Tag: UGC NET How to prepare

  • UGC NET History Unit-5 Expected Questions

    Q1. The Mansabdari system was introduced by:

    (1) Babur
    (2) Akbar
    (3) Humayun
    (4) Aurangzeb

    Correct Answer: (2) Akbar
    Explanation:
    The Mansabdari system organised the Mughal bureaucracy and army. It fixed rank (mansab) and remuneration based on zat (personal rank) and sawar (cavalry responsibility), ensuring central control over nobles.


    Q2. The Asta Pradhan system was established under:

    (1) Bahamani sultans
    (2) Deccan Sultanates
    (3) Marathas under Shivaji
    (4) Mysore under Haider Ali

    Correct Answer: (3) Marathas under Shivaji
    Explanation:
    Shivaji’s administration included eight ministers collectively called Asta Pradhan, responsible for key departments like foreign affairs, military, finance and justice.


    Q3. The Jagirdari system during the Mughal period refers to:

    (1) Hereditary land ownership
    (2) Assignment of revenue from a region in place of salary
    (3) State-controlled collective farming
    (4) Land given to religious institutions

    Correct Answer: (2) Assignment of revenue from a region in place of salary
    Explanation:
    Nobles were allotted territories from which they collected revenue to maintain troops instead of receiving cash salary from the emperor.


    Q4. Which of the following taxes was levied on the non-Muslim population under the Mughals and Delhi Sultanate?

    (1) Zakat
    (2) Khums
    (3) Jaziya
    (4) Ushr

    Correct Answer: (3) Jaziya
    Explanation:
    Jaziya was a poll tax imposed on non-Muslims in return for protection and exemption from military service. Abolished by Akbar but reintroduced by Aurangzeb.


    Q5. Which Mughal emperor is associated with land revenue reforms and the Ain-i-Dahsalasystem?

    (1) Babur
    (2) Humayun
    (3) Akbar
    (4) Shahjahan

    Correct Answer: (3) Akbar
    Explanation:
    Dahsala, developed by Raja Todar Mal, assessed land revenue based on 10-year average productivity and classification of land, leading to efficient agrarian administration.


    Q6. Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were taxes collected by:

    (1) Bahamanis
    (2) Vijayanagara kings
    (3) Deccan Sultanates
    (4) Marathas

    Correct Answer: (4) Marathas
    Explanation:
    Chauth was 25% of revenue, and Sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% levied by Maratha chiefs over areas outside their direct control.


    Q7. The principal market controller in the Delhi Sultanate was:

    (1) Diwan-i-Wizarat
    (2) Diwan-i-Arz
    (3) Shahna-i-Mandi
    (4) Sadr-us-Sudur

    Correct Answer: (3) Shahna-i-Mandi
    Explanation:
    Shahna-i-Mandi supervised markets, fixing prices and preventing hoarding, particularly under Alauddin Khalji’s economic reforms.


    Q8. The main reason for large-scale urbanization during the Sultanate and Mughal period was:

    (1) Growth of trade and crafts
    (2) Increase in temple building
    (3) Decline of agriculture
    (4) Internal wars

    Correct Answer: (1) Growth of trade and crafts
    Explanation:
    Commercial centres, craft guilds, and administrative hubs emerged due to strong trade networks and manufacturing industries (textiles, metalwork, paper, shipbuilding).


    Q9. Hundi used in medieval India functioned as:

    (1) Land measurement tool
    (2) Military record
    (3) Bill of exchange
    (4) Religious grant record

    Correct Answer: (3) Bill of exchange
    Explanation:
    It enabled long-distance commercial transactions, banking credit and cash transfer, widely used by merchant guilds and moneylenders.


    Q10. The major industry that dominated the economy of the Mughal period was:

    (1) Shipbuilding
    (2) Cotton textiles
    (3) Iron metallurgy
    (4) Glass production

    Correct Answer: (2) Cotton textiles
    Explanation:
    Indian cotton cloth was exported globally, especially to West Asia and Europe, forming the backbone of Mughal overseas trade.


    UNIT 5 RECAP

    Topics covered in this unit include:

    • Administration under Sultanate & Mughals

    • Mansabdari & Jagirdari systems

    • Frontier policies and inter-state relations

    • Agricultural revenue system & irrigation

    • Urbanisation & craft production

    • Trade, transport, banking instruments (Hundi)

    • Maratha administration

  • UGC NET History Unit-4 Expected Questions

    Q1. The rate of discount charged on payments made through Hundi during medieval India was known as:

    (1) Anth
    (2) Foṭa
    (3) Do-dāmi
    (4) Satārahi

    Correct Answer: (4) Satārahi
    Explanation:
    Hundi was a credit/transfer instrument used by merchants. The fee or discount charged on its encashment was called Satārahi, indicating the maturity rate in commercial transactions.


    Q2. Match List-I with List-II regarding the artisans engaged in construction:

    List-I (Artisans) List-II (Work field)
    (a) Ahakpuzan (i) Brick layer
    (b) Khishtmalan (ii) Lime burners
    (c) Parchinkar (iii) Engraver
    (d) Surkhikob (iv) Pounder

    Options:
    (1) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
    (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
    (3) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
    (4) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

    Correct Answer: (4)
    Explanation:
    Medieval building activity involved highly skilled workers such as lime-burners, engravers, and brick-layers. These job titles reflect specialization in urban architectural development.


    Q3. “Of all the sovereigns of the House of Taimur, none since Sikandar Lodi was so distinguished for devotion, austerity and justice as him.”

    The above remark praises:
    (1) Akbar
    (2) Jahangir
    (3) Shahjahan
    (4) Aurangzeb

    Correct Answer: (4) Aurangzeb
    Explanation:
    Contemporary chroniclers admired Aurangzeb for strict adherence to Islamic law, justice, and personal austerity.


    Q4. Who founded the Khalji dynasty in Delhi Sultanate?

    (1) Jalal-ud-din Khalji
    (2) Alauddin Khalji
    (3) Mubarak Shah
    (4) Qutbuddin Mubarak

    Correct Answer: (1) Jalal-ud-din Khalji
    Explanation:
    Jalal-ud-din established the Khalji dynasty in 1290 CE after overthrowing the last ruler of the Mamluk dynasty.


    Q5. Which Sultan attempted to shift the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad?

    (1) Balban
    (2) Alauddin Khalji
    (3) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
    (4) Firuz Tughlaq

    Correct Answer: (3) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
    Explanation:
    This experiment was part of his administrative innovations but resulted in hardship, leading to its reversal.


    Q6. The institution of Iqta during the Sultanate period refers to:

    (1) A hereditary landholding
    (2) Revenue assignment in lieu of salary
    (3) Trading license
    (4) Land gifted to temple institutions

    Correct Answer: (2) Revenue assignment in lieu of salary
    Explanation:
    Iqta was granted to nobles and military officers to collect revenue instead of receiving cash salary.


    Q7. Which Sultan abolished the practice of hereditary appointment to offices and introduced daghand chehra system in the army?

    (1) Iltutmish
    (2) Balban
    (3) Alauddin Khalji
    (4) Firuz Tughlaq

    Correct Answer: (3) Alauddin Khalji
    Explanation:
    Dagh (branding horses) and chehra (soldier description register) stopped corruption and ensured loyalty.


    Q8. The main reason for the decline of the Delhi Sultanate was:

    (1) Mongol invasions
    (2) Rise of provincial kingdoms
    (3) Weak successors and internal conflicts
    (4) Economic bankruptcy

    Correct Answer: (3) Weak successors and internal conflicts
    Explanation:
    After Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq and Firuz Tughlaq, constant factionalism among nobles weakened the Sultanate.


    Q9. Who among the following was the author of Tarikh-i-Firozshahi?

    (1) Amir Khusrau
    (2) Ziauddin Barani
    (3) Minhaz-us-Siraj
    (4) Shams-i-Siraj Afif

    Correct Answer: (4) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
    Explanation:
    He documented the reign of Firuz Shah Tughlaq and administrative reforms.


    Q10. Which medieval institution served as a record room and administrative archive?

    (1) Pothis
    (2) Daftar-khana
    (3) Dastur-ul-Amal
    (4) Akhbarat

    Correct Answer: (2) Daftar-khana
    Explanation:
    It functioned as an official bureau where farmaans, reports, and state orders were stored and processed.


    UNIT 4 RECAP

    Key coverage:

    • Medieval historical sources: chronicles, inscriptions, foreign travelers, daftar records

    • Delhi Sultanate political developments

    • Key administrative reforms

    • Decline of Sultanate

    • Economic and military systems

  • UGC NET History Unit-3 Expected Questions

    Q1. Arrange the following inscriptions in the chronological order:

    (a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
    (b) Aihole Inscription
    (c) Halmidi Inscription
    (d) Hathigumpha Inscription

    Options:
    (1) (a), (b), (d), (c)
    (2) (d), (a), (c), (b)
    (3) (c), (d), (b), (a)
    (4) (d), (a), (b), (c)

    Correct Answer: (4) (d), (a), (b), (c)
    Explanation:

    • Hathigumpha (Kharavela) – 1st century BCE

    • Allahabad Pillar (Samudragupta) – 4th century CE

    • Aihole (Pulakesin II by Ravikirti) – 634 CE

    • Halmidi (Earliest Kannada inscription) – 7th century CE


    Q2. In the Early Medieval period, which model was used to explain the process of state formation in South India?

    (1) Feudal Model
    (2) Segmentary Model
    (3) Integrative Model
    (4) Oriental Despotism

    Correct Answer: (2) Segmentary Model
    Explanation:
    Burton Stein applied the segmentary state model to describe Chola rule, arguing multiple layers of authority and ritual sovereignty.


    Q3. Match the artisans engaged in construction with their modern work field

    | List – I (Artisans) | List – II (Modern meaning) |
    |—|—|
    | (a) Ahakpuzan | (i) Bricklayer |
    | (b) Khishtmalan | (ii) Engraver |
    | (c) Parchinkar | (iii) Pounder |
    | (d) Surkhikob | (iv) Lime burners |

    Options:
    (1) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
    (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
    (3) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
    (4) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

    Correct Answer: (4)
    Explanation:
    These artisan roles reflect specialization in medieval building activities.


    Q4. Who among the following historians questioned the centralized nature of medieval Indian state?

    (a) Burton Stein
    (b) Douglas Streusand
    (c) J.F. Richards
    (d) Frank Perlin

    Options:
    (1) (a), (b) and (c)
    (2) (a), (c) and (d)
    (3) (a), (b) and (d)
    (4) All of the above

    Correct Answer: (4) All of the above
    Explanation:
    All these historians challenged the view of an all-powerful medieval Indian state and argued for distributed power.
    Referenced in uploaded question


    Q5. Which one of the following inscriptions praises the justice of Aurangzeb?

    (1) Akbar
    (2) Jahangir
    (3) Shahjahan
    (4) Aurangzeb

    Correct Answer: (4) Aurangzeb
    Explanation:
    Khafi Khan commended Aurangzeb for justice and personal conduct.


    Q6. Which of the following kingdoms belonged to Eastern India in the Early Medieval period?

    (1) Maitrakas
    (2) Palas
    (3) Gurjara-Pratiharas
    (4) Paramaras

    Correct Answer: (2) Palas
    Explanation:
    Palas ruled eastern India (Bengal and Bihar). 


    Q7. The earliest known manuscript written on paper was:

    (1) Shatapatha Brahmana – 1089 CE – Kashmir
    (2) Chachnama – 11th century – Sind
    (3) Kalhan’s Rajatarangini – 1149 CE – Kashmir
    (4) Tarikh-i-Baihaqi – Ghazni

    Correct Answer: (2) Chachnama – 11th century – Sind
    Explanation:
    Recognized as earliest paper manuscript in India.


    UNIT 3 REVISION POINTS (SYLLABUS)

    Based on official syllabus material uploaded:

    • Rise of regional states (Deccan, South, North, East, West)

    • Political features of early medieval India

    • Segmentary / Feudal / Integrative models

    • Trade, agriculture & social hierarchy

  • UGC NET Performing Arts Unit-2-MCQs

    Unit 2 — Folk & Traditional Theatre Forms of India — 100 MCQs (UGC-NET standard)

    1. Folk theatre primarily evolved out of:
      A) Courtly salons
      B) Agricultural and ritual celebrations
      C) Printed drama
      D) Western opera
      Answer: B

    2. Tribal theatre is best characterized by:
      A) Urban themes and written scripts
      B) Ritual, animistic beliefs, and community rites
      C) Fixed proscenium stages
      D) Colonial patronage
      Answer: B

    3. The major difference between classical and folk theatre is:
      A) Use of music only
      B) Codified textual grammar vs. oral improvisation
      C) All folk theatre is ritual whereas classical is not
      D) Classical theatre never uses costumes
      Answer: B

    4. “Traditional theatre” usually implies:
      A) Theatre for modern audiences only
      B) Performance forms transmitted through hereditary or institutional lineages
      C) Theatre without music
      D) Western-influenced plays
      Answer: B

    5. Which of the following is a key social function of folk theatre?
      A) Market speculation
      B) Moral education, community cohesion and entertainment
      C) Court chronicle only
      D) Private entertainment of elites
      Answer: B

    6. A hallmark feature of many folk performances is:
      A) Strict adherence to a printed script
      B) Audience participation and improvisation
      C) Silence by the audience
      D) Use of electric amplification only
      Answer: B

    7. The Bhakti movement influenced folk theatre chiefly by:
      A) Replacing performance with meditation
      B) Making sacred narratives accessible in vernacular and encouraging devotional enactments
      C) Encouraging Sanskrit-only performances
      D) Banning public performance
      Answer: B

    8. Which of the following forms is primarily a community enactment of the Ramayana?
      A) Jatra
      B) Ramlila
      C) Yakshagana
      D) Chhau
      Answer: B

    9. Raslila performances primarily enact episodes of:
      A) Ramayana
      B) Bhagavata Purana (Krishna Leela)
      C) Mahabharata
      D) Vedas
      Answer: B

    10. Nautanki is a folk theatre form best associated with:
      A) Tamil Nadu
      B) Uttar Pradesh and North India
      C) Kerala
      D) Assam
      Answer: B

    11. Which instrument is most commonly associated with Nautanki?
      A) Maddale
      B) Dholak and harmonium
      C) Pena
      D) Chenda
      Answer: B

    12. Bhand Pather is a satirical dramatic form from:
      A) Gujarat
      B) Kashmir
      C) Maharashtra
      D) Odisha
      Answer: B

    13. Yakshagana is traditionally performed in:
      A) Karnataka (Coastal)
      B) West Bengal
      C) Kerala only
      D) Punjab
      Answer: A

    14. The principal percussion instrument in Yakshagana is:
      A) Mizhavu
      B) Maddale
      C) Tabla
      D) Dholak
      Answer: B

    15. Kutiyattam is a Sanskrit theatre tradition preserved in:
      A) Tamil Nadu
      B) Kerala (Koothambalam)
      C) Karnataka
      D) Odisha
      Answer: B

    16. Which drum is central to Kutiyattam performance?
      A) Mizhavu
      B) Mridangam
      C) Chenda
      D) Dhol
      Answer: A

    17. Chhau masks are associated primarily with which variant?
      A) Mayurbhanj form
      B) Seraikella form
      C) Purulia form
      D) All of the above have different mask usages (Purulia uses masks prominently)
      Answer: D

    18. Chhau is performed widely in:
      A) Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal
      B) Kerala only
      C) Punjab only
      D) Bihar only
      Answer: A

    19. The percussion instrument prominent in Chhau is:
      A) Tabla
      B) Dhol and dhumsa
      C) Pakhawaj
      D) Mizhavu
      Answer: B

    20. Jatra theatre is a popular form in:
      A) Kerala
      B) West Bengal and Odisha
      C) Gujarat
      D) Andhra Pradesh
      Answer: B

    21. Which of the following is an Assamese devotional theatre form created by Sankardeva?
      A) Ankiya Naat (Bhaona)
      B) Kutiyattam
      C) Yakshagana
      D) Ramlila
      Answer: A

    22. Instruments central to Bhaona include:
      A) Khol (drum) and tal (cymbals)
      B) Tabla and sitar
      C) Mizhavu only
      D) Pena only
      Answer: A

    23. Therukoothu literally means:
      A) Temple ritual
      B) Street play
      C) Court drama
      D) Puppet show
      Answer: B

    24. Main percussion for Therukoothu is:
      A) Chenda and mizhavu
      B) Mridangam and mukhavina
      C) Dhol and nagara
      D) Tabla only
      Answer: B

    25. Kuravanji is a Tamil dance-drama known for:
      A) Comic satire exclusively
      B) Fortune-teller (Kurathi) heroine and blend of folk and classical idioms
      C) Masked battle scenes
      D) Puppetry
      Answer: B

    26. Krishnattam is a temple dance drama of:
      A) Tamil Nadu
      B) Kerala (describing Krishna Leela)
      C) Karnataka
      D) Assam
      Answer: B

    27. Which percussion instrument is prominent in Theyyam?
      A) Chenda
      B) Tabla
      C) Tabla and sitar
      D) None
      Answer: A

    28. Pandvani is a narrative performance tradition associated with which epic?
      A) Ramayana
      B) Mahabharata
      C) Bhagavata Purana
      D) None of the above
      Answer: B

    29. The soloist in Pandvani often plays the:
      A) Ektara
      B) Sitar
      C) Flute
      D) Tabla
      Answer: A

    30. Burrakatha is a narrative form from:
      A) Maharashtra
      B) Andhra Pradesh & Telangana
      C) West Bengal
      D) Punjab
      Answer: B

    31. Typical Burrakatha troupe composition is:
      A) One soloist only
      B) Three performers – main storyteller, joker, and chorus/support
      C) Ten dancers only
      D) Two musicians only
      Answer: B

    32. Which folk form often uses Lavani songs?
      A) Tamasha (Maharashtra)
      B) Kutiyattam
      C) Chhau
      D) Jatra
      Answer: A

    33. Bhavai is a folk theatre form from:
      A) Gujarat
      B) Bengal
      C) Assam
      D) Karnataka
      Answer: A

    34. Which instrument is commonly used in Bhavai?
      A) Nagara and pakhawaj
      B) Pena
      C) Maddale
      D) Mizhavu
      Answer: A

    35. Dashavatar performances depict:
      A) Ten incarnations of Vishnu
      B) Scenes from Mahabharata only
      C) Local folktales only
      D) Islamic stories
      Answer: A

    36. Phad painting tradition is linked with which folk form?
      A) Nautanki
      B) Pabuji Ki Phad (a mobile scroll linked to Phad performance in Rajasthan)
      C) Yakshagana
      D) Kutiyattam
      Answer: B

    37. Sutradhar in folk theatre is comparable to:
      A) The stage curtain
      B) Narrator or stage-manager who guides the audience
      C) A percussionist only
      D) None of the above
      Answer: B

    38. The role of Vidushaka in folk-influenced classical plays is:
      A) Villain
      B) Clown or jester providing comic relief and social commentary
      C) Hero only
      D) Musician only
      Answer: B

    39. Which instrument is central to Manipuri Lai Haraoba rituals?
      A) Pena (string instrument)
      B) Tabla
      C) Mridangam
      D) Harmonium
      Answer: A

    40. The Koothambalam is the traditional theatre space of:
      A) Karnataka
      B) Kerala (for Kutiyattam and temple arts)
      C) Tamil Nadu
      D) Odisha
      Answer: B

    41. Which of the following is a characteristic of folk theatre costume?
      A) Minimal, symbolic and colourful denoting role and status
      B) Identical to western stage costume
      C) Always monochrome white
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    42. Which instrument grouping is Ghana Vadya in Indian classification?
      A) Solid struck instruments (e.g., gongs)
      B) Membranous drums only
      C) Wind instruments only
      D) String instruments only
      Answer: A

    43. Avanaddha refers to which class of instruments?
      A) Stringed instruments
      B) Membranous percussion instruments (e.g., drums)
      C) Wind instruments
      D) Solid struck instruments
      Answer: B

    44. Which form is best known for overnight public performances with melodramatic plot and music in Bengal?
      A) Theyyam
      B) Jatra
      C) Kutiyattam
      D) Yakshagana
      Answer: B

    45. Which folk form is associated with the depiction of Krishna’s dance with gopis in Braj?
      A) Ramlila
      B) Raslila
      C) Jatra
      D) Tamasha
      Answer: B

    46. The principal instrument of Ramlila performance traditionally is:
      A) Shehnai and dholak along with harmonium in modern times
      B) Sitar only
      C) Pena only
      D) Tabla only
      Answer: A

    47. Which Southern form is traditionally performed by devadasis in temple contexts historically?
      A) Bharatanatyam (originating from temple ritual traditions including devadasi practice)
      B) Chhau
      C) Jatra
      D) Bhavai
      Answer: A

    48. Which folk tradition uses mask work extensively in Purulia Chhau?
      A) Kutiyattam
      B) Chhau (Purulia)
      C) Yakshagana only
      D) Jatra only
      Answer: B

    49. Which of the following forms uses extempore dialogues within a structured mythic plot?
      A) Yakshagana and Nautanki
      B) Ballet only
      C) Opera only
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    50. Which of these forms is known for martial-like choreography and heroic themes?
      A) Chhau
      B) Kuravanji
      C) Burrakatha
      D) Bhavai
      Answer: A

    51. Which region is the origin of Powada ballads?
      A) Maharashtra (heroic ballads like those of Shivaji)
      B) Assam
      C) Tamil Nadu
      D) Bengal
      Answer: A

    52. The principal instrument in Powada is:
      A) Dholki and tuntuna
      B) Pena
      C) Mizhavu
      D) Shehnai
      Answer: A

    53. Phad performers typically carry:
      A) A portable painted scroll depicting the hero’s life for narration and display
      B) Masks only
      C) Electronic amplifiers only
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    54. Which folk form’s performance often culminates with a moral epilogue and blessings to the audience?
      A) Most folk dramas (e.g., Ramlila, Jatra)
      B) Western opera only
      C) Silent mime only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    55. The term Laukika Abhinaya means:
      A) Ritualized, stylized acting
      B) Everyday, realistic expression in performance
      C) Masked dance only
      D) None of the above
      Answer: B

    56. Which vritti (mode) in Nāṭyaśāstra is associated with grace and erotic sentiment (Śṛṅgāra)?
      A) Kaiśikī
      B) Arabhati
      C) Bharati
      D) Sattvati
      Answer: A

    57. Which of the following forms is a devotional drama derived from Bhagavata Purana and performed in Kerala?
      A) Krishnattam and Bhagavata Mela (Melattur)
      B) Jatra
      C) Nautanki
      D) Powada
      Answer: A

    58. Sutradhar’s role in many folk traditions is to:
      A) Announce the start, narrate, and connect scenes (narrator/host)
      B) Play percussion only
      C) Perform the fight scenes only
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    59. Which of the following is a major challenge to folk theatre today?
      A) Strong state patronage only
      B) Urbanization, migration, competition from mass media and loss of patronage
      C) Too many performers
      D) Lack of scripts only
      Answer: B

    60. Which institution in India has been instrumental in documenting and supporting folk theatre?
      A) Sangeet Natak Akademi
      B) IMF
      C) FIFA
      D) UNESCO only (while UNESCO helps, the primary national is Sangeet Natak Akademi)
      Answer: A

    61. The feature ‘improvisation’ in folk theatre primarily helps in:
      A) Adapting to contemporary issues and audience responses
      B) Keeping performances identical always
      C) Eliminating music
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    62. Which folk form uses the mizhavu as the chief drum?
      A) Kutiyattam / Koothu of Kerala
      B) Yakshagana
      C) Jatra
      D) Pandvani
      Answer: A

    63. Which folk theatre in Andhra/Telangana is notable for fast-paced narrative and comic interplay?
      A) Burrakatha
      B) Jatra
      C) Bhavai
      D) Chhau
      Answer: A

    64. The traditional apprenticeship system in folk theatre is characterized by:
      A) Gurukula/lineage or hereditary transmission and on-the-job learning
      B) Only university degrees
      C) No training at all
      D) Online courses only
      Answer: A

    65. Which folk form of Odisha often enacts episodes from the Puranas with music and dance?
      A) Jatra and Gotipua / Odissi origins in temple contexts
      B) Nautanki only
      C) Bhavai only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    66. Which classical form shares origins with folk Krishnattam and later evolved into Kathakali?
      A) Krishnattam (Kerala)
      B) Jatra
      C) Nautanki
      D) Bhavai
      Answer: A

    67. Which of these instruments is a wind instrument used in many folk rituals and temple openings?
      A) Shehnai / Nadaswaram / Kuzhal (regional names)
      B) Mizhavu
      C) Ektara
      D) Kartal
      Answer: A

    68. In many folk traditions female roles historically were played by:
      A) Women exclusively everywhere historically
      B) Men in female disguise (in many traditions)
      C) Foreign performers only
      D) Machines
      Answer: B

    69. Which form is closely associated with the Sufi-Bhakti synthesis in some regions?
      A) Qawwali influences in performance spaces and folk kirtan traditions (syncretic forms)
      B) Chhau only
      C) Yakshagana only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    70. Which region’s folk theatre is known as Phad / Pabuji Ki Phad?
      A) Rajasthan (narrative scroll tradition)
      B) Kerala
      C) Bengal
      D) Assam
      Answer: A

    71. Which festival is primarily associated with Ramlila enactments?
      A) Dussehra (Vijayadashami)
      B) Holi
      C) Diwali only
      D) Baisakhi
      Answer: A

    72. The traditional mask theatre Chhau (Purulia) is primarily used to depict:
      A) Mythic battles and episodes from epics with stylized movement
      B) Courtly romances only
      C) Modern plays only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    73. Which of these Southern forms uses nattuvanars or specialised conductors in classical dance contexts?
      A) Bharatanatyam (nattuvanar conducting the tala and choreography; while not a folk form, intersection exists)
      B) Yakshagana only
      C) Chhau only
      D) Jatra only
      Answer: A

    74. Which of the following is a feature of Yakshagana performance style?
      A) Vigorous dance, colourful make-up, extempore dialogues, and mythic plots
      B) Silent mime only
      C) No music
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    75. Which folk form’s performers are believed to become possessed by deities during the act?
      A) Theyyam (Kerala)
      B) Nautanki
      C) Burrakatha
      D) Jatra
      Answer: A

    76. Which of the following is typically a chorus instrument in folk theatre?
      A) Kartal / manjira (cymbals) for keeping beat and supporting singing
      B) Mizhavu only
      C) Tabla only
      D) Electric guitar only
      Answer: A

    77. Which of these theatre spaces is an example of a traditional temple stage?
      A) Rangamandapa or Koothambalam in South India
      B) Proscenium stage only
      C) Film studio only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    78. Which folk form is associated with the telling of Pabuji’s legend on painted cloth?
      A) Phad (Rajasthan)
      B) Bhavai
      C) Chhau
      D) Kutiyattam
      Answer: A

    79. Which instrument is typically associated with Pandvani’s dramatic narrative?
      A) Ektara or tambura with kartal accompaniment
      B) Mizhavu only
      C) Pena only
      D) Shehnai only
      Answer: A

    80. Which form developed under Vaishnava influence in Assam by Sankardev?
      A) Ankiya Naat / Bhaona (Assam)
      B) Yakshagana
      C) Chhau
      D) Bhavai
      Answer: A

    81. In many folk dramas, the comic role often functions as:
      A) Moral exemplar only
      B) Social critic, mediator and interpreter of action for the audience (Vidushaka/Sutradhar functions)
      C) Only a musician
      D) None
      Answer: B

    82. Which of these is a preservation strategy commonly used for folk theatre today?
      A) Documentation, festivalization, grants, archival recordings and academic study
      B) Banning performances
      C) No action needed
      D) None
      Answer: A

    83. Which of the following forms commonly uses masks to denote character?
      A) Chhau (Purulia) and some tribal forms; also Yakshagana uses headgear though not full masks
      B) Nautanki only
      C) Jatra only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    84. Which form is known as a dramatic ballad tradition from central India narrating Mahabharata episodes?
      A) Pandvani
      B) Ramlila
      C) Bhavai
      D) Kutiyattam
      Answer: A

    85. Which instrument accompanies Raslila’s melodic enactments?
      A) Flute (bansuri), mridang/pakhawaj, kartal
      B) Electric keyboard only
      C) Guitar only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    86. Which of the following best exemplifies community theatre for agrarian cycles?
      A) Nacha/Karma Naach and harvest performances in Central and Eastern India
      B) Western opera only
      C) Film only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    87. Which folk form was extensively used as a vehicle for social reform and political messaging in the 20th century?
      A) Nautanki, Jatra, Tamasha and street theatre traditions adapted for reform (IPTA influences)
      B) Kutiyattam only
      C) Classical Bharatanatyam only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    88. Which of the following is a major difference between folk and popular theatre?
      A) Folk theatre is embedded in ritual and locality; popular theatre may be commercial and touring in nature
      B) Popular theatre is always ritualistic
      C) Folk theatre never uses songs
      D) None of the above
      Answer: A

    89. Which musical instrument is a bamboo wind pipe used in Assamese Bihu?
      A) Pepa
      B) Pena
      C) Ektara
      D) Nadaswaram
      Answer: A

    90. Which folk theatre from Tamil Nadu regularly performs in open streets during festivals?
      A) Therukoothu
      B) Yakshagana
      C) Chhau
      D) Bhavai
      Answer: A

    91. Which of these is an example of a two-drum pair used in many folk forms?
      A) Dhol and nagara / dholak and nagada variants as regional percussion
      B) Tabla only
      C) Sitar only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    92. Which of the following is a key criterion for UNESCO recognition of living heritage forms (e.g., some folk forms)?
      A) Community significance, transmission methods, cultural continuity and intangible heritage value
      B) Monetary value only
      C) Tourist appeal only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    93. Which folk form uses elaborate facial painting and bright costumes to represent characters, often with trance states?
      A) Theyyam (Kerala)
      B) Nautanki only
      C) Pandvani only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    94. Which instrument provides drone accompaniment in many folk narrative forms?
      A) Tambura / tanpura or single-string variants like ektara/tuntuna
      B) Tabla only
      C) Chenda only
      D) All of the above
      Answer: A

    95. Which of the following best explains the term Pravritti in the context of folk theatre?
      A) A regional style or transmission tradition (school) of performance
      B) A musical note
      C) A costume element
      D) None
      Answer: A

    96. Which of the following is an example of a tribal ritual theatre that also functions as a community oracle?
      A) Theyyam (possession-ritual) and similar forms where performer becomes deity-temporary
      B) Nautanki only
      C) Jatra only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    97. Which classical treatise is frequently used to compare folk practice despite its Sanskritic orientation?
      A) Nāṭyaśāstra (Bharata Muni) — used as comparative theoretical frame
      B) European treatises only
      C) Chinese treatises only
      D) None
      Answer: A

    98. Which is a common form of audience interaction in folk theatre?
      A) Call-and-response singing, jeering, offering and joining in dances
      B) Complete silence only
      C) Leaving the venue immediately
      D) None
      Answer: A

    99. Modern adaptations of folk theatre often involve:
      A) Incorporation of contemporary issues, language updating, and theatrical staging techniques (amplification, lighting)
      B) Strictly unchanged repertoire only
      C) No changes at all
      D) None
      Answer: A

    100. For UGC-NET Unit 2, the most important facts to remember include:
      A) Regional forms, instruments, ritual contexts, Bhakti influence, performance features and preservation issues
      B) Only names of performers
      C) Only modern theatre theory
      D) None
      Answer: A

  • UGC NET – Paper-1 – Data Interpretation – MCQs – Practice Set

     (10 Data Sets, 50 Questions)


    📊 DATA SET 1 — Table: Student Enrollment (2019–2023)

    Year Arts Science Commerce Total
    2019 300 250 150 700
    2020 320 270 180 770
    2021 340 300 200 840
    2022 380 330 220 930
    2023 400 360 250 1010

    Questions

    1. In which year was total enrollment highest?

    2. Average Science enrollment (2019–2023)?

    3. % increase in Commerce students from 2019 to 2023?

    4. Ratio of Arts to Science students in 2023?

    5. By how many did total enrollment increase from 2019 to 2023?


    Answers

    1. 2023 (1010 – highest total)

    2. (250+270+300+330+360)/5=302

    3. (250150)/150×100=66.7%

    4. 400:360=10:9

    5. 1010700=310


    🥧 DATA SET 2 — Pie Chart: Expenditure of a Company (Total ₹12 lakh)

    Category % Share
    Salaries 40%
    Raw Material 25%
    Rent 15%
    Marketing 10%
    Miscellaneous 10%

    Questions

    1. Expenditure on Raw Material = ?

    2. Combined % on Marketing + Miscellaneous = ?

    3. How much more spent on Salaries than on Rent?

    4. What is the angle of the Raw Material sector?

    5. If total increased by 10% next year, what will be Marketing expenditure?


    Answers

    1. 25% of 12,00,000 = ₹3,00,000

    2. 10 + 10 = 20%

    3. (40–15)% of 12,00,000 = 25% = ₹3,00,000

    4. (25/100)×360°=90°

    5. New total = 13,20,000 → 10% = ₹1,32,000


    📈 DATA SET 3 — Line Graph: Sales of Product A & B (in ₹ Lakh)

    Year Product A Product B
    2018 20 25
    2019 25 30
    2020 30 28
    2021 40 35
    2022 45 40

    Questions

    1. In which year was the difference between A and B sales maximum?

    2. Average sales of Product B?

    3. % increase in A’s sales from 2018 to 2022?

    4. Ratio of A:B in 2020?

    5. In how many years did Product B sales exceed A?


    Answers

    1. 2018 → |25–20|=5; 2021 → |40–35|=5; 2022 → |45–40|=5 → Equal max difference = 5 lakh

    2. (25+30+28+35+40)/5 = 31.6 lakh

    3. (4520)/20×100=125%

    4. 30:28 = 15:14

    5. 3 years (2018–2020)


    🧮 DATA SET 4 — Table: University Results

    Subject Appeared Passed Failed
    English 400 340 60
    History 300 210 90
    Economics 350 280 70
    Sociology 250 230 20
    Political Sci. 200 160 40

    Questions

    1. Overall pass % of the university?

    2. Highest pass % subject?

    3. Total failed students in all subjects?

    4. Average pass % across subjects?

    5. Ratio of passed to failed in History?


    Answers

    1. Total pass = 340+210+280+230+160=1220; total =1500 → 1220/1500×100=81.3%

    2. Sociology → 230/250=92%

    3. 60+90+70+20+40=280

    4. (85+70+80+92+80)/5 = 81.4%

    5. 210:90 = 7:3


    📊 DATA SET 5 — Bar Graph: Books Sold by a Publisher

    Genre No. of Books
    Fiction 1200
    Non-fiction 900
    Children 600
    Reference 300
    Others 500

    Questions

    1. % share of Fiction books?

    2. Ratio of Children to Reference books?

    3. Difference between Fiction and Non-fiction books?

    4. If total books = 3500, find % of Others.

    5. Total books in all genres except Fiction?


    Answers

    1. 1200/3500×100=34.3%

    2. 600:300 = 2:1

    3. 1200–900 = 300

    4. 500/3500×100=14.3%

    5. 3500–1200 = 2300


    📈 DATA SET 6 — Table: Imports & Exports (₹ Crore)

    Year Imports Exports
    2018 500 400
    2019 600 450
    2020 700 600
    2021 650 620
    2022 800 700

    Questions

    1. In which year was trade deficit (Import–Export) highest?

    2. Average exports (2018–2022)?

    3. % increase in imports from 2018 to 2022?

    4. Year with trade surplus?

    5. Ratio of total imports to total exports.


    Answers

    1. 2022 → 800–700=100 (highest deficit)

    2. (400+450+600+620+700)/5 = 554 crore

    3. (800500)/500×100=60%

    4. None (all imports > exports)

    5. (500+600+700+650+800):(400+450+600+620+700)=3250:2770 ≈ 1.17:1


    🧾 DATA SET 7 — Caselet: Newspaper Readership

    A survey of 1,000 people showed:

    • 400 read The Times

    • 300 read The Herald

    • 200 read The Voice

    • 150 read both Times and Herald

    • 50 read all three papers


    Questions

    1. How many read both Times and Voice but not Herald (if 90 read both Times & Voice)?

    2. How many read at least one newspaper?

    3. How many read none?

    4. How many read only The Herald?

    5. How many read exactly two newspapers?


    Answers

    Let universal set = 1000.
    Using set theory:

    1. Times∩Voice only = 90–50 = 40

    2. At least one = Total – None; find later.
      (T+H+V) – (T∩H + T∩V + H∩V) + All three = (400+300+200)–(150+90+?)+50. Assuming H∩V = 70.
      = 900–310+50=640.
      So 640 read ≥1.

    3. None = 1000–640=360

    4. Herald only = 300–150–70+50=130.

    5. Exactly two = (150+90+70) – 3×50 = 160


    📊 DATA SET 8 — Pie Chart: Sources of Electricity Generation

    Source  % Share
    Thermal 40%
    Hydro 25%
    Nuclear 15%
    Solar 10%
    Wind 10%

    Total output = 10,000 MW.


    Questions

    1. MW generated by Nuclear power?

    2. Combined contribution of renewable (Solar + Wind)?

    3. Thermal power generation in MW?

    4. What angle represents Hydro power?

    5. Ratio of Hydro : Nuclear power.


    Answers

    1. 15% × 10,000 = 1500 MW

    2. (10+10)% = 20% = 2000 MW

    3. 40% × 10,000 = 4000 MW

    4. (25/100)×360=90°

    5. 25:15 = 5:3


    📉 DATA SET 9 — Line Graph: Students in Two Universities

    Year University X University Y.
    2018 12,000 10,000
    2019 14,000 11,500
    2020 16,000 13,000
    2021 18,000 15,000
    2022 20,000 16,000

    Questions

    1. Growth % of University X (2018–2022)?

    2. Average students in University Y?

    3. Difference in 2020 student count between X and Y?

    4. Year when total enrollment (X+Y) crossed 30,000?

    5. Ratio of X:Y in 2022?


    Answers

    1. (20,00012,000)/12,000×100=66.7%

    2. (10,000+11,500+13,000+15,000+16,000)/5 = 13,100

    3. 16,000–13,000 = 3,000

    4. 2020 (16k+13k=29k <30k); 2021 (33k >30k) → 2021

    5. 20,000:16,000 = 5:4


    📊 DATA SET 10 — Table: GDP (Sector-wise, ₹ crore)

    Year Agriculture Industry Services Total
    2018 200 300 500 1000
    2019 220 350 530 1100
    2020 250 370 580 1200
    2021 260 390 650 1300
    2022 280 420 700 1400

    Questions

    1. Which sector grew most (2018–2022)?

    2. Share of Services sector in 2022 GDP?

    3. Average Industry output (all years)?

    4. % growth of total GDP (2018–2022)?

    5. Ratio of Agriculture to Total GDP in 2022?


    Answers

    1. Agriculture: +80; Industry: +120; Services: +200 → Services

    2. 700/1400×100 = 50%

    3. (300+350+370+390+420)/5 = 366 crore

    4. (1400–1000)/1000×100 = 40%

    5. 280:1400 = 1:5

  • UGC NET Paper 1 – Unit 5: Mathematical Reasoning & Aptitude-MCQs-Set-2

    Section A – Mathematical Reasoning (Q1–Q25)


    Q1. “Either it rains or it snows” is represented by
    A) p ∧ q B) p ∨ q C) p → q D) ¬p → q
    Answer: B
    Solution: “Either…or” means disjunction (∨).


    Q2. Negation of “Some students are honest” is
    A) No student is honest B) All students are dishonest C) All students are not honest D) All students are dishonest
    Answer: A
    Solution: Negation of “Some A are B” → “No A are B.”


    Q3. Which of the following is not a statement?
    A) 5 + 7 = 12 B) Today is Monday C) Read this book D) Moon reflects light
    Answer: C
    Solution: Imperative sentence ≠ logical statement.


    Q4. Truth value of (p ∧ q) when p = T, q = F is
    A) T B) F C) Undefined D) Both
    Answer: B


    Q5. The compound statement “If 3 > 5 then 10 > 8” is
    A) True B) False C) Cannot say D) Contradiction
    Answer: A
    Solution: Antecedent false ⇒ implication true.


    Q6. “All cats are mammals” ⇒ Contrapositive is
    A) If not mammal then not cat B) If mammal then cat C) If cat then mammal D) None
    Answer: A


    Q7. Identify the tautology:
    A) p ∧ ¬p B) p ∨ ¬p C) ¬(p ∨ q) D) p → ¬p
    Answer: B


    Q8. Which of the following is a contradiction?
    A) p ∨ ¬p B) p ∧ ¬p C) ¬(p ∧ ¬p) D) p → p
    Answer: B


    Q9. If p = T, q = F then ¬(p ∨ q) = ?
    A) T B) F C) Both D) Undefined
    Answer: A


    Q10. “If it rains then I take umbrella” – converse is
    A) If I take umbrella then it rains.
    B) If it doesn’t rain then no umbrella.
    C) I never use umbrella.
    D) None.
    Answer: A


    Q11. Valid conclusion:
    All A are B; Some B are C ⇒ ?
    A) Some A are C B) All C are A C) Cannot be concluded D) No A is C
    Answer: C


    Q12. “Either the train is late or the driver is ill.” – when false?
    A) Both true B) Both false C) Only one true D) Never
    Answer: B


    Q13. Which statement pair forms contradictory propositions?
    A) All A are B & No A are B B) Some A are B & Some A are not B C) All A are B & Some A are not B D) No A are B & Some A are not B
    Answer: C


    Q14. “If p then q” and “¬p or q” are
    A) Contradictory B) Equivalent C) Independent D) Inverse
    Answer: B


    Q15. If all statements are true except one, which cannot be true together?
    A) p ∧ ¬p B) p ∨ q C) ¬p ∨ ¬q D) p → q
    Answer: A


    Q16. A valid argument is also called
    A) Tautology B) Contradiction C) Deductive truth D) Inference
    Answer: D


    Q17. If “No books are pens” is true, then “Some books are pens” is
    A) True B) False C) Uncertain D) Independent
    Answer: B


    Q18. “All students in the class are attentive.” – negation is
    A) Some students in the class are not attentive.
    Answer: A


    Q19. A proposition that is always false is called a
    A) Tautology B) Contradiction C) Contingency D) Negation
    Answer: B


    Q20. If a valid argument has true premises, then its conclusion is
    A) True B) False C) Indeterminate D) Independent
    Answer: A


    Q21. Symbolic form of “If it is not cold then I go out.”
    A) ¬p → q B) p → ¬q C) q → p D) ¬q → p
    Answer: A


    Q22. Inference rule “If p→q and q→r then p→r” is
    A) Law of syllogism B) Law of identity C) Law of negation D) Law of equivalence
    Answer: A


    Q23. When a conclusion is probable but not certain, it is
    A) Deduction B) Induction C) Fallacy D) Contradiction
    Answer: B


    Q24. “Either India wins or the match is drawn.” – if both false ⇒
    A) Statement true B) Statement false C) Cannot say D) Partially true
    Answer: B


    Q25. Identify the fallacy:
    If it rains, streets wet. Streets wet ⇒ it rained.
    A) Denying antecedent B) Affirming consequent C) Inverse error D) Contrapositive
    Answer: B


    Section B – Quantitative Aptitude (Q26–Q50)


    Q26. 20 % of a number = 60. Find the number.
    → N = 60 × 100 / 20 = 300.
    Answer: 300


    Q27. Find the mean of 10, 20, 30, 40, 50.
    Sum = 150 → Avg = 150/5 = 30.
    Answer: 30


    Q28. A and B can finish a job in 12 and 18 days. Together?

    T=12×1812+18=7.2 days

    Answer: 7.2 days


    Q29. Compound interest on ₹ 800 at 5 % for 2 years = ?

    800[(1.05)21]=800×0.1025=82

    Answer: ₹ 82


    Q30. Ratio A:B = 4:5. If A = 80, B =?
    B = 80 × 5/4 = 100.
    Answer: 100


    Q31. Two numbers have HCF 6 and LCM 72. If one is 18, the other =?

    6×72=18×xx=24

    Answer: 24


    Q32. A car runs 60 km at 30 km/h and 60 km at 90 km/h. Average speed = ?

    2×30×90/(30+90)=45

    Answer: 45 km/h


    Q33. Discount 10 % on ₹ 2000 ⇒ SP = ?
    = 2000 – 200 = 1800.
    Answer: ₹ 1800


    Q34. If SP = ₹ 600, loss = 25 %, CP = ?

    600×100/75=800

    Answer: ₹ 800


    Q35. 15 % of x = 75. Find x.

    x=75×100/15=500

    Answer: 500


    Q36. Find probability of odd number on dice.
    = 3/6 = 1/2.
    Answer: 0.5


    Q37. If 10 workers finish job in 15 days, work done in 9 days by 10 workers = ?
    = 9/15 = 3/5 = 60 %.
    Answer: 60 % of work.


    Q38. Find simple interest on ₹ 5000 at 12 % for 2 years.

    5000×12×2/100=1200

    Answer: ₹ 1200


    Q39. Average of first n natural numbers = ?

    n+12

    Answer: (n + 1)/2


    Q40. Number of factors of 36 = ?
    36 = 2²×3² → (2+1)(2+1)=9.
    Answer: 9


    Q41. Find next term: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
    Pattern ×2 +1 ⇒ (47×2)+1 = 95.
    Answer: 95


    Q42. 8 men can build a wall in 20 days. How long for 10 men?
    8×20 = 10×x ⇒ x = 16.
    Answer: 16 days


    Q43. Price of item ₹ 5000 increased by 8 %, then decreased by 8 %. Net effect =?
    Loss = (8×8)/100 = 0.64 %.
    Answer: 0.64 % loss.


    Q44. Find median of 3, 7, 9, 11, 13.
    = 9.
    Answer: 9


    Q45. Mean of first 5 even numbers = ?
    (2+4+6+8+10)/5 = 6.
    Answer: 6


    Q46. If 2x + 3 = 11 ⇒ x =?
    x = 4.
    Answer: 4


    Q47. Simplify:

    (1/2+1/3+1/6)×6

    = (1 + 2 + 1) = 4.
    Answer: 4


    Q48. A train 150 m long crosses a pole in 15 s. Speed = ?
    = 150/15 = 10 m/s = 36 km/h.
    Answer: 36 km/h


    Q49. If sum of digits of a number is divisible by 9, the number is divisible by ?
    A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12
    Answer: C


    Q50. Find value of √(144 + 25).
    = √169 = 13.
    Answer: 13

  • UGC NET Paper 1: Unit 3 — Comprehension Practice (Long-Form, NTA Standard)

    (Set – 1: Passages 1–5)


    🧩 Passage 1 – The Paradox of Modern Communication

    The world today is more connected than ever before, yet human beings often feel more isolated. Technology has eliminated geographical distances, allowing instant communication across continents. However, this ease of interaction has also reduced the depth of relationships. Virtual conversations, though convenient, often lack emotional nuance and empathy.

    In earlier decades, communication demanded patience — letters took days or weeks to arrive, and phone calls were special occasions. The waiting itself gave value to the message. Now, messages are instant and disposable. The convenience of modern communication has replaced emotional investment with efficiency.

    Moreover, the abundance of digital messages has led to a decline in meaningful dialogue. People talk more, but listen less. The ability to express quickly has overshadowed the ability to reflect deeply. Emotional cues — tone, gesture, silence — have vanished in text-based interactions.

    The paradox, therefore, is that while communication has become easier, genuine connection has become harder. The challenge for the present generation is to use technology as a bridge, not as a barrier, to human relationships.


    Questions:

    Q1. The main idea of the passage is:
    A) Modern communication has strengthened emotional bonds.
    B) Technology connects people but weakens relationships.
    C) Letters are more effective than phone calls.
    D) Emotional cues are unimportant today.
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The passage contrasts ease of communication with emotional disconnection.

    Q2. Which word best describes the author’s tone?
    A) Celebratory
    B) Analytical and reflective
    C) Sarcastic
    D) Pessimistic
    Answer: B

    Q3. The phrase “messages are instant and disposable” implies:
    A) People delete messages quickly.
    B) Messages are valued less because they are easy to send.
    C) Messages are more permanent.
    D) Technology is unreliable.
    Answer: B

    Q4. What, according to the author, has vanished in digital communication?
    A) Emotional cues
    B) Speed
    C) Honesty
    D) Relevance
    Answer: A

    Q5. The passage suggests that technology should be used as:
    A) A substitute for empathy
    B) A bridge to build real connection
    C) A tool for avoiding people
    D) A means of isolation
    Answer: B


    🧩 Passage 2 – The Purpose of Education

    Education has often been viewed as a means to secure employment and economic stability. While this perspective is practical, it overlooks the deeper purpose of education — the cultivation of wisdom, empathy, and critical thinking. A truly educated person is not merely one who possesses degrees or professional skills but one who understands the responsibilities of being human in a complex world.

    Modern systems of education, driven by competition and standardized testing, tend to prioritize measurable outcomes over intellectual curiosity. Students are trained to reproduce information rather than to question it. As a result, creativity and moral reasoning are often sacrificed at the altar of performance.

    True education must aim to balance intellectual achievement with ethical awareness. It should nurture the ability to think independently, to distinguish between right and wrong, and to act with compassion.

    In this sense, education is not preparation for life — it is life itself. It must inspire individuals to pursue truth, to challenge injustice, and to contribute meaningfully to society. Economic prosperity may be one outcome, but it should never be the sole objective.


    Questions:

    Q1. According to the author, the ultimate goal of education is to:
    A) Train people for jobs
    B) Develop wisdom and moral reasoning
    C) Promote competition
    D) Achieve high test scores
    Answer: B

    Q2. The author criticizes modern education for:
    A) Lack of infrastructure
    B) Overemphasis on measurable performance
    C) Encouraging creativity
    D) Supporting curiosity
    Answer: B

    Q3. “Education is not preparation for life — it is life itself” means:
    A) Education continues throughout life.
    B) Education is limited to school.
    C) Education is irrelevant.
    D) Education ends after graduation.
    Answer: A

    Q4. Which of the following is NOT a quality of a truly educated person, according to the passage?
    A) Empathy
    B) Independent thought
    C) Blind obedience
    D) Critical reasoning
    Answer: C

    Q5. The author’s tone is:
    A) Critical yet idealistic
    B) Sarcastic
    C) Disinterested
    D) Apathetic
    Answer: A


    🧩 Passage 3 – The Value of Scientific Curiosity

    Scientific progress is not the result of mere accumulation of facts but the outcome of curiosity guided by discipline. Great discoveries have often emerged not from structured programs but from a persistent desire to know “why” and “how.” Curiosity is the starting point of all scientific advancement; without it, even the most advanced laboratories would remain lifeless.

    However, curiosity alone is not enough. It must be coupled with patience, skepticism, and ethical responsibility. Science, when divorced from ethics, can become destructive rather than liberating. The twentieth century witnessed both the wonders of space exploration and the horrors of nuclear warfare — both born from scientific progress.

    Therefore, the true spirit of science lies not only in discovery but also in discernment. The scientist must be both a seeker of truth and a guardian of humanity’s well-being. When curiosity serves compassion, science becomes a force for good.


    Questions:

    Q1. The main idea of the passage is:
    A) Curiosity without ethics is dangerous.
    B) Science has no role in society.
    C) Science is based on random discoveries.
    D) Facts are more important than curiosity.
    Answer: A

    Q2. Which of the following pairs contrasts scientific progress?
    A) Space exploration and nuclear war
    B) Biology and physics
    C) Medicine and astronomy
    D) Chemistry and mathematics
    Answer: A

    Q3. The author believes scientific curiosity should be:
    A) Independent of moral control
    B) Guided by discipline and ethics
    C) Focused only on profit
    D) Suppressed by institutions
    Answer: B

    Q4. The tone of the author is:
    A) Inspirational and cautionary
    B) Satirical
    C) Indifferent
    D) Amusing
    Answer: A

    Q5. “The scientist must be both a seeker of truth and a guardian of humanity” means:
    A) Scientists must balance discovery with moral concern.
    B) Scientists should stop research.
    C) Science and ethics are unrelated.
    D) Science only benefits researchers.
    Answer: A


    🧩 Passage 4 – Democracy and Dissent

    A healthy democracy does not silence disagreement; it thrives on it. Dissent, when expressed responsibly, acts as a corrective mechanism against the misuse of power. History shows that progress often begins with those who challenge authority — reformers, activists, and thinkers who refused to accept injustice.

    Unfortunately, in many democracies today, dissent is seen as disloyalty. Critics are often labeled as “anti-national” or “troublemakers.” This attitude undermines the very foundation of democracy, which is built on freedom of thought and expression.

    Constructive criticism is not a threat but a necessity. It allows governments to refine policies, address public concerns, and prevent corruption. Suppressing criticism leads to stagnation, while encouraging debate leads to progress.

    Thus, democracy and dissent are not opposites; they are interdependent. Without the voice of dissent, democracy degenerates into authoritarianism.


    Questions:

    Q1. What is the main idea of the passage?
    A) Dissent is dangerous for democracy.
    B) Dissent strengthens democracy.
    C) Democracy must suppress criticism.
    D) Silence ensures peace.
    Answer: B

    Q2. The author views dissent as:
    A) A form of disrespect
    B) A necessary democratic tool
    C) A sign of instability
    D) A personal attack
    Answer: B

    Q3. The tone of the author is:
    A) Defensive
    B) Assertive and democratic
    C) Cynical
    D) Despairing
    Answer: B

    Q4. What happens when criticism is suppressed?
    A) Progress accelerates
    B) Stagnation and misuse of power occur
    C) Citizens become more active
    D) Peace increases
    Answer: B

    Q5. “Democracy and dissent are not opposites” implies:
    A) Both are mutually reinforcing.
    B) Dissent destroys democracy.
    C) Dissent is unimportant.
    D) Democracy cannot tolerate debate.
    Answer: A


    🧩 Passage 5 – The Challenge of Sustainable Development

    Sustainable development is often misunderstood as merely an environmental concern, but it encompasses a broader vision — economic, social, and ecological balance. The challenge is not only to meet present needs without compromising the future but also to redefine what we mean by “growth.”

    In traditional economics, growth is measured by GDP — the total value of goods and services produced. However, GDP does not account for environmental degradation, social inequality, or depletion of resources. A country may have a high GDP and yet be unsustainable if its development harms nature or marginalizes communities.

    True progress must therefore integrate environmental protection, social inclusion, and economic efficiency. This is the “triple bottom line” approach: people, planet, and profit.

    Achieving sustainability requires a shift in values — from consumerism to conservation, from short-term gains to long-term responsibility. The goal is not to stop development but to make it equitable and enduring.


    Questions:

    Q1. The central idea of the passage is that:
    A) Economic growth ensures sustainability.
    B) Sustainable development balances economy, society, and environment.
    C) Environmentalism opposes growth.
    D) Sustainability ignores economy.
    Answer: B

    Q2. GDP is criticized because it:
    A) Measures only agricultural output.
    B) Ignores social and environmental costs.
    C) Measures happiness directly.
    D) Reduces inequality.
    Answer: B

    Q3. “Triple bottom line” refers to:
    A) GDP, Inflation, and Employment
    B) People, Planet, and Profit
    C) Growth, Industry, and Infrastructure
    D) Government, Society, and Culture
    Answer: B

    Q4. The passage suggests sustainability requires:
    A) Short-term profit
    B) Long-term ethical responsibility
    C) Overproduction
    D) Consumption growth
    Answer: B

    Q5. The author’s tone is:
    A) Instructive and reformative
    B) Humorous
    C) Emotional
    D) Aggressive
    Answer: A

  • UGC NET Paper 1 Unit 3: Comprehension — Ways to Master It for UGC NET Exam

    🌱 1. Understanding Comprehension in UGC NET

    What is Comprehension?

    Comprehension means the ability to understand, interpret, and critically analyze a given text or passage.

    In UGC NET Paper 1, comprehension passages test:

    • Reading speed and accuracy

    • Vocabulary and contextual understanding

    • Logical reasoning and inference

    • Critical evaluation of arguments or ideas

    📄 Format:

    • Usually a passage of 200–250 words

    • Followed by 5 questions, each carrying 2 marks

    • Total: 10 marks


    📘 2. Types of Passages in UGC NET

    Type Description Example
    Factual/Informative Based on facts, data, reports, or studies A passage on renewable energy statistics
    Analytical/Logical Argument-based; requires reasoning A passage on whether AI replaces human creativity
    Descriptive/Narrative Describes a situation or event A passage describing environmental degradation
    Philosophical/Abstract Based on ideas, values, or concepts A passage discussing the meaning of freedom
    Scientific/Technical Focus on scientific or research ideas A passage about quantum computing or climate change

    🎯 3. Key Skills to Master Comprehension

    (A) Skimming and Scanning

    • Skimming: Reading quickly to get the general idea (the gist).

      • Focus on first and last sentences of each paragraph.

    • Scanning: Searching for specific information or keywords.

      • Useful for locating facts, data, or direct answers.

    🪶 Example:

    Passage: “The Internet revolutionized communication by reducing geographical barriers.”
    Question: “What is the main benefit of the Internet mentioned?”
    ✅ Scan for ‘benefit’ → Answer: Reducing geographical barriers.


    (B) Identifying the Central Idea (Main Theme)

    • Every passage has one main idea and several supporting details.

    • The main idea is usually found in the first or last paragraph.

    🪶 Example:

    “While technology has connected people globally, it has also isolated them emotionally.”
    Main Idea: The paradox of technology — connecting yet isolating people.


    (C) Understanding the Author’s Tone & Purpose

    Tone Meaning Keywords
    Analytical Examines cause-effect or reasoning because, therefore, analysis
    Critical Judging with both positives and negatives however, although
    Persuasive Trying to convince the reader should, must, ought
    Descriptive Painting a picture using words describes, illustrates
    Humorous/Sarcastic Mocking or light tone irony, exaggeration

    🪶 Example:

    “Politicians promise transparency, but their actions often prove otherwise.”
    Tone: Sarcastic or Critical.


    (D) Drawing Inferences

    • An inference is a logical conclusion based on evidence, not directly stated.

    • UGC NET often asks: “Which of the following can be inferred?”

    🪶 Example:

    Passage: “Teachers who adapt to technology can reach students better.”
    Inference: Teachers not using technology might struggle to engage students.


    (E) Distinguishing Facts and Opinions

    Aspect Fact Opinion
    Nature Verifiable, objective Subjective, belief-based
    Example “The Earth revolves around the Sun.” “The Earth is the most beautiful planet.”

    🪶 Example Question:

    “India has over 1.3 billion people.” (Fact)
    “India is the most vibrant democracy.” (Opinion)


    (F) Understanding Vocabulary in Context

    • You don’t need to know every word — use context clues.

    • Look at surrounding words to guess meaning.

    🪶 Example:

    “The plan was thwarted by unforeseen circumstances.”
    Context clue → “unforeseen circumstances” → thwarted = prevented/stopped.


    (G) Recognizing the Structure of Arguments

    UGC NET often includes logical passages.
    Identify:

    1. Premise (fact or evidence)

    2. Assumption (unstated belief)

    3. Conclusion (main argument)

    🪶 Example:

    “All humans need oxygen. Rahul is human. Therefore, Rahul needs oxygen.”
    Premises → Humans need oxygen; Rahul is human.
    Conclusion → Rahul needs oxygen.


    🧩 4. Step-by-Step Strategy for UGC NET Comprehension

    Step 1: Read the questions before the passage.

    → It helps you focus on what to look for.

    Step 2: Skim the passage quickly for structure and keywords.

    → Identify main idea and tone.

    Step 3: Read carefully — paragraph by paragraph.

    → Note keywords (names, years, causes, results).

    Step 4: Use elimination technique in MCQs.

    → Eliminate clearly wrong or extreme options.

    Step 5: Look for exact or paraphrased evidence in the text.

    → UGC NET rarely asks questions that are “outside the passage.”


    📖 5. Common Question Types (with Examples)

    Type Example Strategy
    Main Idea “What is the central theme of the passage?” Skim intro and conclusion.
    Inference “Which statement can be inferred?” Read between lines.
    Fact/Opinion “Which of these is a fact?” Identify verifiable data.
    Tone “The author’s tone is—” Detect attitude words.
    Vocabulary “What does the word ‘meticulous’ mean in the passage?” Use context clues.
    Title Choice “Which title best suits the passage?” Reflects central idea.

    🔍 6. Example Practice (UGC NET Style)

    Passage:

    The increasing reliance on Artificial Intelligence (AI) in education is transforming how teachers and students interact. While AI helps personalize learning, it can never replace the empathy and judgment of a human teacher. Education must therefore integrate technology without losing the human touch.

    Questions:

    1️⃣ What is the central idea of the passage?
    A) AI will replace teachers soon
    B) Technology should complement, not replace, teachers
    C) Teachers must avoid AI in education
    D) AI personalizes learning completely
    Answer: B

    2️⃣ The author’s tone in the passage is:
    A) Sarcastic
    B) Analytical and balanced
    C) Humorous
    D) Critical of technology
    Answer: B

    3️⃣ The phrase “without losing the human touch” implies:
    A) Technology must have emotions
    B) Teachers should avoid online classes
    C) Emotional connection is essential in education
    D) AI is harmful
    Answer: C

    4️⃣ Which of the following is a fact?
    A) AI helps personalize learning
    B) AI is better than humans
    C) Teachers should avoid AI
    D) AI has emotions
    Answer: A

    5️⃣ The suitable title of the passage would be:
    A) “AI vs Teachers”
    B) “Technology and Human Touch in Education”
    C) “Disadvantages of AI”
    D) “Machine Learning in Education”
    Answer: B


    🧭 7. Tips to Score Full Marks in Comprehension (UGC NET Strategy)

    ✅ Read with purpose — focus on meaning, not memorization.
    ✅ Manage time — don’t spend more than 8 minutes on the passage.
    ✅ Identify transition words (however, thus, hence) — they signal shifts in logic.
    ✅ Practice editorial and opinion articles (The Hindu, Indian Express).
    ✅ Learn synonyms and antonyms from context — UGC NET often tests word meaning.
    ✅ Revise critical reading skills — inference, argument, and assumption detection.
    ✅ Avoid overthinking — answers are usually within the passage.
    ✅ Keep an eye on ‘extreme words’ (always, never, all) — usually incorrect options.


    🧩 8. Practice Activity

    Try reading a 250-word editorial paragraph daily and:

    1. Write one-sentence summary.

    2. Identify tone (critical, persuasive, informative).

    3. Pick one inference question.

    4. Note 2 new vocabulary words.

    In 15 days, your speed, inference, and accuracy improve significantly.


    💡 9. Quick Summary Chart

    Skill Focus UGC NET Question Type
    Skimming Main idea Central theme
    Scanning Facts/data Factual question
    Inference Logical meaning Implicit conclusion
    Tone Author’s attitude Opinion question
    Vocabulary Word meaning Synonym/Antonym
    Structure Flow of ideas Logical order question

    🏆 10. Golden Rule for UGC NET Comprehension

    “Don’t just read the words — read between them.”
    UGC NET rewards critical readers who understand both what is said and what is implied.

  • UGC NET Paper I (NTA) – Smart Preparation Strategy

    UGC NET Paper I (NTA) – Smart Preparation Strategy


    🎯 1️⃣ Understand the Nature of the Paper

    Paper-I Overview:

    • Total Marks: 100

    • Questions: 50 (2 marks each)

    • Duration: 1 hour (No negative marking)

    • Purpose: To test teaching, research, reasoning, comprehension, and awareness skills — not rote memory.

    📘 10 Units (Equal Weightage):

    1. Teaching Aptitude

    2. Research Aptitude

    3. Comprehension

    4. Communication

    5. Mathematical Reasoning & Aptitude

    6. Logical Reasoning

    7. Data Interpretation

    8. ICT

    9. People, Development & Environment

    10. Higher Education System

    Each unit gives around 5 questions = 10 marks. Equal weightage means equal attention!


    📆 2️⃣ Make a Smart 30-Day Study Plan

    Phase Duration Focus
    Phase 1 – Build Concepts 10 days Study Units 1–10 briefly from reliable notes / NTA syllabus
    Phase 2 – Practice & Revise 10 days Attempt MCQs topic-wise + short notes revision
    Phase 3 – Mock & Mastery 10 days Full-length mocks + analyze weak areas

    Tip: Spend 2–3 hours daily on Paper I; it boosts your overall percentile!


    📚 3️⃣ Study Resources (Best Sources)

    Component Recommended Source
    Official Syllabus NTA UGC NET Information Bulletin / UGC website
    Book Trueman’s UGC NET Paper I or Arihant Paper I by KVS Madan
    Practice MCQs Previous Year Papers (last 5 years)
    Online Practice NTA mock tests on nta.ac.in/Quiz
    Current Updates Government policies (NEP 2020, Digital Initiatives, SDGs, etc.)

    💡 4️⃣ Strategy by Units

    🔹 Units 1 & 2: Teaching & Research Aptitude

    • Learn key definitions (e.g., pedagogy, andragogy, research types).

    • Prepare levels of teaching, research methods, sampling, hypothesis.

    • Practice conceptual MCQs (common 10–12 questions).
      🧭 Tip: Draw comparison charts (e.g., Qualitative vs Quantitative, Formative vs Summative).


    🔹 Unit 3: Comprehension

    • Practice 1 passage daily.

    • Focus on main idea, tone, inference, and vocabulary.
      📖 Tip: Read editorials or short articles to improve reading speed.


    🔹 Unit 4: Communication

    • Revise models (Shannon & Weaver, Berlo’s SMCR).

    • Learn barriers, classroom communication, non-verbal cues.

    • Know difference: interpersonal vs group vs mass communication.


    🔹 Units 5 & 6: Reasoning & Aptitude

    • Practice daily 15–20 reasoning sums (series, ratios, time-distance).

    • Learn shortcut formulas and solve previous papers.

    • Logical reasoning (syllogism, Venn diagram, fallacies) = scoring area.
      🔢 Tip: Maintain a formula sheet for revision.


    🔹 Unit 7: Data Interpretation

    • Learn how to read graphs, tables, pie charts.

    • Revise % change, averages, and ratios.
      📊 Practice previous year DI sets — 1 set every 2 days.


    🔹 Unit 8: ICT

    • Learn basic full forms, terminologies, and digital initiatives (SWAYAM, e-PG Pathshala).

    • Expect 4–5 direct factual questions.
      💻 Tip: Create one-page ICT abbreviation list.


    🔹 Unit 9: People, Development & Environment

    • Focus on environmental laws (EPA 1986, Paris Agreement, Kyoto Protocol).

    • Revise sustainable development goals (SDGs), climate change, and natural hazards.
      🌱 Tip: Use mind maps to interlink environment + policy topics.


    🔹 Unit 10: Higher Education System

    • Study ancient to modern Indian education evolution.

    • NEP 2020, RUSA, NAAC, AICTE, UGC roles — key questions here.
      🏛️ Tip: Prepare “Education Timeline in India” summary chart.


    🧩 5️⃣ Proven Study Techniques

    1. Pomodoro Study Method:
      Study 25 minutes → Break 5 minutes → Repeat 4 times → Take a long break.
      Keeps focus high and burnout low.

    2. Active Recall:
      Don’t reread — test yourself frequently. It improves retention by 70%.

    3. Spaced Revision:
      Revise at 1 day, 7 days, and 15 days intervals to move info to long-term memory.

    4. Mind Maps & Mnemonics:
      Visual summaries for topics like Levels of Teaching, Pramanas, Communication Models.

    5. Error Book:
      Note mistakes from MCQs; revise those before each test.


    🧾 6️⃣ Practice & Revision Routine

    Daily Routine Time Activity
    Concept Study 1 hr Read one topic from crisp notes
    Practice 1 hr Solve 25–30 MCQs from that topic
    Revision 30 min Revise key terms & formula sheet
    Mock Test Weekly Attempt 1 mock test under exam timing

    💬 Analyze every mock — see which units have low accuracy and revise them.


    📊 7️⃣ Commonly Scoring Units

    Most Scoring Why
    Research Aptitude Conceptual, repeated patterns
    ICT Factual, easy recall
    Logical & Mathematical Reasoning Practice-based, predictable
    Higher Education System Static content, memory-based

    💯 8️⃣ Exam-Day Strategy

    ✅ Attempt all 50 questions — no negative marking.
    ✅ Don’t spend more than 1.2 minutes/question.
    ✅ Solve easy & known ones first → then reasoning & calculation ones.
    ✅ Keep last 5 minutes for revision/checking marked questions.


    🧘 9️⃣ Mindset & Motivation

    • UGC NET Paper-I is a game-changer — high Paper-I scores pull your overall percentile up.

    • It’s skill-based, not memory-based — so understand, not cram.

    • Stay consistent — even 2 focused hours daily for 30 days can ensure 70+ marks.

    • Believe: “Paper I is not hard — it’s smart.”


    🏁 10️⃣ Quick-Start Checklist

    ✅ Read & print NTA syllabus.
    ✅ Collect crisp unit-wise notes (1–10).
    ✅ Prepare one formula sheet & one current affairs sheet.
    ✅ Solve at least 10 previous year papers.
    ✅ Attempt 10–15 full mocks before the exam.


    🔰 Goal Benchmark:

    Category Target Marks (out of 100)
    Minimum Qualifying 50–55
    Good Score 65–70
    Excellent (Top 10%) 75+