parallel: While Plato rejected imitation, Bharata’s Nāṭyaśāstra sanctified representation (anukaraṇa) as a divine and educative act, turning imitation into spiritual revelation rather than falsehood.

(b) Aristotle – Art as Imitation and Catharsis

Aristotle (384–322 BCE) countered Plato in Poetics.
Accepted that art imitates life but claimed imitation is natural to humans and a source of knowledge and pleasure.
Defined tragedy as “an imitation of an action that is serious, complete, and of certain magnitude.”
The purpose of art, especially tragedy, is Catharsis—a purification or purgation of emotions such as pity and fearthrough empathetic experience.
Art provides moral and psychological balance by releasing suppressed emotions.

Keywords:
Mimesis → Representation → Emotional Education → Catharsis.

Comparison with Bharata:
Bharata’s Rasa-anubhava resembles Aristotle’s Catharsis; both involve transformation of emotion into aesthetic pleasure. However, Rasa is spiritual and universalized (ānanda), while Catharsis is ethical and psychological.

3. Art as Imagination

(a) Immanuel Kant (1724–1804)

In Critique of Judgment, Kant identified the faculty of imagination as central to aesthetic experience.
Art arises from a “free play of imagination and understanding.”
Aesthetic judgment is disinterested—not guided by utility or desire, but by pure contemplation.
The experience of the beautiful is thus subjective yet universal, since all rational beings share this free play of faculties.
Beauty in art gives the pleasure of “purposiveness without purpose.”

Key concept: Art does not imitate; it creates new forms of harmony through imagination.

(b) Samuel Taylor Coleridge (1772–1834)

Expanded Kantian thought; for Coleridge, imagination is the creative power that reconciles opposites—real and ideal, reason and emotion.
Distinguished between:
- Primary Imagination – spontaneous perception of reality;
- Secondary Imagination – conscious artistic creation that shapes reality anew.
Thus, art is a recreation of nature in the mind of the artist, not mere copying.

Indian connection:
Similar to Bhāvanā-vāda of Bhaṭṭanāyaka—where imagination (bhāvanā) universalizes emotion to produce Rasa.

4. Art as Beauty

(a) Aesthetic Idealism – Hegel and Croce

G. W. F. Hegel (1770–1831):
- Art is the sensuous manifestation of the Absolute Spirit.
- Through beauty, the spirit externalizes itself in material form.
- Art, religion, and philosophy are progressive revelations of Truth; art represents the Idea made visible.
- Thus, beauty is the unity of form and content—a visible idea.
Benedetto Croce (1866–1952):
- Beauty equals intuition or pure expression.
- Art is not logical or moral but intuitive knowledge, the expression of the artist’s inner vision.
- Every true expression is beautiful because it reveals individuality through intuition.

Comparison:
Hegel views beauty as the embodiment of the Idea; Croce as the expression of intuition.
Both make beauty central to art’s purpose.

Indian resonance:
Abhinavagupta’s Śānta-rasa also sees art as ananda-maya (blissful) realization of beauty — the merging of self with universal harmony.

5. Art as Communication

(a) Leo Tolstoy (1828–1910)

In What Is Art?, Tolstoy defined art as a means of communication of emotion.
The artist, moved by emotion, consciously transmits it to others through a medium.
The sincerity and universality of feeling determine artistic value.
Good art unites humanity by sharing sincere, moral emotions.

(b) John Dewey (1859–1952)

In Art as Experience, Dewey proposed that art is not an object but a dynamic experience.
Art integrates “doing and undergoing”: the artist’s creation and the spectator’s perception form a complete cycle of communication.
Every genuine experience has aesthetic quality when perception and action are harmonized.

Key Ideas:

Art as process, not product.
Meaning arises in communication between creator and perceiver.
Art and life are continuous—everyday acts can become aesthetic when fully experienced.

Indian parallel:
Bharata’s concept of Abhinaya as communication of Bhāva to evoke Rasa mirrors Tolstoy’s and Dewey’s communicative theories.

6. Art as Utility

(a) Marxist Aesthetics

Rooted in the materialist view of society, Marxist thinkers (Marx, Engels, Lukács, Brecht) see art as a social product reflecting the conditions of its age.
Art is not autonomous but shaped by class struggle, ideology, and economic base.
Georg Lukács: Art’s realism reveals the totality of social relations.
Bertolt Brecht: Advocated Epic Theatre—art should educate and provoke critical awareness(Verfremdungseffekt – “alienation effect”).
Purpose: Not beauty or imitation, but social function—to transform society.

(b) Pragmatist and Functionalist Views

Art’s value lies in utility, in serving human ends—education, moral development, therapy, propaganda, or innovation.
Aesthetic pleasure is intertwined with usefulness.

Comparison:
Indian theory also acknowledges utility—Nāṭya was created by Brahmā to educate (śikṣā), entertain (vihāra), and elevate (mokṣa) mankind.

7. Performance Studies – A Modern Interdisciplinary Lens

(a) Origins

Emerged in the 1970s through scholars like Richard Schechner, Victor Turner, and Erika Fischer-Lichte.
Combines anthropology, theatre studies, and cultural theory.
Studies not only theatre but all performative behaviors—rituals, sports, political rallies, festivals, and social roles.

(b) Key Concepts

Performance as Behavior
- Schechner defined performance as “twice-behaved behavior”—repeated, rehearsed actions drawn from social patterns.
- Every society enacts its identity through performance.
Restored Behavior
- Actions are learned, stored, and reactivated in new contexts.
- Similar to how classical Nāṭya reenacts epic stories within codified gestures.
Liminality and Ritual (Victor Turner)
- Performance creates a liminal space between reality and imagination, enabling transformation.
- Parallels the Indian idea of Ranga as sacred space.
Performer–Audience Relationship
- Performance is co-created; meaning arises through audience interaction, echoing Bharata’s Sahr̥daya(sympathetic spectator).
Embodiment and Agency
- The performer’s body is not a mere instrument but a site of knowledge, memory, and resistance.

(c) Relevance to Indian Context

Classical Indian performance is inherently performative: ritual, music, dance, and drama merge.
Nāṭyaśāstra already conceived art as social action and ritual communication, centuries before Performance Studies formalized it.
Contemporary Indian theatre (e.g., Ratan Thiyam, Habib Tanvir) uses folk and ritual performance as political and aesthetic expression, resonating with Schechner’s ideas.

8. Comparative Overview of Theories

Perspective	Key Thinker(s)	Main Idea	Purpose of Art	Indian Parallel
Imitation / Catharsis	Plato, Aristotle	Art mirrors reality; evokes catharsis	Moral & emotional education	Anukaraṇa, Rasa-anubhava
Imagination	Kant, Coleridge	Creative synthesis of perception & intellect	Creation of harmony	Bhāvanā-vāda, Kalpanā
Beauty	Hegel, Croce	Manifestation of Idea / Intuitive expression	Realization of spirit through form	Śānta-rasa, Saundarya
Communication	Tolstoy, Dewey	Sharing emotion and experience	Social connection & meaning	Abhinaya → Rasa
Utility / Function	Marx, Brecht, Pragmatists	Reflection and transformation of society	Social and ethical change	Nāṭya for Dharma & Śikṣā

9. Synthesis and Significance

From imitation to imagination, from beauty to communication, Western aesthetics evolved from a static view of art to a dynamic, experiential, and social process.
Performance Studies integrates these perspectives, treating art as embodied knowledge and social action.
The Indian Rasa theory stands uniquely integrative: it includes imitation (through abhinaya), imagination (bhāvanā), beauty (rasa), communication (sahr̥daya-anubhava), and utility (dharma-śikṣā-mokṣa).

Thus, both traditions ultimately affirm that art is a transformative experience — an act of creation, reflection, and communion that refines emotion into understanding and connects the individual to the universal.

October 24, 2025

UGC NET Performing Arts Unit-2-MCQs
Unit 2 — Folk & Traditional Theatre Forms of India — 100 MCQs (UGC-NET standard)
1. Folk theatre primarily evolved out of:
  A) Courtly salons
  B) Agricultural and ritual celebrations
  C) Printed drama
  D) Western opera
  Answer: B
2. Tribal theatre is best characterized by:
  A) Urban themes and written scripts
  B) Ritual, animistic beliefs, and community rites
  C) Fixed proscenium stages
  D) Colonial patronage
  Answer: B
3. The major difference between classical and folk theatre is:
  A) Use of music only
  B) Codified textual grammar vs. oral improvisation
  C) All folk theatre is ritual whereas classical is not
  D) Classical theatre never uses costumes
  Answer: B
4. “Traditional theatre” usually implies:
  A) Theatre for modern audiences only
  B) Performance forms transmitted through hereditary or institutional lineages
  C) Theatre without music
  D) Western-influenced plays
  Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a key social function of folk theatre?
  A) Market speculation
  B) Moral education, community cohesion and entertainment
  C) Court chronicle only
  D) Private entertainment of elites
  Answer: B
6. A hallmark feature of many folk performances is:
  A) Strict adherence to a printed script
  B) Audience participation and improvisation
  C) Silence by the audience
  D) Use of electric amplification only
  Answer: B
7. The Bhakti movement influenced folk theatre chiefly by:
  A) Replacing performance with meditation
  B) Making sacred narratives accessible in vernacular and encouraging devotional enactments
  C) Encouraging Sanskrit-only performances
  D) Banning public performance
  Answer: B
8. Which of the following forms is primarily a community enactment of the Ramayana?
  A) Jatra
  B) Ramlila
  C) Yakshagana
  D) Chhau
  Answer: B
9. Raslila performances primarily enact episodes of:
  A) Ramayana
  B) Bhagavata Purana (Krishna Leela)
  C) Mahabharata
  D) Vedas
  Answer: B
10. Nautanki is a folk theatre form best associated with:
  A) Tamil Nadu
  B) Uttar Pradesh and North India
  C) Kerala
  D) Assam
  Answer: B
11. Which instrument is most commonly associated with Nautanki?
  A) Maddale
  B) Dholak and harmonium
  C) Pena
  D) Chenda
  Answer: B
12. Bhand Pather is a satirical dramatic form from:
  A) Gujarat
  B) Kashmir
  C) Maharashtra
  D) Odisha
  Answer: B
13. Yakshagana is traditionally performed in:
  A) Karnataka (Coastal)
  B) West Bengal
  C) Kerala only
  D) Punjab
  Answer: A
14. The principal percussion instrument in Yakshagana is:
  A) Mizhavu
  B) Maddale
  C) Tabla
  D) Dholak
  Answer: B
15. Kutiyattam is a Sanskrit theatre tradition preserved in:
  A) Tamil Nadu
  B) Kerala (Koothambalam)
  C) Karnataka
  D) Odisha
  Answer: B
16. Which drum is central to Kutiyattam performance?
  A) Mizhavu
  B) Mridangam
  C) Chenda
  D) Dhol
  Answer: A
17. Chhau masks are associated primarily with which variant?
  A) Mayurbhanj form
  B) Seraikella form
  C) Purulia form
  D) All of the above have different mask usages (Purulia uses masks prominently)
  Answer: D
18. Chhau is performed widely in:
  A) Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal
  B) Kerala only
  C) Punjab only
  D) Bihar only
  Answer: A
19. The percussion instrument prominent in Chhau is:
  A) Tabla
  B) Dhol and dhumsa
  C) Pakhawaj
  D) Mizhavu
  Answer: B
20. Jatra theatre is a popular form in:
  A) Kerala
  B) West Bengal and Odisha
  C) Gujarat
  D) Andhra Pradesh
  Answer: B
21. Which of the following is an Assamese devotional theatre form created by Sankardeva?
  A) Ankiya Naat (Bhaona)
  B) Kutiyattam
  C) Yakshagana
  D) Ramlila
  Answer: A
22. Instruments central to Bhaona include:
  A) Khol (drum) and tal (cymbals)
  B) Tabla and sitar
  C) Mizhavu only
  D) Pena only
  Answer: A
23. Therukoothu literally means:
  A) Temple ritual
  B) Street play
  C) Court drama
  D) Puppet show
  Answer: B
24. Main percussion for Therukoothu is:
  A) Chenda and mizhavu
  B) Mridangam and mukhavina
  C) Dhol and nagara
  D) Tabla only
  Answer: B
25. Kuravanji is a Tamil dance-drama known for:
  A) Comic satire exclusively
  B) Fortune-teller (Kurathi) heroine and blend of folk and classical idioms
  C) Masked battle scenes
  D) Puppetry
  Answer: B
26. Krishnattam is a temple dance drama of:
  A) Tamil Nadu
  B) Kerala (describing Krishna Leela)
  C) Karnataka
  D) Assam
  Answer: B
27. Which percussion instrument is prominent in Theyyam?
  A) Chenda
  B) Tabla
  C) Tabla and sitar
  D) None
  Answer: A
28. Pandvani is a narrative performance tradition associated with which epic?
  A) Ramayana
  B) Mahabharata
  C) Bhagavata Purana
  D) None of the above
  Answer: B
29. The soloist in Pandvani often plays the:
  A) Ektara
  B) Sitar
  C) Flute
  D) Tabla
  Answer: A
30. Burrakatha is a narrative form from:
  A) Maharashtra
  B) Andhra Pradesh & Telangana
  C) West Bengal
  D) Punjab
  Answer: B
31. Typical Burrakatha troupe composition is:
  A) One soloist only
  B) Three performers – main storyteller, joker, and chorus/support
  C) Ten dancers only
  D) Two musicians only
  Answer: B
32. Which folk form often uses Lavani songs?
  A) Tamasha (Maharashtra)
  B) Kutiyattam
  C) Chhau
  D) Jatra
  Answer: A
33. Bhavai is a folk theatre form from:
  A) Gujarat
  B) Bengal
  C) Assam
  D) Karnataka
  Answer: A
34. Which instrument is commonly used in Bhavai?
  A) Nagara and pakhawaj
  B) Pena
  C) Maddale
  D) Mizhavu
  Answer: A
35. Dashavatar performances depict:
  A) Ten incarnations of Vishnu
  B) Scenes from Mahabharata only
  C) Local folktales only
  D) Islamic stories
  Answer: A
36. Phad painting tradition is linked with which folk form?
  A) Nautanki
  B) Pabuji Ki Phad (a mobile scroll linked to Phad performance in Rajasthan)
  C) Yakshagana
  D) Kutiyattam
  Answer: B
37. Sutradhar in folk theatre is comparable to:
  A) The stage curtain
  B) Narrator or stage-manager who guides the audience
  C) A percussionist only
  D) None of the above
  Answer: B
38. The role of Vidushaka in folk-influenced classical plays is:
  A) Villain
  B) Clown or jester providing comic relief and social commentary
  C) Hero only
  D) Musician only
  Answer: B
39. Which instrument is central to Manipuri Lai Haraoba rituals?
  A) Pena (string instrument)
  B) Tabla
  C) Mridangam
  D) Harmonium
  Answer: A
40. The Koothambalam is the traditional theatre space of:
  A) Karnataka
  B) Kerala (for Kutiyattam and temple arts)
  C) Tamil Nadu
  D) Odisha
  Answer: B
41. Which of the following is a characteristic of folk theatre costume?
  A) Minimal, symbolic and colourful denoting role and status
  B) Identical to western stage costume
  C) Always monochrome white
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
42. Which instrument grouping is Ghana Vadya in Indian classification?
  A) Solid struck instruments (e.g., gongs)
  B) Membranous drums only
  C) Wind instruments only
  D) String instruments only
  Answer: A
43. Avanaddha refers to which class of instruments?
  A) Stringed instruments
  B) Membranous percussion instruments (e.g., drums)
  C) Wind instruments
  D) Solid struck instruments
  Answer: B
44. Which form is best known for overnight public performances with melodramatic plot and music in Bengal?
  A) Theyyam
  B) Jatra
  C) Kutiyattam
  D) Yakshagana
  Answer: B
45. Which folk form is associated with the depiction of Krishna’s dance with gopis in Braj?
  A) Ramlila
  B) Raslila
  C) Jatra
  D) Tamasha
  Answer: B
46. The principal instrument of Ramlila performance traditionally is:
  A) Shehnai and dholak along with harmonium in modern times
  B) Sitar only
  C) Pena only
  D) Tabla only
  Answer: A
47. Which Southern form is traditionally performed by devadasis in temple contexts historically?
  A) Bharatanatyam (originating from temple ritual traditions including devadasi practice)
  B) Chhau
  C) Jatra
  D) Bhavai
  Answer: A
48. Which folk tradition uses mask work extensively in Purulia Chhau?
  A) Kutiyattam
  B) Chhau (Purulia)
  C) Yakshagana only
  D) Jatra only
  Answer: B
49. Which of the following forms uses extempore dialogues within a structured mythic plot?
  A) Yakshagana and Nautanki
  B) Ballet only
  C) Opera only
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
50. Which of these forms is known for martial-like choreography and heroic themes?
  A) Chhau
  B) Kuravanji
  C) Burrakatha
  D) Bhavai
  Answer: A
51. Which region is the origin of Powada ballads?
  A) Maharashtra (heroic ballads like those of Shivaji)
  B) Assam
  C) Tamil Nadu
  D) Bengal
  Answer: A
52. The principal instrument in Powada is:
  A) Dholki and tuntuna
  B) Pena
  C) Mizhavu
  D) Shehnai
  Answer: A
53. Phad performers typically carry:
  A) A portable painted scroll depicting the hero’s life for narration and display
  B) Masks only
  C) Electronic amplifiers only
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
54. Which folk form’s performance often culminates with a moral epilogue and blessings to the audience?
  A) Most folk dramas (e.g., Ramlila, Jatra)
  B) Western opera only
  C) Silent mime only
  D) None
  Answer: A
55. The term Laukika Abhinaya means:
  A) Ritualized, stylized acting
  B) Everyday, realistic expression in performance
  C) Masked dance only
  D) None of the above
  Answer: B
56. Which vritti (mode) in Nāṭyaśāstra is associated with grace and erotic sentiment (Śṛṅgāra)?
  A) Kaiśikī
  B) Arabhati
  C) Bharati
  D) Sattvati
  Answer: A
57. Which of the following forms is a devotional drama derived from Bhagavata Purana and performed in Kerala?
  A) Krishnattam and Bhagavata Mela (Melattur)
  B) Jatra
  C) Nautanki
  D) Powada
  Answer: A
58. Sutradhar’s role in many folk traditions is to:
  A) Announce the start, narrate, and connect scenes (narrator/host)
  B) Play percussion only
  C) Perform the fight scenes only
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
59. Which of the following is a major challenge to folk theatre today?
  A) Strong state patronage only
  B) Urbanization, migration, competition from mass media and loss of patronage
  C) Too many performers
  D) Lack of scripts only
  Answer: B
60. Which institution in India has been instrumental in documenting and supporting folk theatre?
  A) Sangeet Natak Akademi
  B) IMF
  C) FIFA
  D) UNESCO only (while UNESCO helps, the primary national is Sangeet Natak Akademi)
  Answer: A
61. The feature ‘improvisation’ in folk theatre primarily helps in:
  A) Adapting to contemporary issues and audience responses
  B) Keeping performances identical always
  C) Eliminating music
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
62. Which folk form uses the mizhavu as the chief drum?
  A) Kutiyattam / Koothu of Kerala
  B) Yakshagana
  C) Jatra
  D) Pandvani
  Answer: A
63. Which folk theatre in Andhra/Telangana is notable for fast-paced narrative and comic interplay?
  A) Burrakatha
  B) Jatra
  C) Bhavai
  D) Chhau
  Answer: A
64. The traditional apprenticeship system in folk theatre is characterized by:
  A) Gurukula/lineage or hereditary transmission and on-the-job learning
  B) Only university degrees
  C) No training at all
  D) Online courses only
  Answer: A
65. Which folk form of Odisha often enacts episodes from the Puranas with music and dance?
  A) Jatra and Gotipua / Odissi origins in temple contexts
  B) Nautanki only
  C) Bhavai only
  D) None
  Answer: A
66. Which classical form shares origins with folk Krishnattam and later evolved into Kathakali?
  A) Krishnattam (Kerala)
  B) Jatra
  C) Nautanki
  D) Bhavai
  Answer: A
67. Which of these instruments is a wind instrument used in many folk rituals and temple openings?
  A) Shehnai / Nadaswaram / Kuzhal (regional names)
  B) Mizhavu
  C) Ektara
  D) Kartal
  Answer: A
68. In many folk traditions female roles historically were played by:
  A) Women exclusively everywhere historically
  B) Men in female disguise (in many traditions)
  C) Foreign performers only
  D) Machines
  Answer: B
69. Which form is closely associated with the Sufi-Bhakti synthesis in some regions?
  A) Qawwali influences in performance spaces and folk kirtan traditions (syncretic forms)
  B) Chhau only
  C) Yakshagana only
  D) None
  Answer: A
70. Which region’s folk theatre is known as Phad / Pabuji Ki Phad?
  A) Rajasthan (narrative scroll tradition)
  B) Kerala
  C) Bengal
  D) Assam
  Answer: A
71. Which festival is primarily associated with Ramlila enactments?
  A) Dussehra (Vijayadashami)
  B) Holi
  C) Diwali only
  D) Baisakhi
  Answer: A
72. The traditional mask theatre Chhau (Purulia) is primarily used to depict:
  A) Mythic battles and episodes from epics with stylized movement
  B) Courtly romances only
  C) Modern plays only
  D) None
  Answer: A
73. Which of these Southern forms uses nattuvanars or specialised conductors in classical dance contexts?
  A) Bharatanatyam (nattuvanar conducting the tala and choreography; while not a folk form, intersection exists)
  B) Yakshagana only
  C) Chhau only
  D) Jatra only
  Answer: A
74. Which of the following is a feature of Yakshagana performance style?
  A) Vigorous dance, colourful make-up, extempore dialogues, and mythic plots
  B) Silent mime only
  C) No music
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
75. Which folk form’s performers are believed to become possessed by deities during the act?
  A) Theyyam (Kerala)
  B) Nautanki
  C) Burrakatha
  D) Jatra
  Answer: A
76. Which of the following is typically a chorus instrument in folk theatre?
  A) Kartal / manjira (cymbals) for keeping beat and supporting singing
  B) Mizhavu only
  C) Tabla only
  D) Electric guitar only
  Answer: A
77. Which of these theatre spaces is an example of a traditional temple stage?
  A) Rangamandapa or Koothambalam in South India
  B) Proscenium stage only
  C) Film studio only
  D) None
  Answer: A
78. Which folk form is associated with the telling of Pabuji’s legend on painted cloth?
  A) Phad (Rajasthan)
  B) Bhavai
  C) Chhau
  D) Kutiyattam
  Answer: A
79. Which instrument is typically associated with Pandvani’s dramatic narrative?
  A) Ektara or tambura with kartal accompaniment
  B) Mizhavu only
  C) Pena only
  D) Shehnai only
  Answer: A
80. Which form developed under Vaishnava influence in Assam by Sankardev?
  A) Ankiya Naat / Bhaona (Assam)
  B) Yakshagana
  C) Chhau
  D) Bhavai
  Answer: A
81. In many folk dramas, the comic role often functions as:
  A) Moral exemplar only
  B) Social critic, mediator and interpreter of action for the audience (Vidushaka/Sutradhar functions)
  C) Only a musician
  D) None
  Answer: B
82. Which of these is a preservation strategy commonly used for folk theatre today?
  A) Documentation, festivalization, grants, archival recordings and academic study
  B) Banning performances
  C) No action needed
  D) None
  Answer: A
83. Which of the following forms commonly uses masks to denote character?
  A) Chhau (Purulia) and some tribal forms; also Yakshagana uses headgear though not full masks
  B) Nautanki only
  C) Jatra only
  D) None
  Answer: A
84. Which form is known as a dramatic ballad tradition from central India narrating Mahabharata episodes?
  A) Pandvani
  B) Ramlila
  C) Bhavai
  D) Kutiyattam
  Answer: A
85. Which instrument accompanies Raslila’s melodic enactments?
  A) Flute (bansuri), mridang/pakhawaj, kartal
  B) Electric keyboard only
  C) Guitar only
  D) None
  Answer: A
86. Which of the following best exemplifies community theatre for agrarian cycles?
  A) Nacha/Karma Naach and harvest performances in Central and Eastern India
  B) Western opera only
  C) Film only
  D) None
  Answer: A
87. Which folk form was extensively used as a vehicle for social reform and political messaging in the 20th century?
  A) Nautanki, Jatra, Tamasha and street theatre traditions adapted for reform (IPTA influences)
  B) Kutiyattam only
  C) Classical Bharatanatyam only
  D) None
  Answer: A
88. Which of the following is a major difference between folk and popular theatre?
  A) Folk theatre is embedded in ritual and locality; popular theatre may be commercial and touring in nature
  B) Popular theatre is always ritualistic
  C) Folk theatre never uses songs
  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
89. Which musical instrument is a bamboo wind pipe used in Assamese Bihu?
  A) Pepa
  B) Pena
  C) Ektara
  D) Nadaswaram
  Answer: A
90. Which folk theatre from Tamil Nadu regularly performs in open streets during festivals?
  A) Therukoothu
  B) Yakshagana
  C) Chhau
  D) Bhavai
  Answer: A
91. Which of these is an example of a two-drum pair used in many folk forms?
  A) Dhol and nagara / dholak and nagada variants as regional percussion
  B) Tabla only
  C) Sitar only
  D) None
  Answer: A
92. Which of the following is a key criterion for UNESCO recognition of living heritage forms (e.g., some folk forms)?
  A) Community significance, transmission methods, cultural continuity and intangible heritage value
  B) Monetary value only
  C) Tourist appeal only
  D) None
  Answer: A
93. Which folk form uses elaborate facial painting and bright costumes to represent characters, often with trance states?
  A) Theyyam (Kerala)
  B) Nautanki only
  C) Pandvani only
  D) None
  Answer: A
94. Which instrument provides drone accompaniment in many folk narrative forms?
  A) Tambura / tanpura or single-string variants like ektara/tuntuna
  B) Tabla only
  C) Chenda only
  D) All of the above
  Answer: A
95. Which of the following best explains the term Pravritti in the context of folk theatre?
  A) A regional style or transmission tradition (school) of performance
  B) A musical note
  C) A costume element
  D) None
  Answer: A
96. Which of the following is an example of a tribal ritual theatre that also functions as a community oracle?
  A) Theyyam (possession-ritual) and similar forms where performer becomes deity-temporary
  B) Nautanki only
  C) Jatra only
  D) None
  Answer: A
97. Which classical treatise is frequently used to compare folk practice despite its Sanskritic orientation?
  A) Nāṭyaśāstra (Bharata Muni) — used as comparative theoretical frame
  B) European treatises only
  C) Chinese treatises only
  D) None
  Answer: A
98. Which is a common form of audience interaction in folk theatre?
  A) Call-and-response singing, jeering, offering and joining in dances
  B) Complete silence only
  C) Leaving the venue immediately
  D) None
  Answer: A
99. Modern adaptations of folk theatre often involve:
  A) Incorporation of contemporary issues, language updating, and theatrical staging techniques (amplification, lighting)
  B) Strictly unchanged repertoire only
  C) No changes at all
  D) None
  Answer: A
100. For UGC-NET Unit 2, the most important facts to remember include:
  A) Regional forms, instruments, ritual contexts, Bhakti influence, performance features and preservation issues
  B) Only names of performers
  C) Only modern theatre theory
  D) None
  Answer: A
October 24, 2025
UGC NET – Paper-1 – Unit 8 – Information and Communication Technology (ICT) – MCQs

(As per NTA–UGC NET Paper-I Syllabus and Latest 2024–25 Pattern)

Each question has four options, one correct answer, and a short concept explanation — just like the official NTA exam format.

🧠 Section A — ICT Basics (Q.1–10)

Q1. ICT stands for:
A) Information and Communication Technology
B) Information and Computer Technology
C) Integrated Communication Technique
D) Interconnected Communication Transfer
✅ Answer: A
Explanation: ICT = Integration of information technology and communication technology.

Q2. Which of the following best defines “Information”?
A) Raw facts and figures
B) Processed, meaningful data
C) Unstructured data
D) Graphical representation only
✅ Answer: B

Q3. Which of these is not an input device?
A) Keyboard
B) Mouse
C) Printer
D) Scanner
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Printer is an output device.

Q4. The physical components of a computer are called:
A) Software
B) Hardware
C) Firmware
D) Shareware
✅ Answer: B

Q5. Which memory is volatile?
A) ROM
B) Flash memory
C) RAM
D) Hard disk
✅ Answer: C
Explanation: Data in RAM is erased when power is turned off.

Q6. Which of the following is not system software?
A) Windows OS
B) MS Excel
C) Linux Kernel
D) Device Driver
✅ Answer: B
Explanation: MS Excel is an application software.

Q7. The smallest unit of digital information is:
A) Bit
B) Byte
C) Kilobyte
D) Megabyte
✅ Answer: A

Q8. Which one is an example of secondary storage?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Hard Disk
D) Cache
✅ Answer: C

Q9. The term “firmware” refers to:
A) Temporary storage
B) Software embedded in hardware
C) Internet application
D) Peripheral device
✅ Answer: B

Q10. Which component converts data into human-readable form?
A) CPU
B) Input device
C) Output device
D) Software
✅ Answer: C

🌐 Section B — Networking & Internet (Q.11–20)

Q11. Full form of LAN is:
A) Local Area Network
B) Large Access Network
C) Linear Array Node
D) Linked Access Network
✅ Answer: A

Q12. The Internet is an example of a:
A) LAN
B) MAN
C) WAN
D) PAN
✅ Answer: C

Q13. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
A) SMTP
B) POP
C) IMAP
D) HTTP
✅ Answer: A

Q14. The device that connects a LAN to the Internet is:
A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Bridge
✅ Answer: B

Q15. Which of these is a secure protocol for websites?
A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP
D) POP3
✅ Answer: B

Q16. IP stands for:
A) Internet Process
B) Internal Protocol
C) Internet Protocol
D) Interconnected Program
✅ Answer: C

Q17. IPv4 address uses how many bits?
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
D) 64
✅ Answer: B

Q18. A private network within an organization is called:
A) Extranet
B) Intranet
C) Internet
D) VPN
✅ Answer: B

Q19. The “Firewall” in computer networks is used to:
A) Prevent virus infections only
B) Control network traffic and security
C) Store data permanently
D) Speed up Internet
✅ Answer: B

Q20. The function of DNS is to:
A) Encrypt data
B) Convert domain names into IP addresses
C) Store cookies
D) Manage databases
✅ Answer: B

☁️ Section C — ICT Tools & Applications (Q.21–30)

Q21. Which of the following is an LMS (Learning Management System)?
A) Moodle
B) Turnitin
C) Canva
D) MS Word
✅ Answer: A

Q22. MOOCs stand for:
A) Massive Open Online Courses
B) Modular Open Online Curricula
C) Managed Online Objective Courses
D) Multi-Organization Online Classes
✅ Answer: A

Q23. Which platform is India’s national MOOC portal?
A) SWAYAM
B) Coursera
C) edX
D) Udemy
✅ Answer: A

Q24. INFLIBNET functions under:
A) MHRD
B) UGC
C) NCERT
D) AICTE
✅ Answer: B

Q25. “e-ShodhSindhu” is a:
A) Digital library for school students
B) Consortium for e-journals and e-books
C) Repository for PhD theses
D) National MOOCs portal
✅ Answer: B

Q26. “Shodhganga” is primarily meant for:
A) Research proposals
B) Online viva
C) Repository of Ph.D. theses
D) Government reports
✅ Answer: C

Q27. “NPTEL” is associated with:
A) School education
B) Engineering & Technology MOOCs by IITs
C) Administrative reforms
D) Social science research
✅ Answer: B

Q28. The platform that broadcasts educational channels via DTH is:
A) SWAYAM
B) SWAYAM PRABHA
C) DIKSHA
D) NDL
✅ Answer: B

Q29. “e-GyanKosh” is developed by:
A) IGNOU
B) AICTE
C) NPTEL
D) IIT Bombay
✅ Answer: A

Q30. “Virtual Labs” project is coordinated by:
A) UGC
B) IIT Delhi and MHRD
C) NCERT
D) NIOS
✅ Answer: B

🔐 Section D — ICT Security & Ethics (Q.31–40)

Q31. Which of these is a malicious software?
A) Router
B) Virus
C) Firewall
D) Switch
✅ Answer: B

Q32. “Phishing” is:
A) Email fraud to steal personal data
B) Encryption method
C) Computer hardware theft
D) Data backup process
✅ Answer: A

Q33. Which is not a cyber threat?
A) Worm
B) Trojan Horse
C) Antivirus
D) Spyware
✅ Answer: C

Q34. Which among the following protects from unauthorized network access?
A) Firewall
B) Hard disk
C) Mouse
D) Modem
✅ Answer: A

Q35. Strong passwords should include:
A) Only alphabets
B) Only numbers
C) Combination of letters, numbers, and symbols
D) Simple names
✅ Answer: C

Q36. The act of copying others’ digital content without credit is:
A) Hacking
B) Piracy
C) Phishing
D) Spoofing
✅ Answer: B

Q37. A “Trojan Horse” is:
A) Hardware virus
B) Software disguised as a legitimate program
C) Password locker
D) Memory device
✅ Answer: B

Q38. The process of converting data into coded form for security is:
A) Encoding
B) Encryption
C) Compression
D) Decryption
✅ Answer: B

Q39. “Digital Divide” refers to:
A) Division of digital circuits
B) Gap between technology users and non-users
C) Data transmission error
D) Internet partitioning
✅ Answer: B

Q40. Which of the following is ethical ICT behaviour?
A) Spamming
B) Plagiarism
C) Cyberbullying
D) Citing online sources properly
✅ Answer: D

☁️ Section E — Cloud & Emerging Technologies (Q.41–45)

Q41. Cloud computing provides services over the:
A) Local server
B) Internet
C) WAN only
D) Intranet
✅ Answer: B

Q42. “SaaS” in Cloud Computing stands for:
A) Storage as a System
B) Software as a Service
C) System as a Service
D) Solution as a Software
✅ Answer: B

Q43. Example of SaaS is:
A) Gmail
B) Amazon EC2
C) Microsoft Azure
D) Oracle VM
✅ Answer: A

Q44. The technology that enables smart devices to connect and exchange data is:
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Internet of Things (IoT)
C) Blockchain
D) Virtual Reality
✅ Answer: B

Q45. “Blockchain” is primarily used for:
A) Image editing
B) Secure transaction records
C) Artificial vision
D) Network routing
✅ Answer: B

🇮🇳 Section F — Indian ICT Initiatives & Policies (Q.46–50)

Q46. “DIKSHA” is a platform for:
A) School teachers and students
B) Ph.D. researchers
C) UGC faculty
D) Engineering colleges
✅ Answer: A

Q47. “National Academic Depository (NAD)” stores:
A) Student digital certificates
B) Research data
C) Patents
D) Attendance records
✅ Answer: A

Q48. “National Digital Library (NDL)” is developed by:
A) IIT Delhi
B) IIT Kharagpur
C) IGNOU
D) UGC
✅ Answer: B

Q49. “e-PG Pathshala” provides:
A) Postgraduate e-content modules
B) Teacher training videos
C) School lessons
D) Data analysis software
✅ Answer: A

Q50. The nodal agency managing SWAYAM PRABHA is:
A) NCERT
B) ISRO
C) INFLIBNET
D) IGNOU
✅ Answer: C

October 22, 2025
UGC NET – Paper-1 – Data Interpretation – MCQs – Practice Set
(10 Data Sets, 50 Questions)

📊 DATA SET 1 — Table: Student Enrollment (2019–2023)

Year Arts Science Commerce Total

2019 300 250 150 700

2020 320 270 180 770

2021 340 300 200 840

2022 380 330 220 930

2023 400 360 250 1010

Questions
1. In which year was total enrollment highest?
2. Average Science enrollment (2019–2023)?
3. % increase in Commerce students from 2019 to 2023?
4. Ratio of Arts to Science students in 2023?
5. By how many did total enrollment increase from 2019 to 2023?
Answers
1. 2023 (1010 – highest total)
2. $(250 + 270 + 300 + 330 + 360) / 5 = 302$
3. $(250 – 150) / 150 \times 100 = 66.7 %$
4. $400 : 360 = 10 : 9$
5. $1010 – 700 = 310$
🥧 DATA SET 2 — Pie Chart: Expenditure of a Company (Total ₹12 lakh)

Category % Share

Salaries 40%

Raw Material 25%

Rent 15%

Marketing 10%

Miscellaneous 10%

Questions
1. Expenditure on Raw Material = ?
2. Combined % on Marketing + Miscellaneous = ?
3. How much more spent on Salaries than on Rent?
4. What is the angle of the Raw Material sector?
5. If total increased by 10% next year, what will be Marketing expenditure?
Answers
1. 25% of 12,00,000 = ₹3,00,000
2. 10 + 10 = 20%
3. (40–15)% of 12,00,000 = 25% = ₹3,00,000
4. $(25 / 100) \times 360 ° = 90 °$
5. New total = 13,20,000 → 10% = ₹1,32,000
📈 DATA SET 3 — Line Graph: Sales of Product A & B (in ₹ Lakh)

Year Product A Product B

2018 20 25

2019 25 30

2020 30 28

2021 40 35

2022 45 40

Questions
1. In which year was the difference between A and B sales maximum?
2. Average sales of Product B?
3. % increase in A’s sales from 2018 to 2022?
4. Ratio of A:B in 2020?
5. In how many years did Product B sales exceed A?
Answers
1. 2018 → |25–20|=5; 2021 → |40–35|=5; 2022 → |45–40|=5 → Equal max difference = 5 lakh
2. (25+30+28+35+40)/5 = 31.6 lakh
3. $(45 – 20) / 20 \times 100 = 125 %$
4. 30:28 = 15:14
5. 3 years (2018–2020)
🧮 DATA SET 4 — Table: University Results

Subject Appeared Passed Failed

English 400 340 60

History 300 210 90

Economics 350 280 70

Sociology 250 230 20

Political Sci. 200 160 40

Questions
1. Overall pass % of the university?
2. Highest pass % subject?
3. Total failed students in all subjects?
4. Average pass % across subjects?
5. Ratio of passed to failed in History?
Answers
1. Total pass = 340+210+280+230+160=1220; total =1500 → 1220/1500×100=81.3%
2. Sociology → 230/250=92%
3. 60+90+70+20+40=280
4. (85+70+80+92+80)/5 = 81.4%
5. 210:90 = 7:3
📊 DATA SET 5 — Bar Graph: Books Sold by a Publisher

Genre No. of Books

Fiction 1200

Non-fiction 900

Children 600

Reference 300

Others 500

Questions
1. % share of Fiction books?
2. Ratio of Children to Reference books?
3. Difference between Fiction and Non-fiction books?
4. If total books = 3500, find % of Others.
5. Total books in all genres except Fiction?
Answers
1. $1200 / 3500 \times 100 = 34.3 %$
2. 600:300 = 2:1
3. 1200–900 = 300
4. $500 / 3500 \times 100 = 14.3 %$
5. 3500–1200 = 2300
📈 DATA SET 6 — Table: Imports & Exports (₹ Crore)

Year Imports Exports

2018 500 400

2019 600 450

2020 700 600

2021 650 620

2022 800 700

Questions
1. In which year was trade deficit (Import–Export) highest?
2. Average exports (2018–2022)?
3. % increase in imports from 2018 to 2022?
4. Year with trade surplus?
5. Ratio of total imports to total exports.
Answers
1. 2022 → 800–700=100 (highest deficit)
2. (400+450+600+620+700)/5 = 554 crore
3. $(800 – 500) / 500 \times 100 = 60 %$
4. None (all imports > exports)
5. (500+600+700+650+800):(400+450+600+620+700)=3250:2770 ≈ 1.17:1
🧾 DATA SET 7 — Caselet: Newspaper Readership

A survey of 1,000 people showed:
- 400 read The Times
- 300 read The Herald
- 200 read The Voice
- 150 read both Times and Herald
- 50 read all three papers
Questions
1. How many read both Times and Voice but not Herald (if 90 read both Times & Voice)?
2. How many read at least one newspaper?
3. How many read none?
4. How many read only The Herald?
5. How many read exactly two newspapers?
Answers

Let universal set = 1000.
Using set theory:
1. Times∩Voice only = 90–50 = 40
2. At least one = Total – None; find later.
  (T+H+V) – (T∩H + T∩V + H∩V) + All three = (400+300+200)–(150+90+?)+50. Assuming H∩V = 70.
  = 900–310+50=640.
  So 640 read ≥1.
3. None = 1000–640=360
4. Herald only = 300–150–70+50=130.
5. Exactly two = (150+90+70) – 3×50 = 160
📊 DATA SET 8 — Pie Chart: Sources of Electricity Generation

Source % Share

Thermal 40%

Hydro 25%

Nuclear 15%

Solar 10%

Wind 10%

Total output = 10,000 MW.

Questions
1. MW generated by Nuclear power?
2. Combined contribution of renewable (Solar + Wind)?
3. Thermal power generation in MW?
4. What angle represents Hydro power?
5. Ratio of Hydro : Nuclear power.
Answers
1. 15% × 10,000 = 1500 MW
2. (10+10)% = 20% = 2000 MW
3. 40% × 10,000 = 4000 MW
4. $(25 / 100) \times 360 = 90 °$
5. 25:15 = 5:3
📉 DATA SET 9 — Line Graph: Students in Two Universities

Year University X University Y.

2018 12,000 10,000

2019 14,000 11,500

2020 16,000 13,000

2021 18,000 15,000

2022 20,000 16,000

Questions
1. Growth % of University X (2018–2022)?
2. Average students in University Y?
3. Difference in 2020 student count between X and Y?
4. Year when total enrollment (X+Y) crossed 30,000?
5. Ratio of X:Y in 2022?
Answers
1. $(20, 000 – 12, 000) / 12, 000 \times 100 = 66.7 %$
2. (10,000+11,500+13,000+15,000+16,000)/5 = 13,100
3. 16,000–13,000 = 3,000
4. 2020 (16k+13k=29k <30k); 2021 (33k >30k) → 2021
5. 20,000:16,000 = 5:4
📊 DATA SET 10 — Table: GDP (Sector-wise, ₹ crore)

Year Agriculture Industry Services Total

2018 200 300 500 1000

2019 220 350 530 1100

2020 250 370 580 1200

2021 260 390 650 1300

2022 280 420 700 1400

Questions
1. Which sector grew most (2018–2022)?
2. Share of Services sector in 2022 GDP?
3. Average Industry output (all years)?
4. % growth of total GDP (2018–2022)?
5. Ratio of Agriculture to Total GDP in 2022?
Answers
1. Agriculture: +80; Industry: +120; Services: +200 → Services
2. 700/1400×100 = 50%
3. (300+350+370+390+420)/5 = 366 crore
4. (1400–1000)/1000×100 = 40%
5. 280:1400 = 1:5
October 22, 2025

Year	Arts	Science	Commerce	Total
2019	300	250	150	700
2020	320	270	180	770
2021	340	300	200	840
2022	380	330	220	930
2023	400	360	250	1010

Category	% Share
Salaries	40%
Raw Material	25%
Rent	15%
Marketing	10%
Miscellaneous	10%

Year	Product A	Product B
2018	20	25
2019	25	30
2020	30	28
2021	40	35
2022	45	40

Subject	Appeared	Passed	Failed
English	400	340	60
History	300	210	90
Economics	350	280	70
Sociology	250	230	20
Political Sci.	200	160	40

Genre	No. of Books
Fiction	1200
Non-fiction	900
Children	600
Reference	300
Others	500

Year	Imports	Exports
2018	500	400
2019	600	450
2020	700	600
2021	650	620
2022	800	700

Source	% Share
Thermal	40%
Hydro	25%
Nuclear	15%
Solar	10%
Wind	10%

Year	University X	University Y.
2018	12,000	10,000
2019	14,000	11,500
2020	16,000	13,000
2021	18,000	15,000
2022	20,000	16,000

Year	Agriculture	Industry	Services	Total
2018	200	300	500	1000
2019	220	350	530	1100
2020	250	370	580	1200
2021	260	390	650	1300
2022	280	420	700	1400

UGC NET Paper 1 Unit 3: Comprehension — Ways to Master It for UGC NET Exam

🌱 1. Understanding Comprehension in UGC NET

What is Comprehension?

Comprehension means the ability to understand, interpret, and critically analyze a given text or passage.

In UGC NET Paper 1, comprehension passages test:

Reading speed and accuracy
Vocabulary and contextual understanding
Logical reasoning and inference
Critical evaluation of arguments or ideas

📄 Format:

Usually a passage of 200–250 words
Followed by 5 questions, each carrying 2 marks
Total: 10 marks

📘 2. Types of Passages in UGC NET

Type	Description	Example
Factual/Informative	Based on facts, data, reports, or studies	A passage on renewable energy statistics
Analytical/Logical	Argument-based; requires reasoning	A passage on whether AI replaces human creativity
Descriptive/Narrative	Describes a situation or event	A passage describing environmental degradation
Philosophical/Abstract	Based on ideas, values, or concepts	A passage discussing the meaning of freedom
Scientific/Technical	Focus on scientific or research ideas	A passage about quantum computing or climate change

🎯 3. Key Skills to Master Comprehension

(A) Skimming and Scanning

Skimming: Reading quickly to get the general idea (the gist).
- Focus on first and last sentences of each paragraph.
Scanning: Searching for specific information or keywords.
- Useful for locating facts, data, or direct answers.

🪶 Example:

Passage: “The Internet revolutionized communication by reducing geographical barriers.”
Question: “What is the main benefit of the Internet mentioned?”
✅ Scan for ‘benefit’ → Answer: Reducing geographical barriers.

(B) Identifying the Central Idea (Main Theme)

Every passage has one main idea and several supporting details.
The main idea is usually found in the first or last paragraph.

🪶 Example:

“While technology has connected people globally, it has also isolated them emotionally.”
Main Idea: The paradox of technology — connecting yet isolating people.

(C) Understanding the Author’s Tone & Purpose

Tone	Meaning	Keywords
Analytical	Examines cause-effect or reasoning	because, therefore, analysis
Critical	Judging with both positives and negatives	however, although
Persuasive	Trying to convince the reader	should, must, ought
Descriptive	Painting a picture using words	describes, illustrates
Humorous/Sarcastic	Mocking or light tone	irony, exaggeration

🪶 Example:

“Politicians promise transparency, but their actions often prove otherwise.”
Tone: Sarcastic or Critical.

(D) Drawing Inferences

An inference is a logical conclusion based on evidence, not directly stated.
UGC NET often asks: “Which of the following can be inferred?”

🪶 Example:

Passage: “Teachers who adapt to technology can reach students better.”
Inference: Teachers not using technology might struggle to engage students.

(E) Distinguishing Facts and Opinions

Aspect	Fact	Opinion
Nature	Verifiable, objective	Subjective, belief-based
Example	“The Earth revolves around the Sun.”	“The Earth is the most beautiful planet.”

🪶 Example Question:

“India has over 1.3 billion people.” (Fact)
“India is the most vibrant democracy.” (Opinion)

(F) Understanding Vocabulary in Context

You don’t need to know every word — use context clues.
Look at surrounding words to guess meaning.

🪶 Example:

“The plan was thwarted by unforeseen circumstances.”
Context clue → “unforeseen circumstances” → thwarted = prevented/stopped.

(G) Recognizing the Structure of Arguments

UGC NET often includes logical passages.
Identify:

Premise (fact or evidence)
Assumption (unstated belief)
Conclusion (main argument)

🪶 Example:

“All humans need oxygen. Rahul is human. Therefore, Rahul needs oxygen.”
Premises → Humans need oxygen; Rahul is human.
Conclusion → Rahul needs oxygen.

🧩 4. Step-by-Step Strategy for UGC NET Comprehension

Step 1: Read the questions before the passage.

→ It helps you focus on what to look for.

Step 2: Skim the passage quickly for structure and keywords.

→ Identify main idea and tone.

Step 3: Read carefully — paragraph by paragraph.

→ Note keywords (names, years, causes, results).

Step 4: Use elimination technique in MCQs.

→ Eliminate clearly wrong or extreme options.

Step 5: Look for exact or paraphrased evidence in the text.

→ UGC NET rarely asks questions that are “outside the passage.”

📖 5. Common Question Types (with Examples)

Type	Example	Strategy
Main Idea	“What is the central theme of the passage?”	Skim intro and conclusion.
Inference	“Which statement can be inferred?”	Read between lines.
Fact/Opinion	“Which of these is a fact?”	Identify verifiable data.
Tone	“The author’s tone is—”	Detect attitude words.
Vocabulary	“What does the word ‘meticulous’ mean in the passage?”	Use context clues.
Title Choice	“Which title best suits the passage?”	Reflects central idea.

🔍 6. Example Practice (UGC NET Style)

Passage:

The increasing reliance on Artificial Intelligence (AI) in education is transforming how teachers and students interact. While AI helps personalize learning, it can never replace the empathy and judgment of a human teacher. Education must therefore integrate technology without losing the human touch.

Questions:

1️⃣ What is the central idea of the passage?
A) AI will replace teachers soon
B) Technology should complement, not replace, teachers
C) Teachers must avoid AI in education
D) AI personalizes learning completely
Answer: B

2️⃣ The author’s tone in the passage is:
A) Sarcastic
B) Analytical and balanced
C) Humorous
D) Critical of technology
Answer: B

3️⃣ The phrase “without losing the human touch” implies:
A) Technology must have emotions
B) Teachers should avoid online classes
C) Emotional connection is essential in education
D) AI is harmful
Answer: C

4️⃣ Which of the following is a fact?
A) AI helps personalize learning
B) AI is better than humans
C) Teachers should avoid AI
D) AI has emotions
Answer: A

5️⃣ The suitable title of the passage would be:
A) “AI vs Teachers”
B) “Technology and Human Touch in Education”
C) “Disadvantages of AI”
D) “Machine Learning in Education”
Answer: B

🧭 7. Tips to Score Full Marks in Comprehension (UGC NET Strategy)

✅ Read with purpose — focus on meaning, not memorization.
✅ Manage time — don’t spend more than 8 minutes on the passage.
✅ Identify transition words (however, thus, hence) — they signal shifts in logic.
✅ Practice editorial and opinion articles (The Hindu, Indian Express).
✅ Learn synonyms and antonyms from context — UGC NET often tests word meaning.
✅ Revise critical reading skills — inference, argument, and assumption detection.
✅ Avoid overthinking — answers are usually within the passage.
✅ Keep an eye on ‘extreme words’ (always, never, all) — usually incorrect options.

🧩 8. Practice Activity

Try reading a 250-word editorial paragraph daily and:

Write one-sentence summary.
Identify tone (critical, persuasive, informative).
Pick one inference question.
Note 2 new vocabulary words.

In 15 days, your speed, inference, and accuracy improve significantly.

💡 9. Quick Summary Chart

Skill	Focus	UGC NET Question Type
Skimming	Main idea	Central theme
Scanning	Facts/data	Factual question
Inference	Logical meaning	Implicit conclusion
Tone	Author’s attitude	Opinion question
Vocabulary	Word meaning	Synonym/Antonym
Structure	Flow of ideas	Logical order question

🏆 10. Golden Rule for UGC NET Comprehension

“Don’t just read the words — read between them.”
UGC NET rewards critical readers who understand both what is said and what is implied.

October 22, 2025

UGC NET DEC 2025 Notification

UGC NET December 2025 Notification — Conducted by NTA

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has officially released the notification for the University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC NET) December 2025. The exam determines eligibility for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF), Assistant Professor, and Ph.D. admission in Indian universities and colleges.

📅 Important Dates

Event	Date
Online Registration & Submission of Application	07 October 2025 – 07 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
Last Date for Fee Payment	07 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
Correction Window	10 November – 12 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
Intimation of Exam City	To be announced later
Admit Card Release	To be announced later
Exam Dates	To be announced later
Result Declaration	To be announced later

Official Websites:
🔗 https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in
🔗 https://nta.ac.in

💰 Application Fee

Category	Fee
General / Unreserved	₹1150/-
Gen-EWS / OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)	₹600/-
SC / ST / PwD / PwBD / Third Gender	₹325/-

Payment can be made via Debit/Credit Card, Net Banking, or UPI.

🎓 Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification:

General/EWS: 55% marks in Master’s Degree or equivalent.
OBC (NCL)/SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Third Gender: 50% marks in Master’s Degree or equivalent.
Candidates pursuing a Master’s degree or awaiting results can apply provisionally.

Four-Year Bachelor’s Degree Holders:

Must have at least 75% aggregate marks (5% relaxation for reserved categories).
Eligible for JRF and Ph.D. admission, but not for Assistant Professor posts.

Age Limit (as on 01 December 2025):

JRF: Maximum 30 years (Relaxation up to 5 years for OBC-NCL/SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Women candidates and others as per rules).
Assistant Professor / Ph.D. Admission: No upper age limit.

📘 Subjects Covered

UGC NET December 2025 will be conducted for 83 subjects in the fields of:

Humanities (including Languages)
Social Sciences
Commerce
Computer Science & Applications
Electronic Science
Environmental Science
Management
and more.

👉 Full subject list and codes are available in Appendix-II of the official Information Bulletin.

🖥️ Exam Format

Paper	Marks	Questions	Description	Duration
Paper I	100	50	Tests teaching/research aptitude, reasoning, comprehension, and general awareness	3 hours (180 minutes)
Paper II	200	100	Subject-specific questions based on candidate’s chosen subject

Mode: Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Type: Objective, Multiple Choice Questions
Marking Scheme: +2 for each correct answer, no negative marking
Medium: English and Hindi (except language subjects)

♿ Reservation Policy

Applicable as per Government of India norms:

SC – 15%
ST – 7.5%
OBC (NCL) – 27%
EWS – 10%
PwD / PwBD – 5% (within each category)

📄 How to Apply

Visit https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in
Click on “Apply for UGC NET December 2025”
Complete registration with valid email & mobile number
Fill in the application form and upload:
- Photograph (10–200 KB)
- Signature (4–30 KB)
Pay the exam fee online and download the confirmation page.

📢 Key Highlights

Conducted twice a year by NTA in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode.
Qualifying NET opens opportunities for JRF, Assistant Professorship, and Ph.D. admissions.
Validity of NET score for Ph.D. admission (categories 2 & 3) – 1 year.
No negative marking in any paper.
Candidates can check the mock test at https://nta.ac.in/Quiz.

🧾 Important Notes

Candidates should apply only once; multiple applications will be rejected.
The Admit Card will be available only on the NTA website.
NTA does not send admit cards by post.
No re-evaluation/re-checking of results will be entertained.

📍For More Details:
Visit the official NTA portal — https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in

October 22, 2025

Tag: UGC NET Dec NTA 2025

UGC NET Economics Unit 1– Decision Making under Uncertainty and Attitude towards Risk – MCQs

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UGC NET Economics Unit-1 Theory of Consumer Behaviour MCQs-2

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UGC NET Economics Unit-1 Theory of Consumer Behaviour MCQs-1

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$M U_{x} = \frac{Δ T U}{Δ Q_{x}}$

$\frac{M U_{x}}{P_{x}} = \frac{M U_{y}}{P_{y}} = M U_{m}$

$M R S_{x y} = - \frac{Δ Y}{Δ X}$

$P_{x} X + P_{y} Y = M$

$\frac{M U_{x}}{M U_{y}} = \frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}$

$C S = T U - (P \times Q)$