Tag: UGC NET NTA Best guides

  • UGC NET – Paper I – Unit 6: Logical Reasoning-MCQs

     (50 MCQs with Solutions)


    Section A – Nature of Reasoning & Arguments (Q 1–10)


    Q1. Which of the following is not a part of an argument?
    A) Premise B) Assumption C) Conclusion D) Question
    Answer: D
    Solution: An argument contains premises and conclusion; a question is not an assertion, hence not part of argument structure.


    Q2. Which of the following words generally introduces a conclusion?
    A) Since B) Because C) Therefore D) Given that
    Answer: C
    Solution: “Therefore,” “Thus,” and “Hence” signal conclusions.


    Q3. Statement: All cats are animals.
    The subject term is ____ and predicate term is ____.
    A) Cats – Animals B) Animals – Cats C) All – Cats D) None
    Answer: A


    Q4. “No politician is honest” is which type of categorical proposition?
    A) A B) E C) I D) O
    Answer: B
    Solution: Universal negative (E-type).


    Q5. A valid deductive argument:
    A) May have false premises but true conclusion.
    B) Cannot have true premises and false conclusion.
    C) May have true premises and false conclusion.
    D) Must be factually true.
    Answer: B
    Solution: Validity = if premises are true, conclusion must be true.


    Q6. “All poets are sensitive. Some sensitive people are foolish.”
    → Conclusion: Some poets are foolish.
    Valid or Invalid?
    Answer: Invalid.
    Solution: No direct overlap shown between poets and foolish; fallacy of undistributed middle.


    Q7. The reasoning “All metals expand on heating; iron is a metal; therefore iron expands” is:
    A) Deductive B) Inductive C) Abductive D) Analogy
    Answer: A


    Q8. In logic, truth refers to:
    A) Personal belief B) Empirical proof C) Agreement of statement with fact D) Social approval
    Answer: C


    Q9. “The road is wet, therefore it must have rained.” This is an example of:
    A) Deductive B) Inductive C) Abductive D) Fallacy
    Answer: C
    Solution: Inference to the best explanation (abduction).


    Q10. Inductive reasoning provides conclusions that are:
    A) Certain B) Probable C) Always false D) Deductive
    Answer: B


    Section B – Propositions & Square of Opposition (Q 11–20)


    Q11. “Some students are hardworking.” → Which proposition?
    A) A B) E C) I D) O
    Answer: C (Particular affirmative)


    Q12. Contradictory of “All S are P” is ____.
    A) Some S are P B) No S are P C) Some S are not P D) Some S are not non-P
    Answer: C


    Q13. From “No dogs are cats,” we may infer:
    A) All dogs are not cats B) Some dogs are cats C) Some dogs are not cats D) All cats are dogs
    Answer: C
    Solution: Universal negative (E) implies particular negative (O) under sub-alternation.


    Q14. “All A are B.” Which inference is valid?
    A) Some A are B B) Some B are A C) Some A are not B D) No B are A
    Answer: A


    Q15. Which pairs are contradictory?
    A) A & E B) A & O C) E & I D) B & O
    Answer: B


    Q16. Two propositions that cannot both be true but may both be false are:
    A) Contrary B) Contradictory C) Sub-contrary D) Equivalent
    Answer: A


    Q17. In the square of opposition, truth flows downward in:
    A) Contrary B) Sub-alternation C) Contradiction D) Sub-contrary
    Answer: B


    Q18. “Some trees are not green” → Type?
    A) O-proposition B) A C) I D) E
    Answer: A


    Q19. “All flowers are plants” and “No flowers are plants” are ____.
    A) Contrary B) Contradictory C) Sub-contrary D) Equivalent
    Answer: A


    Q20. “Some birds are not sparrows” contradicts ____.
    A) All birds are sparrows B) No birds are sparrows C) Some birds are sparrows D) All sparrows are birds
    Answer: A


    Section C – Syllogism & Venn Reasoning (Q 21–30)


    Q21. All mangoes are fruits. All fruits are edible. ∴ All mangoes are edible.
    Answer: Valid (syllogism, AAA figure 1 – Barbara)


    Q22. Some flowers are red. All red things are beautiful. ∴ Some flowers are beautiful.
    Answer: Valid (IAI – Darii)


    Q23. All students are learners. Some learners are teachers. ∴ Some students are teachers.
    Answer: Invalid (fallacy of undistributed middle)


    Q24. All A are B; No B are C ⇒ No A are C.
    Answer: Valid (EAE – Celarent)


    Q25. In a Venn diagram, if circles A and B overlap partly, it represents:
    A) All A are B B) Some A are B C) No A are B D) All B are A
    Answer: B


    Q26. “Some A are B and some B are C → Some A are C.”
    Answer: Invalid (‘Some–Some’ cannot yield a definite conclusion).


    Q27. For a valid syllogism, the middle term must be
    A) Distributed once at least B) Never distributed C) Always distributed twice D) None
    Answer: A


    Q28. The syllogism “No cats are dogs; All dogs are animals ⇒ No cats are animals” is
    A) Valid B) Invalid C) Partially true D) Inductive
    Answer: B


    Q29. All philosophers are thinkers; Some thinkers are teachers ⇒ ?
    Answer: Cannot be concluded (undistributed middle).


    Q30. In Venn analysis, “No A are B” → the circles are ____.
    A) One inside other B) Separate C) Overlapping D) Equal
    Answer: B


    Section D – Fallacies & Types of Reasoning (Q 31–38)


    Q31. “All doctors are educated; Mr. X is educated; ∴ Mr. X is doctor.” → Fallacy of ____.
    Answer: Undistributed middle.


    Q32. “He is wrong because he is young.”
    Answer: Ad Hominem fallacy (attacking person not argument).


    Q33. “Post hoc ergo propter hoc” means ____.
    Answer: False cause – assuming that after ⇒ therefore because of.


    Q34. “If the new phone is expensive, it must be good.” → Fallacy of ____.
    Answer: False cause / Hasty generalization.


    Q35. “Either you are with us or against us.” → Fallacy of ____.
    Answer: False dilemma.


    Q36. “He is a scientist, so whatever he says is true.” → Fallacy of ____.
    Answer: Appeal to authority.


    Q37. “Circular reasoning” occurs when ____.
    Answer: The conclusion repeats the premise in different words.


    Q38. Deductive reasoning ensures ____.
    Answer: Necessity of conclusion if premises are true.


    Section E – Indian Logic (Q 39–50)


    Q39. “Means of valid knowledge” in Indian logic is called ____.
    A) Hetu B) Pramāṇa C) Vyāpti D) Prameya
    Answer: B


    Q40. How many Pramāṇas are accepted in Nyāya school?
    A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
    Answer: C (Pratyakṣa, Anumāna, Śabda, Upamāna)


    Q41. Match the following:

    1. Pratyakṣa → (a) Perception

    2. Anumāna → (b) Inference

    3. Upamāna → (c) Comparison
      Answer: 1-a, 2-b, 3-c


    Q42. The universal concomitance between reason and probandum is called ____.
    Answer: Vyāpti.


    Q43. In five-member syllogism, the first statement is called ____.
    Answer: Pratijñā (proposition).


    Q44. Correct sequence of Indian inference (Anumāna):
    1 Pratijñā, 2 Hetu, 3 Udāharaṇa, 4 Upanaya, 5 Nigamana.
    Answer: As listed.


    Q45. “Hill has fire because it has smoke.” → ‘Smoke’ is ____.
    Answer: Hetu (reason).


    Q46. Fallacy where reason is unproved (asiddha) means ____.
    Answer: Unestablished middle term – Hetu does not exist.


    Q47. “Fire is cold because it is a substance.” → Fallacy type ____.
    Answer: Viruddha (contradictory reason).


    Q48. “There is fire on hill because there is smoke and smoke is always with fire.” → Here ‘Smoke is always with fire’ shows ____.
    Answer: Vyāpti (universal relation).


    Q49. “Absence of sound means no vibration.” Knowledge by absence is called ____.
    Answer: Anupalabdhi.


    Q50. The fallacy where hetu is inconclusive (non-exclusive) is ____.
    Answer: Anaikāntika.

  • UGC NET Paper 1 — Unit 4: Communication

    SECTION A: MODELS OF COMMUNICATION (Q1–Q8)


    Q1. In the Shannon–Weaver model, which element refers to any factor that distorts the message?
    A) Channel
    B) Feedback
    C) Noise
    D) Receiver
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Noise refers to anything that interferes with transmission of the message — physical, semantic, or psychological.


    Q2. “Who says What in Which Channel to Whom with What Effect?” represents:
    A) Berlo’s SMCR model
    B) Schramm’s Interactive model
    C) Lasswell’s 5W model
    D) Aristotle’s model
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Harold Lasswell’s 1948 model describes mass communication as a one-way process focusing on effects.


    Q3. Which of the following is not a component of Berlo’s SMCR model?
    A) Source
    B) Message
    C) Channel
    D) Feedback
    Answer: D
    Explanation: SMCR = Source, Message, Channel, Receiver. It excludes feedback since it’s linear.


    Q4. The Shannon–Weaver model primarily deals with:
    A) Emotional intelligence
    B) Technical transmission of information
    C) Classroom communication
    D) Non-verbal symbols
    Answer: B
    Explanation: It was developed for telephone communication — focusing on signal fidelity and transmission efficiency.


    Q5. Which model introduced the concept of encoding and decoding?
    A) Shannon–Weaver model
    B) Berlo’s SMCR model
    C) Schramm’s model
    D) Aristotle’s model
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Shannon–Weaver defined encoding (message formulation) and decoding (interpretation).


    Q6. Feedback converts a communication process from:
    A) Interactive to linear
    B) Linear to cyclic
    C) Cyclic to linear
    D) Hierarchical to vertical
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Feedback ensures a two-way, cyclic communication loop.


    Q7. Which model of communication best explains mass media processes?
    A) Shannon–Weaver
    B) Lasswell’s model
    C) Berlo’s SMCR
    D) Schramm’s Interactive model
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Lasswell’s 5W model analyzes the elements of mass communication and media effects.


    Q8. In Schramm’s model, the overlapping area of sender and receiver fields represents:
    A) Noise
    B) Shared experience
    C) Channel distortion
    D) Conflict
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Effective communication occurs only when there is shared understanding between sender and receiver.


    SECTION B: TYPES & BARRIERS OF COMMUNICATION (Q9–Q16)


    Q9. Semantic barrier arises due to:
    A) Emotional disturbance
    B) Misinterpretation of words or symbols
    C) Physical obstacles
    D) Poor memory
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Semantic noise occurs when language or symbols have multiple meanings or are unfamiliar.


    Q10. Which of the following is not a type of communication barrier?
    A) Physiological
    B) Psychological
    C) Logical
    D) Cultural
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Logical is not a recognized barrier type; physiological (hearing issues), psychological (bias), cultural (norms) are valid.


    Q11. The most effective way to overcome barriers is:
    A) Increasing message complexity
    B) Ignoring feedback
    C) Ensuring feedback and clarification
    D) Using more technical terms
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Feedback confirms understanding and reduces distortion.


    Q12. In the classroom, the most common barrier is:
    A) Semantic noise
    B) Hierarchical distance
    C) Environmental noise or one-way teaching
    D) Physical disability
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Poor acoustics, noise, or one-way teaching restrict effective interaction.


    Q13. “Selective perception” acts as a barrier under which category?
    A) Physical
    B) Psychological
    C) Semantic
    D) Organizational
    Answer: B
    Explanation: It is psychological — people interpret information based on their attitudes or beliefs.


    Q14. The best example of a physical barrier is:
    A) Emotional bias
    B) Poor sound system
    C) Use of jargon
    D) Cultural difference
    Answer: B


    Q15. “Jargon” refers to:
    A) Simple everyday language
    B) Technical terms understood only by specialists
    C) Noisy environment
    D) Body language cues
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Jargon causes semantic barriers when used before non-specialists.


    Q16. In organizational communication, the “grapevine” is an example of:
    A) Formal communication
    B) Informal communication
    C) Upward communication
    D) Written communication
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Grapevine is the informal, unofficial network of communication within organizations.


    SECTION C: CLASSROOM & GROUP COMMUNICATION (Q17–Q23)


    Q17. Classroom communication is most effective when it is:
    A) Teacher-centered
    B) Student-centered and interactive
    C) Lecture-based only
    D) Authority-driven
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Active, student-centered communication promotes engagement and learning.


    Q18. A teacher encourages students to “think–pair–share.” This is an example of:
    A) Non-verbal communication
    B) Interactive classroom strategy
    C) Mass communication
    D) One-way communication
    Answer: B


    Q19. “Wait-time” in classroom communication refers to:
    A) The delay before students enter class
    B) The pause a teacher allows after asking a question
    C) Student hesitation before speaking
    D) Administrative delay in communication
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Allowing wait-time improves student participation and cognitive response.


    Q20. Which of the following best enhances classroom communication?
    A) Teacher monologue
    B) Use of complex language
    C) Immediate and specific feedback
    D) Restricting questioning
    Answer: C


    Q21. A teacher uses gestures, visuals, and voice modulation. These are aspects of:
    A) Non-verbal communication
    B) Technical communication
    C) Written communication
    D) Mass communication
    Answer: A


    Q22. Group communication differs from interpersonal communication because it:
    A) Involves only two people
    B) Lacks feedback
    C) Has multiple participants and shared goals
    D) Excludes non-verbal cues
    Answer: C


    Q23. “Groupthink” refers to:
    A) A condition where group harmony suppresses critical thinking
    B) A team brainstorming session
    C) Individual creativity
    D) Communication breakdown due to noise
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Groupthink happens when the desire for consensus overrides realistic evaluation.


    SECTION D: INTERCULTURAL COMMUNICATION (Q24–Q27)


    Q24. According to Edward T. Hall, cultures that rely heavily on context and non-verbal cues are called:
    A) Low-context cultures
    B) High-context cultures
    C) Neutral cultures
    D) Open cultures
    Answer: B
    Explanation: High-context (e.g., Japan, India) depend on implicit communication; low-context (e.g., USA, Germany) are explicit.


    Q25. Which dimension of Hofstede’s cultural framework measures “acceptance of unequal power”?
    A) Uncertainty avoidance
    B) Individualism–collectivism
    C) Power distance
    D) Masculinity–femininity
    Answer: C


    Q26. In intercultural communication, ethnocentrism means:
    A) Believing all cultures are equal
    B) Judging another culture by one’s own standards
    C) Promoting diversity
    D) Avoiding stereotypes
    Answer: B


    Q27. To communicate effectively across cultures, one must develop:
    A) Stereotypes
    B) Cultural empathy and flexibility
    C) Linguistic superiority
    D) Ethnocentrism
    Answer: B


    SECTION E: MASS MEDIA & SOCIETY (Q28–Q30)


    Q28. Which of the following is not a function of mass media according to Lasswell?
    A) Surveillance
    B) Correlation
    C) Entertainment
    D) Agenda-setting
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Agenda-setting is a later theory; Lasswell identified Surveillance, Correlation, Cultural transmission, and Entertainment.


    Q29. “Agenda-setting” theory of communication proposes that:
    A) Media tells people what to think
    B) Media influences what people think about
    C) Media has no effect
    D) Audience fully controls meaning
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Media shapes the salience of issues rather than public opinion directly.


    Q30. “Uses and Gratifications” theory focuses on:
    A) Passive audience behavior
    B) Media effects on society
    C) Active audience seeking personal satisfaction
    D) Mass persuasion
    Answer: C
    Explanation: It assumes audiences actively select media to fulfill needs (information, entertainment, social interaction).

    SECTION F – ADVANCED / APPLICATION QUESTIONS (31–40)


    Q31. In a classroom, the teacher writes clearly on the board, maintains eye contact, and repeats important points. These actions mainly aim to:
    A) Increase formality
    B) Overcome physical and semantic barriers
    C) Display authority
    D) Reduce learner autonomy
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Repetition, eye contact, and clear visuals reduce barriers and improve message clarity.


    Q32. Encoding in communication means:
    A) Interpreting a received message
    B) Converting ideas into symbols or words
    C) Sending feedback
    D) Noise filtration
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Encoding = transforming ideas into communicable signs.


    Q33. Decoding refers to:
    A) Translating the received message into meaning
    B) Creating the message
    C) Selecting the channel
    D) Removing barriers
    Answer: A


    Q34. Which of the following statements is true for effective classroom communication?
    A) The more complex the message, the better the learning
    B) Communication is effective only when students respond appropriately
    C) Noise is unavoidable and should be ignored
    D) Feedback should be delayed
    Answer: B


    Q35. Assertion (A): Feedback is essential for effective communication.
    Reason (R): It helps the sender know whether the message has been understood.
    A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
    C) A is true, R is false.
    D) A is false, R is true.
    Answer: A


    Q36. When a student nods during a lecture, it mainly represents:
    A) Verbal cue
    B) Non-verbal feedback
    C) Noise
    D) Formal communication
    Answer: B


    Q37. Which of the following best differentiates communication from information?
    A) Communication is one-way; information is two-way.
    B) Communication requires understanding; information may not.
    C) Information is emotional; communication is factual.
    D) Both are identical.
    Answer: B


    Q38. The communication process begins with:
    A) Message transmission
    B) Idea generation by the sender
    C) Feedback
    D) Decoding
    Answer: B


    Q39. Which of the following correctly matches levels of communication?
    A) Intrapersonal – within oneself
    B) Interpersonal – between organizations
    C) Group – between two individuals
    D) Mass – face-to-face talk
    Answer: A


    Q40. Assertion (A): In communication, “noise” can be physical or psychological.
    Reason (R): Psychological noise includes biases, prejudices, or anxiety.
    A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A.
    B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
    C) A is true, R false.
    D) A false, R true.
    Answer: A


    SECTION G – INTERCULTURAL & MEDIA APPLICATIONS (41–46)


    Q41. In intercultural communication, “proxemics” refers to:
    A) Use of time
    B) Use of personal space
    C) Tone of voice
    D) Cultural food habits
    Answer: B


    Q42. “Kinesics” is the study of:
    A) Eye behavior
    B) Gestures and body movements
    C) Verbal symbols
    D) Time orientation
    Answer: B


    Q43. Which example best represents a high-context communication style?
    A) Detailed written contract specifying all terms
    B) Relying on implicit understanding and shared norms
    C) Speaking directly and explicitly
    D) Legalistic conversation
    Answer: B


    Q44. Cultural empathy in communication means:
    A) Agreeing with all cultural norms
    B) Understanding and respecting others’ perspectives
    C) Imposing one’s culture
    D) Avoiding interaction
    Answer: B


    Q45. In mass-media communication, gatekeeping refers to:
    A) Limiting access to technology
    B) Selecting and shaping news before publication
    C) Audience feedback
    D) Surveillance function
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Editors and producers act as gatekeepers controlling what reaches the public.


    Q46. The “two-step flow” model of mass communication highlights the role of:
    A) Opinion leaders who mediate between media and public
    B) Direct influence of media on individuals
    C) Gatekeepers filtering messages
    D) Technological noise
    Answer: A


    SECTION H – CLASSROOM & GROUP DYNAMICS (47–50)


    Q47. A democratic classroom atmosphere promotes:
    A) Student silence and teacher authority
    B) Equal participation and shared responsibility
    C) Competition among learners only
    D) Teacher-centered learning
    Answer: B


    Q48. Case Question: In an online class, students hesitate to respond due to muted microphones and camera-off policy. The main barrier here is:
    A) Physiological
    B) Technical / Physical
    C) Psychological
    D) Semantic
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Technical limitations restrict feedback — a physical/technological barrier.


    Q49. The “grapevine” network often spreads rumors because it lacks:
    A) Formal structure and verification
    B) Human emotion
    C) Upward communication
    D) Feedback
    Answer: A


    Q50. In a seminar, a participant paraphrases the speaker’s idea to confirm understanding. This reflects:
    A) Selective perception
    B) Active listening with feedback
    C) Non-verbal distortion
    D) Semantic barrier
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Paraphrasing ensures shared meaning and closes the feedback loop.

  • UGC NET DEC 2025 Notification

    UGC NET December 2025 Notification — Conducted by NTA

    The National Testing Agency (NTA) has officially released the notification for the University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC NET) December 2025. The exam determines eligibility for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF), Assistant Professor, and Ph.D. admission in Indian universities and colleges.


    📅 Important Dates

    Event Date
    Online Registration & Submission of Application 07 October 2025 – 07 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
    Last Date for Fee Payment 07 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
    Correction Window 10 November – 12 November 2025 (upto 11:50 PM)
    Intimation of Exam City To be announced later
    Admit Card Release To be announced later
    Exam Dates To be announced later
    Result Declaration To be announced later

    Official Websites:
    🔗 https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in
    🔗 https://nta.ac.in


    💰 Application Fee

    Category Fee
    General / Unreserved ₹1150/-
    Gen-EWS / OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) ₹600/-
    SC / ST / PwD / PwBD / Third Gender ₹325/-

    Payment can be made via Debit/Credit Card, Net Banking, or UPI.


    🎓 Eligibility Criteria

    Educational Qualification:

    • General/EWS: 55% marks in Master’s Degree or equivalent.

    • OBC (NCL)/SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Third Gender: 50% marks in Master’s Degree or equivalent.

    • Candidates pursuing a Master’s degree or awaiting results can apply provisionally.

    Four-Year Bachelor’s Degree Holders:

    • Must have at least 75% aggregate marks (5% relaxation for reserved categories).

    • Eligible for JRF and Ph.D. admission, but not for Assistant Professor posts.

    Age Limit (as on 01 December 2025):

    • JRF: Maximum 30 years (Relaxation up to 5 years for OBC-NCL/SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Women candidates and others as per rules).

    • Assistant Professor / Ph.D. Admission: No upper age limit.


    📘 Subjects Covered

    UGC NET December 2025 will be conducted for 83 subjects in the fields of:

    • Humanities (including Languages)

    • Social Sciences

    • Commerce

    • Computer Science & Applications

    • Electronic Science

    • Environmental Science

    • Management

    • and more.

    👉 Full subject list and codes are available in Appendix-II of the official Information Bulletin.


    🖥️ Exam Format

    Paper Marks Questions Description Duration
    Paper I 100 50 Tests teaching/research aptitude, reasoning, comprehension, and general awareness 3 hours (180 minutes)
    Paper II 200 100 Subject-specific questions based on candidate’s chosen subject
    • Mode: Computer-Based Test (CBT)

    • Type: Objective, Multiple Choice Questions

    • Marking Scheme: +2 for each correct answer, no negative marking

    • Medium: English and Hindi (except language subjects)


    Reservation Policy

    Applicable as per Government of India norms:

    • SC – 15%

    • ST – 7.5%

    • OBC (NCL) – 27%

    • EWS – 10%

    • PwD / PwBD – 5% (within each category)


    📄 How to Apply

    1. Visit https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in

    2. Click on “Apply for UGC NET December 2025”

    3. Complete registration with valid email & mobile number

    4. Fill in the application form and upload:

      • Photograph (10–200 KB)

      • Signature (4–30 KB)

    5. Pay the exam fee online and download the confirmation page.


    📢 Key Highlights

    • Conducted twice a year by NTA in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode.

    • Qualifying NET opens opportunities for JRF, Assistant Professorship, and Ph.D. admissions.

    • Validity of NET score for Ph.D. admission (categories 2 & 3) – 1 year.

    • No negative marking in any paper.

    • Candidates can check the mock test at https://nta.ac.in/Quiz.


    🧾 Important Notes

    • Candidates should apply only once; multiple applications will be rejected.

    • The Admit Card will be available only on the NTA website.

    • NTA does not send admit cards by post.

    • No re-evaluation/re-checking of results will be entertained.


    📍For More Details:
    Visit the official NTA portal — https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in