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  • Chapter 5: Pastoralists in the Modern World, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
    → Nomadic tribes move in search of pasture and water for their herds. Seasonal changes force them to shift between high mountains, plains, and deserts. This mobility prevents overgrazing, allows natural vegetation to regenerate, and maintains ecological balance. It ensures sustainable use of fragile environments like mountains and dry regions.

    Q2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:

    • Waste Land Rules: To expand cultivation and increase revenue. Pastoralists lost grazing grounds.

    • Forest Acts: Reserved valuable forests for timber. Pastoralists lost access and needed permits, reducing freedom.

    • Criminal Tribes Act: Declared many nomadic groups as criminals, forcing settlement and surveillance.

    • Grazing Tax: Revenue from animals; increased burden on herders, reduced herd size.

    Q3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
    → Colonial partition divided Maasailand between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. Best pastures were taken for white settlement, agriculture, and game reserves like Serengeti. Maasais were pushed to dry, arid areas, losing 60% of their lands.

    Q4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples.
    → In both regions:

    1. Colonial governments reserved grazing lands for cultivation and timber, reducing pastures.

    2. Movement was restricted through permits, taxes, and boundaries. Both Indian pastoralists and Maasais faced hardships during droughts and famines.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the lifestyle of pastoralists in India before colonial rule.
    Pastoralists in India lived diverse lives across mountains, plateaus, plains, and deserts. Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir moved seasonally between Siwalik hills and Kashmir valleys. Gaddi shepherds of Himachal migrated between Lahul, Spiti, and Siwaliks. Dhangars of Maharashtra shifted from dry plateaus to Konkan fields after harvests, where their flocks fertilised soil. Kurumas, Kurubas, and Gollas of Andhra and Karnataka combined herding with cultivation and trade. Raikas of Rajasthan reared camels and sheep, moving between desert villages and distant pastures. Their movements were carefully planned to balance pasture availability, climate, and relations with farmers. Such mobility sustained fragile environments, ensured regeneration of vegetation, and supported both pastoralists and farmers.

    Q2. How did colonial policies affect Indian pastoralists?
    Colonial forest and land policies disrupted pastoral life. Waste Land Rules took over grazing grounds for cultivation. Forest Acts restricted access to reserved forests, forcing herders to seek permits. Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups, forcing them into fixed settlements. Grazing Tax increased their financial burden, reducing herd sizes. Movement was closely monitored; herders were fined for overstaying in pastures. Many pastoralists lost their livestock during famines due to lack of grazing land. Some adapted by settling as farmers or traders, while others migrated to new regions. Overall, colonial policies transformed pastoralists from free-moving communities to controlled, taxed, and impoverished groups.

    Q3. Discuss the Bastar Rebellion of 1910 in the context of pastoral struggles.
    In Bastar, forest reservation threatened tribals’ traditional rights. When the government decided to reserve two-thirds of forests, shifting cultivators, herders, and artisans faced displacement. Taxes increased and free labour was demanded. Led by Gunda Dhur, tribals launched the Bastar Rebellion in 1910. Mango boughs, chillies, and arrows were circulated as symbols of mobilisation. Rebels attacked police stations, schools, and officials, redistributed grain, and destroyed records. British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the rebellion forced them to relax reservation. The Bastar uprising symbolised the deep resistance of forest-dependent and pastoral communities against colonial exploitation.

    Q4. Explain the impact of restrictions on Maasai pastoralists in East Africa.
    The Maasais lost 60% of their land under British and German colonial rule. Pastures were converted into farms and game reserves. Boundaries confined Maasais to semi-arid zones with poor pastures. Permits restricted their seasonal movement, while access to water sources was denied. During droughts, thousands of cattle perished due to lack of forage. Social structure also changed: elders and warriors lost authority, while British-appointed chiefs gained power and wealth. Poor pastoralists suffered heavily, losing herds and turning to labour, while richer ones diversified into trade. Thus, colonial restrictions weakened Maasai economy, ecology, and culture, reducing them to poverty.

    Q5. Why do historians consider pastoralism ecologically viable even today?
    Pastoralism is suited to fragile environments like deserts and mountains. Continuous mobility prevents overgrazing, allowing vegetation to regenerate. Herds fertilise fields while grazing on stubble, benefiting farmers. In dry and hilly regions where cultivation is uncertain, pastoralism ensures sustainable livelihood. Modern restrictions caused decline, yet pastoralism remains relevant. Ecologists argue that nomadic herding is more sustainable than intensive farming in semi-arid regions. It adapts to seasonal changes, balances ecology, and reduces pressure on scarce resources. Thus, despite modern challenges, pastoralism continues to be an ecologically viable way of life, practiced widely in India, Africa, and Central Asia.

    MCQs

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals are found in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to:
      (a) Thar desert
      (b) Lahul and Spiti
      (c) Konkan coast
      (d) Deccan plateau
      Answer: (b)

    3. Dhangars are associated with:
      (a) Himachal
      (b) Maharashtra
      (c) Karnataka
      (d) Rajasthan
      Answer: (b)

    4. Raikas are camel herders of:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) Gujarat
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Haryana
      Answer: (c)

    5. Kurumas and Kurubas belonged to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu
      (b) Andhra & Karnataka
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (b)

    6. Waste Land Rules were enacted to:
      (a) Expand forests
      (b) Increase cultivation
      (c) Encourage herding
      (d) Promote trade
      Answer: (b)

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act was passed in:
      (a) 1861
      (b) 1871
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1891
      Answer: (b)

    8. Grazing Tax was imposed on:
      (a) Crops
      (b) Animals
      (c) Forests
      (d) Landlords
      Answer: (b)

    9. Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Kolkata
      (d) Shimla
      Answer: (b)

    10. Bastar Rebellion took place in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1921
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Maasai are found in:
      (a) South Africa
      (b) Kenya & Tanzania
      (c) Nigeria
      (d) Egypt
      Answer: (b)

    12. Maasai lost about ___% of their land:
      (a) 30%
      (b) 40%
      (c) 50%
      (d) 60%
      Answer: (d)

    13. Which park was created on Maasai grazing land?
      (a) Serengeti
      (b) Maasai Mara
      (c) Amboseli
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    14. Which community in Java resisted Dutch forestry laws?
      (a) Kalangs
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Kurubas
      (d) Bakarwals
      Answer: (a)

    15. Permit system was introduced under:
      (a) Waste Land Rules
      (b) Criminal Tribes Act
      (c) Forest Acts
      (d) Grazing Tax
      Answer: (c)

    16. During droughts, Maasai cattle died in:
      (a) 1925–26
      (b) 1930–31
      (c) 1933–34
      (d) 1940–41
      Answer: (c)

    17. Maasai social structure was divided into:
      (a) Rich & poor
      (b) Elders & warriors
      (c) Farmers & herders
      (d) Men & women
      Answer: (b)

    18. The colonial government considered nomads as:
      (a) Peaceful
      (b) Criminals
      (c) Educated
      (d) Rich
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which Indian pastoral community reared camels in Thar desert?
      (a) Gaddis
      (b) Raikas
      (c) Dhangars
      (d) Banjaras
      Answer: (b)

    20. Pastoralism is still considered:
      (a) Backward
      (b) Ecologically viable
      (c) Outdated
      (d) Criminal
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Gujjar Bakarwals move annually between Siwaliks and Kashmir valley.

    2. Gaddi shepherds migrate to Lahul and Spiti in summer.

    3. Dhangars of Maharashtra move to the Konkan coast after harvest.

    4. Raikas of Rajasthan rear camels, sheep, and goats.

    5. Waste Land Rules converted grazing land into cultivation.

    6. The Forest Acts restricted grazing rights.

    7. The Criminal Tribes Act (1871) criminalised nomadic groups.

    8. Pastoralists had to pay grazing tax on every animal.

    9. Maasai lost 60% of their grazing land.

    10. The Serengeti Park was created on Maasai pastures.

  • Chapter 4: Forest Society and Colonialism, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

    • Shifting cultivators: Banned from practicing jhum, many lost livelihood and were displaced. Some resisted or joined rebellions.

    • Nomadic and pastoralist communities: Lost access to grazing lands, were forced to change occupations.

    • Firms trading in timber/forest produce: Some European firms gained monopoly rights, but local traders lost access.

    • Plantation owners: Benefited hugely, as forests were cleared for tea, coffee, and rubber plantations.

    • Kings/British officials engaged in hunting: Encouraged big game hunting, leading to destruction of wildlife.

    Q2. What are the similarities between colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java?
    → Both regions saw large-scale reservation of forests, restriction on local use, and introduction of scientific forestry. Communities lost customary rights and were forced into labour. Rebellions occurred—Bastar in 1910, Kalang and Samin movements in Java. In both cases, colonial states prioritised timber needs over people’s livelihoods.

    Q3. Discuss factors leading to decline in India’s forest cover (1880–1920).

    • Railways: Huge demand for sleepers and fuel.

    • Shipbuilding: Timber for navy and trade ships.

    • Agricultural expansion: Peasants encouraged to clear forests.

    • Commercial farming: Jute, cotton, wheat grown for Europe.

    • Plantations: Tea, coffee, rubber cleared natural forests.

    • Peasant use: Collection of firewood, fruits, grazing also added.

    Q4. Why are forests affected by wars?
    → During wars, timber was urgently needed for barracks, railways, weapons, and fuel. In WWI and WWII, British cut Indian forests recklessly. In Java, Dutch burnt logs to prevent Japanese capture; Japanese later exploited forests. Wars thus caused massive deforestation.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain how colonial forest policies affected the lives of forest dwellers.
    Colonial forest policies drastically changed the lives of forest dwellers. The Forest Acts of 1865, 1878, and 1927 brought forests under strict state control. Villagers were banned from hunting, grazing cattle, and collecting wood or forest produce. Shifting cultivation was prohibited, forcing many tribes to abandon their traditional livelihood. Customary rights were replaced by permits, which were hard to obtain. Many communities were displaced, some forced into bonded labour in forest villages. Women collecting firewood faced harassment by guards. Hunting became a sport for British officials, while ordinary people were punished as poachers. Thus, forest dwellers lost autonomy, livelihoods, and dignity under colonial forest laws.

    Q2. Describe the Bastar rebellion of 1910.
    The Bastar rebellion was a major tribal uprising against British forest policies. Located in present-day Chhattisgarh, Bastar’s communities like Gonds, Dhurwas, and Bhatras depended on forests for food, fuel, and shifting cultivation. In 1905, the government proposed reserving two-thirds of the forest, displacing villages and forcing others to work for free. Famines and exploitation worsened discontent. Under leaders like Gunda Dhur, villagers circulated mango boughs, chillies, and arrows as rebellion signals. In 1910, bazaars, schools, and police stations were attacked, officials’ houses burnt, and grain redistributed. The British retaliated with brutal suppression, but the planned reservation was reduced. The rebellion showed how forest communities resisted colonial oppression.

    Q3. What was ‘scientific forestry’? How did it differ from villagers’ ideas of a good forest?
    Scientific forestry, introduced by Dietrich Brandis, meant systematic cutting of natural forests and replacing them with single-species plantations like teak or sal. The Indian Forest Service (1864) and Imperial Forest Research Institute (1906) promoted it. Officials managed forests with working plans, restricting local use. For villagers, a good forest meant diversity—fuel, fodder, fruits, leaves, and medicinal plants. For the state, forests meant revenue and timber. Thus, scientific forestry prioritised commercial exploitation, while villagers’ needs were ignored. Over time, this system caused ecological imbalance and discontent among communities.

    Q4. Explain the similarities and differences between Indian and Indonesian forest policies under colonial rule.
    Both India (under the British) and Java (under the Dutch) saw strict forest laws. Villagers were banned from shifting cultivation, grazing, or hunting. Forest services were set up, and labour was extracted for timber extraction. In Bastar, resistance led to the 1910 rebellion, while in Java, the Kalangs and Saminists opposed Dutch control. A difference was that in Java, systems like blandongdiensten forced villagers to provide free labour and buffaloes in return for rent exemptions. In India, labour was extracted through ‘forest villages’. Thus, while contexts differed, both colonial powers prioritised timber for ships, railways, and wars over local rights.

    Q5. Analyse the impact of colonial forest management on ecology and economy.
    Colonial policies led to large-scale deforestation. Between 1880–1920, 9.7 million hectares of forests were lost. Monoculture plantations reduced biodiversity and soil fertility. Wildlife was hunted to near extinction—over 80,000 tigers and 200,000 wolves were killed. Ecologically, rivers dried, soil eroded, and climate patterns changed. Economically, local people were impoverished while European firms gained monopoly over trade. Plantations enriched planters but displaced tribals. Forest laws criminalised traditional practices, turning communities into labourers for the state. Thus, colonial forestry damaged both the environment and indigenous economies.

    MCQs

    1. Deforestation means:
      (a) Growing more trees
      (b) Disappearance of forests
      (c) Cutting grasslands
      (d) Making plantations
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India?
      (a) Lord Curzon
      (b) Dietrich Brandis
      (c) William Ward
      (d) Gunda Dhur
      Answer: (b)

    3. The Indian Forest Act was first passed in:
      (a) 1864
      (b) 1865
      (c) 1878
      (d) 1927
      Answer: (b)

    4. Forests were divided into:
      (a) Two categories
      (b) Three categories
      (c) Four categories
      (d) Five categories
      Answer: (b)

    5. Reserved forests meant:
      (a) Villagers could freely use them
      (b) Only for shifting cultivation
      (c) No access for villagers
      (d) For hunting only
      Answer: (c)

    6. Shifting cultivation in India is locally called:
      (a) Podu
      (b) Chena
      (c) Kumri
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    7. Bastar rebellion occurred in:
      (a) 1905
      (b) 1910
      (c) 1920
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    8. Leader associated with Bastar rebellion:
      (a) Gunda Dhur
      (b) Birsa Munda
      (c) Alluri Sitarama Raju
      (d) Kanu
      Answer: (a)

    9. Dutch introduced the blandongdiensten system in:
      (a) India
      (b) Java
      (c) Burma
      (d) Malaya
      Answer: (b)

    10. Kalangs of Java were:
      (a) Traders
      (b) Woodcutters
      (c) Soldiers
      (d) Farmers
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which tree was mainly promoted in plantations?
      (a) Neem
      (b) Teak
      (c) Mango
      (d) Bamboo
      Answer: (b)

    12. Hunting became:
      (a) A livelihood
      (b) A sport
      (c) Illegal for British
      (d) Religious practice
      Answer: (b)

    13. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in:
      (a) Delhi
      (b) Dehradun
      (c) Bombay
      (d) Calcutta
      Answer: (b)

    14. The Bastar rebellion was triggered by:
      (a) High taxes
      (b) Forest reservation
      (c) Famine
      (d) British hunting laws
      Answer: (b)

    15. Samin’s movement in Java opposed:
      (a) Rent collection
      (b) Forest ownership by state
      (c) Trade restrictions
      (d) Plantation expansion
      Answer: (b)

    16. The British killed over _____ tigers between 1875–1925.
      (a) 40,000
      (b) 60,000
      (c) 80,000
      (d) 1,00,000
      Answer: (c)

    17. Forests were heavily exploited during:
      (a) World Wars
      (b) Revolts
      (c) Famines
      (d) Festivals
      Answer: (a)

    18. The mahua tree provides:
      (a) Fruits
      (b) Alcohol and oil
      (c) Medicines
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    19. Which community in Central India petitioned against loss of shifting cultivation?
      (a) Baigas
      (b) Bhils
      (c) Mundas
      (d) Santhals
      Answer: (a)

    20. Java’s forests were mainly rich in:
      (a) Mango
      (b) Teak
      (c) Bamboo
      (d) Coffee
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The disappearance of forests is called deforestation.

    2. The first Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis.

    3. The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

    4. Forests were divided into reserved, protected, and village forests.

    5. Shifting cultivation in Andhra Pradesh is known as podu.

    6. The Bastar rebellion took place in 1910.

    7. The Dutch used the blandongdiensten system in Java.

    8. Gunda Dhur was a leader in Bastar.

    9. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was established at Dehradun.

    10. The mahua tree is valued for its flowers, oil, and alcohol.

  • Chapter 3: Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.
    → The Weimar Republic, set up after WWI, faced several challenges. The Treaty of Versailles imposed heavy reparations, territorial losses, and the War Guilt Clause. Politically, proportional representation led to unstable coalition governments, while Article 48 allowed the President to rule by decree. Economically, Germany suffered hyperinflation in 1923 and was hit hard by the Great Depression in 1929, causing massive unemployment. The Republic was also criticised by nationalists as the creation of “November criminals”. These problems weakened democracy and paved the way for Hitler’s rise.

    Q2. Why did Nazism become popular in Germany by 1930?
    → The Great Depression created unemployment, poverty, and discontent. Hitler promised jobs, national revival, and an end to the humiliation of Versailles. Nazi propaganda projected him as a saviour, holding mass rallies, using radio, posters, and symbols like the swastika. His promises of strong leadership, racial purity, and expansion appealed to many. Weakness of the Weimar Republic and fear of communism also helped. By 1932, the Nazis became the largest party in the Reichstag.

    Q3. What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?
    → Nazi ideology believed in racial hierarchy, with Aryans as the “master race” and Jews, Gypsies, and Slavs as undesirables. It glorified war, conquest, and militarism. It rejected democracy and promoted one-party dictatorship. Nazis emphasised Lebensraum (living space) and expansion eastwards. They believed in total control over society, culture, education, and media. Women were confined to motherhood, while youth were indoctrinated through Nazi schools and organisations.

    Q4. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating hatred for Jews.
    → Nazi propaganda used films, posters, radio, and speeches to spread stereotypes of Jews as greedy, conspiratorial, and unpatriotic. Textbooks were rewritten to portray Jews as enemies. Rallies glorified Hitler and vilified minorities. The Nazis manipulated people’s fears during economic crisis, blaming Jews for both capitalism and communism. This constant repetition and visual imagery convinced many Germans to see Jews as responsible for Germany’s problems.

    Q5. Explain the role of women in Nazi society. Compare with the French Revolution.
    → Women in Nazi Germany were seen as mothers and bearers of the Aryan race. They were encouraged to have many children, awarded crosses for large families, and discouraged from careers. Women who had relations with Jews or bore “undesirable” children were punished. In contrast, during the French Revolution, women actively participated in political clubs and demanded equality, though rights were limited. Thus, while revolutionary women sought political rights, Nazi women were confined to domestic roles.

    Q6. How did the Nazi state establish total control over its people?
    → Hitler used the Enabling Act of 1933 to establish dictatorship. Political parties and trade unions were banned. The Gestapo, SS, and concentration camps suppressed dissent. Education and media were controlled to spread Nazi ideology. Youth organisations trained children in obedience and militarism. Surveillance, propaganda, and terror ensured that ordinary Germans followed Nazi policies. The state controlled economy, culture, and even private life, creating a totalitarian regime.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Discuss the impact of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany.
    The Treaty of Versailles (1919) had devastating effects on Germany. It held Germany responsible for WWI through the War Guilt Clause and forced it to pay £6 billion in reparations. Germany lost territories like Alsace-Lorraine, overseas colonies, 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal reserves. The Rhineland was demilitarised. The army was restricted to 100,000 men. These harsh terms caused humiliation and resentment among Germans. Nationalists blamed the Weimar Republic for accepting such a treaty, calling them “November criminals”. Economically, reparations strained Germany’s finances, leading to hyperinflation in 1923. The treaty crippled German pride, weakened democracy, and created conditions in which extremist ideologies like Nazism could grow. Thus, the Treaty of Versailles directly contributed to Hitler’s rise by creating anger, poverty, and a desire for revenge.

    Q2. How did the Great Depression help the rise of Hitler and the Nazi Party?
    The Great Depression of 1929 severely hit Germany, which was dependent on American loans under the Dawes Plan. When loans stopped, banks collapsed, businesses shut down, and unemployment soared to 6 million. Poverty, homelessness, and despair spread rapidly. The Weimar government failed to provide relief, and people lost faith in democracy. Hitler and the Nazis exploited this crisis through propaganda. They promised jobs, bread, and restoration of national pride. Nazi rallies projected Hitler as a strong leader who could rescue Germany. Their anti-communist stance reassured industrialists, while their promises to workers and peasants attracted the masses. By 1932, the Nazis emerged as the largest party in the Reichstag. Thus, the Depression was the turning point that converted Nazism from a fringe movement into a mass political force.

    Q3. Explain the features of Nazi racial ideology and its consequences.
    Nazi ideology was based on racism and belief in Aryan superiority. Hitler believed Germans were a pure Nordic Aryan race destined to dominate the world. Jews were considered the worst enemies, blamed for Germany’s defeat, economic problems, and social decay. Other groups like Gypsies, Slavs, blacks, and the disabled were seen as “undesirable”. This ideology led to systematic persecution. Jews were excluded from citizenship by the Nuremberg Laws (1935), boycotted, ghettoised, and finally exterminated in concentration camps during the Holocaust, where 6 million Jews were killed. Gypsies, political opponents, and the disabled were also massacred. Children of occupied territories were kidnapped and “racially examined”. Thus, Nazi racial ideology created one of the darkest chapters of human history, marked by genocide and crimes against humanity.

    Q4. Analyse the role of Nazi propaganda in strengthening Hitler’s control.
    Propaganda was central to Nazi control. Hitler understood the power of symbols, speeches, and media in shaping public opinion. Huge rallies with swastika flags, military parades, and Hitler’s charismatic oratory created mass appeal. Radio, films, and posters portrayed Hitler as Germany’s saviour. Jews were depicted as greedy, dangerous, and unpatriotic. School textbooks were rewritten with racial science, teaching children to hate minorities. Propaganda glorified motherhood for Aryan women and militarism for men. Even art and cinema were used to spread Nazi ideas. Through constant repetition, Nazi propaganda created an atmosphere where people accepted dictatorship, believed in Hitler’s messiah image, and participated in persecution. It turned lies into accepted truths and manipulated emotions to establish totalitarian control.

    Q5. What was the Holocaust? Why is it remembered as one of the greatest crimes against humanity?
    The Holocaust was the mass extermination of Jews and other “undesirable” groups by the Nazis during WWII. Between 1941–1945, millions of Jews were deported from ghettos to concentration camps like Auschwitz, Treblinka, and Sobibor, where they were gassed, starved, or worked to death. Gypsies, Poles, Russians, political prisoners, and the disabled were also victims. The Nazis carried out genocide with chilling efficiency, using trains, gas chambers, and crematoria. Over 6 million Jews perished, alongside millions of others. The Holocaust was not only a tragedy for the Jewish people but also a moral failure of humanity, as many nations remained silent. Today, it is remembered through memorials, literature, and museums as a warning against racism, hatred, and blind obedience. It remains one of history’s greatest crimes against humanity.

    MCQs

    1. The Weimar Republic was established in:
      (a) 1918
      (b) 1919
      (c) 1920
      (d) 1921
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Treaty of Versailles was signed in:
      (a) 1917
      (b) 1918
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1920
      Answer: (c)

    3. Germany was forced to pay reparations of:
      (a) £2 billion
      (b) £4 billion
      (c) £6 billion
      (d) £8 billion
      Answer: (c)

    4. Hyperinflation in Germany occurred in:
      (a) 1921
      (b) 1922
      (c) 1923
      (d) 1924
      Answer: (c)

    5. The Great Depression began with the Wall Street Crash in:
      (a) 1928
      (b) 1929
      (c) 1930
      (d) 1931
      Answer: (b)

    6. Hitler became Chancellor of Germany in:
      (a) 1929
      (b) 1932
      (c) 1933
      (d) 1934
      Answer: (c)

    7. The Enabling Act was passed in:
      (a) 1932
      (b) 1933
      (c) 1934
      (d) 1935
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which Nazi organisation was the secret state police?
      (a) SS
      (b) Gestapo
      (c) SA
      (d) SD
      Answer: (b)

    9. The Nazi salute and swastika were symbols of:
      (a) Socialism
      (b) Communism
      (c) Nazi ideology
      (d) Liberalism
      Answer: (c)

    10. Who was the Nazi propaganda minister?
      (a) Himmler
      (b) Goering
      (c) Goebbels
      (d) Hindenburg
      Answer: (c)

    11. The Nuremberg Laws were passed in:
      (a) 1933
      (b) 1934
      (c) 1935
      (d) 1936
      Answer: (c)

    12. Hitler’s autobiography was titled:
      (a) My Life
      (b) Mein Kampf
      (c) Struggle
      (d) Nazi Germany
      Answer: (b)

    13. Which concept meant “living space” in Nazi ideology?
      (a) Volk
      (b) Lebensraum
      (c) Aryanhood
      (d) Reich
      Answer: (b)

    14. The Holocaust refers to:
      (a) Nazi rise to power
      (b) Nazi racial policies
      (c) Mass killing of Jews
      (d) WWII battles
      Answer: (c)

    15. The famous concentration camp Auschwitz was located in:
      (a) Germany
      (b) Poland
      (c) Austria
      (d) France
      Answer: (b)

    16. The Nazi youth organisation was called:
      (a) Hitler Youth
      (b) Young Germany
      (c) Aryan Youth
      (d) Storm Youth
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which group was NOT considered “undesirable” by Nazis?
      (a) Jews
      (b) Gypsies
      (c) Aryan Germans
      (d) Disabled persons
      Answer: (c)

    18. WWII began when Germany invaded:
      (a) Austria
      (b) France
      (c) Poland
      (d) USSR
      Answer: (c)

    19. The Holocaust ended in:
      (a) 1943
      (b) 1944
      (c) 1945
      (d) 1946
      Answer: (c)

    20. Hitler committed suicide in:
      (a) April 1944
      (b) April 1945
      (c) May 1945
      (d) June 1945
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Weimar Republic was established in 1919.

    2. The Treaty of Versailles imposed war guilt on Germany.

    3. The Great Depression began in 1929.

    4. Hitler became Chancellor on 30 January 1933.

    5. The Enabling Act gave Hitler dictatorial powers.

    6. The Nazi secret police was called Gestapo.

    7. The Nazi youth organisation was Hitler Youth.

    8. The Nuremberg Laws denied Jews citizenship.

    9. The Nazi ideology emphasised Aryan racial superiority.

    10. The Holocaust killed about 6 million Jews.

  • Chapter 2: Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?
    → Socially, Russia was dominated by nobles, the Orthodox Church, and the Tsar’s autocracy. Peasants (85% population) lived in poverty and wanted land reforms. Economically, Russia was primarily agricultural, though industries existed in pockets like St Petersburg and Moscow. Working conditions in factories were poor, wages low, and working hours long. Politically, Tsar Nicholas II ruled as an autocrat, ignoring the Duma and suppressing political parties. There was widespread discontent among workers, peasants, and minorities.

    Q2. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe, before 1917?
    → Russian workers were divided by skill (metal workers considered elite), had ties with villages, and women formed 31% of the workforce but earned less than men. Unlike Western Europe, political parties and trade unions were illegal, though strikes occurred often. Peasants in Russia pooled land through communes (mir), unlike Western Europe. Thus, Russian workers and peasants were distinct in organisation and demands.

    Q3. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?
    → The Tsar’s refusal to share power, defeats in WWI, economic crisis, food shortages, strikes, and mutinies led to collapse. The February 1917 Revolution began with worker strikes in Petrograd, soon joined by soldiers. Tsar Nicholas II abdicated on 2 March 1917, ending centuries of autocracy.

    Q4. Make two lists: main events and effects of the February and October Revolutions.

    • February Revolution: Worker strikes, women’s protests, mutiny of soldiers, abdication of Tsar, Provisional Government formed. Effect: End of monarchy, establishment of dual power (Provisional Govt + Soviets).

    • October Revolution: Bolsheviks under Lenin and Trotsky seized Winter Palace, overthrew Provisional Govt. Effect: Soviet rule, land to peasants, industries nationalised, Russia became first socialist state.

    Q5. Main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution.
    → Nationalisation of industries and banks, abolition of private property, land redistribution to peasants, censorship, establishment of one-party rule, and peace with Germany (Treaty of Brest-Litovsk).

    Q6. Short notes:

    • Kulaks: Wealthy peasants targeted by Stalin during collectivisation.

    • Duma: Russian parliament created after 1905, but controlled by Tsar.

    • Women workers (1900–1930): Formed a large part of workforce, led strikes like in February Revolution, but faced wage discrimination.

    • Liberals: Wanted elected government, civil rights, but restricted voting rights to property-owning men.

    • Stalin’s Collectivisation: Policy forcing peasants into collective farms; resisted violently, caused famine, but aimed to modernise agriculture.

    Extras – Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Discuss the role of Lenin and the Bolsheviks in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
    Lenin and the Bolsheviks played a decisive role in the Russian Revolution. Lenin opposed WWI and demanded “Peace, Land, and Bread”. His April Theses in 1917 called for withdrawal from war, transfer of land to peasants, and nationalisation of banks. The Bolsheviks organised soviets in factories and the army, spreading socialist ideas. Trotsky led the Military Revolutionary Committee, which organised the October uprising. On 24 October 1917, Bolsheviks captured key government offices and the Winter Palace. They redistributed land, nationalised industries, and withdrew from WWI through the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk. The Bolsheviks transformed Russia into the world’s first socialist state. Their leadership and discipline made them the most influential political force in 1917.

    Q2. Explain the causes and significance of the 1905 Revolution in Russia.
    The 1905 Revolution was triggered by economic hardship, poor working conditions, and political repression. Rising prices reduced real wages by 20%, leading to mass strikes. On 22 January 1905, thousands marched to the Winter Palace led by Father Gapon, demanding better wages and an elected assembly. Troops fired, killing over 100 workers—this event became known as Bloody Sunday. Strikes, peasant revolts, and student protests spread across Russia. The Tsar was forced to create the Duma, though it had limited powers. The revolution showed the growing power of workers and peasants, and the weakness of autocracy. It set the stage for 1917.

    Q3. Analyse Stalin’s collectivisation policy.
    By 1927, grain shortages in Soviet Russia led Stalin to enforce collectivisation. Private farms were abolished and peasants were forced into collective farms (kolkhoz). Land, livestock, and tools were taken over by the state. The kulaks, or wealthy peasants, resisted and were deported or executed. Many peasants slaughtered cattle and destroyed crops rather than surrender them. Between 1929–1933, production declined, leading to famine that killed over 4 million. While collectivisation aimed at modernising agriculture and ensuring grain supply for industries, it caused immense human suffering. It symbolised Stalin’s authoritarian style of governance, prioritising state control over individual welfare.

    Q4. How did the First World War create conditions for the Russian Revolution?
    WWI had devastating effects on Russia. Over 7 million soldiers were killed or wounded. Food and fuel shortages worsened due to disrupted transport. Industries collapsed as raw materials ran out, and bread riots became common by 1916. The Tsar’s mismanagement, corruption, and refusal to consult the Duma discredited his rule. Soldiers mutinied, and strikes spread. The February Revolution of 1917 began in Petrograd during food shortages and snow, when workers and women protested. The army joined them, forcing the Tsar’s abdication. Thus, WWI acted as the immediate trigger that exposed the weakness of Tsarist autocracy and created revolutionary conditions.

    Q5. What was the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR?
    The Russian Revolution inspired workers and peasants worldwide. It showed that an alternative to capitalism was possible. Communist parties were formed in Europe and Asia, including India, where leaders like M.N. Roy and Jawaharlal Nehru admired Soviet socialism. The Bolsheviks founded the Comintern to unite socialist movements. USSR’s policies of equality, land redistribution, and planned economy impressed many, though its authoritarianism drew criticism. Writers like Tagore and Shaukat Usmani described Soviet Russia as a land of equality and education. By the mid-20th century, the USSR became a global power, shaping world politics and inspiring anti-colonial struggles.

    MCQs

    1. Who wrote The Communist Manifesto?
      (a) Lenin and Stalin
      (b) Marx and Engels
      (c) Rousseau and Montesquieu
      (d) Robespierre and Danton
      Answer: (b)

    2. Which party was formed in Russia in 1898?
      (a) Socialist Revolutionary Party
      (b) Bolshevik Party
      (c) Russian Social Democratic Workers Party
      (d) Mensheviks
      Answer: (c)

    3. The event of 22 January 1905 is known as:
      (a) Red Sunday
      (b) Bloody Sunday
      (c) Labour Sunday
      (d) People’s March
      Answer: (b)

    4. Soviets were:
      (a) Peasant communes
      (b) Workers’ and soldiers’ councils
      (c) Secret police
      (d) Parliament of Russia
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lenin’s April Theses demanded:
      (a) More wages
      (b) Peace, Land, and Bread
      (c) Collectivisation
      (d) End of Duma
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who led the Bolsheviks?
      (a) Trotsky
      (b) Stalin
      (c) Lenin
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    7. The October Revolution took place in:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1922
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which treaty ended Russia’s involvement in WWI?
      (a) Treaty of Versailles
      (b) Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
      (c) Treaty of Moscow
      (d) Treaty of Berlin
      Answer: (b)

    9. The secret police under Lenin was called:
      (a) Cheka
      (b) KGB
      (c) NKVD
      (d) Gestapo
      Answer: (a)

    10. The elected parliament created after 1905 was:
      (a) Soviet
      (b) Duma
      (c) Diet
      (d) Reichstag
      Answer: (b)

    11. The Bolshevik Party was later renamed as:
      (a) Communist Party of Russia
      (b) Soviet Socialist Party
      (c) Marxist Party
      (d) People’s Party
      Answer: (a)

    12. Stalin’s collective farms were called:
      (a) Kolkhoz
      (b) Sovkhoz
      (c) Mir
      (d) Commune
      Answer: (a)

    13. Who among the following was NOT a socialist thinker?
      (a) Karl Marx
      (b) Friedrich Engels
      (c) Louis Blanc
      (d) Adam Smith
      Answer: (d)

    14. Tsar Nicholas II ruled until:
      (a) 1914
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1922
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which leader organised the Red Army?
      (a) Stalin
      (b) Lenin
      (c) Trotsky
      (d) Kerensky
      Answer: (c)

    16. The USSR was formed in:
      (a) 1922
      (b) 1917
      (c) 1919
      (d) 1930
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which group supported peasants’ rights in Russia?
      (a) Mensheviks
      (b) Socialist Revolutionaries
      (c) Bolsheviks
      (d) Liberals
      Answer: (b)

    18. The capital Petrograd was earlier called:
      (a) Moscow
      (b) Leningrad
      (c) St Petersburg
      (d) Volgograd
      Answer: (c)

    19. The Comintern was founded to:
      (a) Spread communism internationally
      (b) Train Red Army
      (c) Control peasants
      (d) Promote trade unions
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who introduced collectivisation in USSR?
      (a) Lenin
      (b) Trotsky
      (c) Stalin
      (d) Gorbachev
      Answer: (c)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Russian Revolution of 1917 occurred in two stages – February and October.

    2. The Tsar of Russia in 1914 was Nicholas II.

    3. The Socialist Revolutionary Party worked mainly for peasants’ rights.

    4. Lenin’s three slogans were Peace, Land, and Bread.

    5. The Bolshevik Party later became the Communist Party of Russia.

    6. The Russian secret police was called Cheka.

    7. Stalin forced peasants into collective farms known as Kolkhoz.

    8. The 1905 protest where workers were fired upon is called Bloody Sunday.

    9. Russia withdrew from WWI by signing the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk.

    10. The USSR was formed in 1922.

  • Chapter 1: The French Revolution, Class 9th, History, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
    → The French monarchy faced financial crisis due to long wars and extravagant spending. The treasury was empty and taxation was increased. Society was divided into three estates, where clergy and nobility enjoyed privileges, while the Third Estate bore the tax burden. Rising population, food shortages, and high bread prices created a subsistence crisis. Enlightenment thinkers like Rousseau, Montesquieu, and Locke spread ideas of equality and liberty. The American Revolution also inspired French people. Thus, social inequality, economic hardship, and new political ideas led to revolutionary protests.

    Q2. Which groups of French society benefited from the Revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections would have been disappointed?
    → Benefited: Peasants, artisans, and the middle class who gained equality before law and end of feudal dues.
    Relinquished power: Nobility and clergy lost privileges, taxes, and feudal rights.
    Disappointed: Women, who were still denied political rights, and poorer sections, who remained passive citizens under the 1791 Constitution.

    Q3. Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world.
    → The Revolution spread the ideas of liberty, equality, and fraternity. It inspired struggles against monarchy and feudalism in Europe. Colonised countries like India drew from its principles to fight colonial rule. Democratic rights such as freedom of speech, equality before law, and sovereignty of the people became universal values. However, contradictions existed, such as denial of rights to women and colonies.

    Q4. Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.
    → Right to equality before law, right to freedom of speech and expression, right to vote, right to liberty, right against exploitation, and right to property (later modified in India).

    Q5. Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
    → Yes. While the Revolution declared universal rights, women were excluded, as were slaves in colonies. Only active male citizens with property could vote initially. Thus, universal rights were limited by class, gender, and race.

    Q6. How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
    → Political instability after the fall of Jacobins, failure of the Directory, and constant wars created conditions for a strong leader. Napoleon, a military general, seized power in 1799 and later crowned himself Emperor. He introduced reforms in law, administration, and modernised Europe. Initially hailed as a liberator, he later became a dictator until his defeat at Waterloo in 1815.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the social and economic causes of the French Revolution.
    The French society in the 18th century was divided into three estates. The first two estates—the clergy and nobility—enjoyed privileges, including exemption from taxes, while the Third Estate bore the entire tax burden. Peasants, artisans, and workers faced exploitation through feudal dues and tithes. Economic hardship worsened as population growth outpaced food supply, leading to a subsistence crisis. Bread prices soared, and wages stagnated. Extravagant expenditure by King Louis XVI and his court deepened the financial crisis. France’s involvement in the American War of Independence added to the debt. These conditions created resentment, and people demanded an end to inequality, paving the way for revolution.

    Q2. Discuss the role of philosophers in the French Revolution.
    Enlightenment philosophers inspired people with ideas of equality, freedom, and democracy. John Locke refuted the doctrine of divine right of kings and argued for government based on consent. Rousseau’s Social Contract emphasised collective sovereignty and equality. Montesquieu’s Spirit of the Laws proposed division of power among executive, legislature, and judiciary, influencing democratic structures. Their works spread through salons, newspapers, and coffee houses, reaching even the illiterate. These ideas encouraged the Third Estate to demand reforms and shaped revolutionary demands for a society based on merit and rights rather than birth.

    Q3. Explain the Reign of Terror under Robespierre.
    The period from 1793–1794 is called the Reign of Terror. Maximilien Robespierre, leader of Jacobins, imposed severe controls to protect the republic. Suspected enemies of the revolution, including nobles, clergy, and even his opponents, were arrested and executed by guillotine. Harsh economic measures like price controls on bread and rationing were introduced. Traditional titles like Monsieur and Madame were replaced by Citizen. Churches were closed. While the aim was equality, fear and repression dominated. Ultimately, Robespierre lost support, was arrested, and executed in 1794, ending the Terror.

    Q4. What was the impact of the French Revolution on women?
    Women actively participated in protests, marched to Versailles, and formed political clubs. They demanded education, equal wages, and the right to vote. The Constitution of 1791, however, denied them political rights, reducing them to passive citizens. Revolutionary governments introduced some reforms like compulsory schooling for girls, legalised divorce, and civil marriages. Women like Olympe de Gouges demanded political equality, writing the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen. Yet, during the Reign of Terror, women’s clubs were closed, and many activists were punished. Women in France finally gained voting rights only in 1946.

    Q5. Describe the abolition of slavery during the French Revolution.
    Slavery existed in French colonies in the Caribbean, where Africans were forced to work on plantations. The French Revolution initially ignored the issue due to pressure from merchants benefiting from the slave trade. In 1794, the Convention abolished slavery in all French colonies, recognising the rights of slaves as citizens. This was a significant step towards equality. However, Napoleon reintroduced slavery in 1804. Finally, slavery was abolished permanently in 1848. The abolition of slavery highlighted the Revolution’s broader struggle for human rights and influenced anti-slavery movements globally.

    MCQs

    1. The storming of Bastille took place on:
      (a) 5 May 1789
      (b) 14 July 1789
      (c) 4 August 1789
      (d) 21 September 1792
      Answer: (b)

    2. Louis XVI belonged to which dynasty?
      (a) Habsburg
      (b) Bourbon
      (c) Tudor
      (d) Stuart
      Answer: (b)

    3. The unit of currency in France before 1794 was:
      (a) Franc
      (b) Livre
      (c) Pound
      (d) Dollar
      Answer: (b)

    4. The tax paid directly to the state was called:
      (a) Tithe
      (b) Taille
      (c) Gabelle
      (d) Octroi
      Answer: (b)

    5. Tithes were collected by:
      (a) Nobles
      (b) Church
      (c) King
      (d) Merchants
      Answer: (b)

    6. The middle class in France was also known as:
      (a) Clergy
      (b) Nobility
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Sans-culottes
      Answer: (c)

    7. Who wrote The Social Contract?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who proposed separation of powers?
      (a) Montesquieu
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Locke
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (a)

    9. The slogan of the French Revolution was:
      (a) Justice, Equality, Power
      (b) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
      (c) Liberty, Justice, Sovereignty
      (d) Equality, Rights, Nation
      Answer: (b)

    10. Who led the Jacobins?
      (a) Napoleon
      (b) Robespierre
      (c) Danton
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which period is called the Reign of Terror?
      (a) 1789–1791
      (b) 1791–1792
      (c) 1793–1794
      (d) 1794–1799
      Answer: (c)

    12. Which device was used for executions?
      (a) Cannon
      (b) Sword
      (c) Guillotine
      (d) Axe
      Answer: (c)

    13. Who wrote Declaration of Rights of Woman and Citizen?
      (a) Olympe de Gouges
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Marat
      Answer: (a)

    14. Napoleon was finally defeated at:
      (a) Paris
      (b) Moscow
      (c) Leipzig
      (d) Waterloo
      Answer: (d)

    15. Slavery in French colonies was finally abolished in:
      (a) 1794
      (b) 1804
      (c) 1848
      (d) 1815
      Answer: (c)

    16. National Anthem of France is:
      (a) Vande Mataram
      (b) The Marseillaise
      (c) La Revolutionnaire
      (d) Liberté Song
      Answer: (b)

    17. Who criticised monarchy in Two Treatises of Government?
      (a) Locke
      (b) Rousseau
      (c) Montesquieu
      (d) Voltaire
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which section wore knee breeches?
      (a) Sans-culottes
      (b) Nobles
      (c) Bourgeoisie
      (d) Jacobins
      Answer: (b)

    19. Which new title was introduced during Revolution?
      (a) Sir and Madam
      (b) Monsieur and Madame
      (c) Citoyen and Citoyenne
      (d) Comrade
      Answer: (c)

    20. Who crowned himself Emperor in 1804?
      (a) Robespierre
      (b) Napoleon
      (c) Louis XVI
      (d) Danton
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The French Revolution began in 1789.

    2. The Bastille was a symbol of despotic monarchy.

    3. The tax paid to the state directly was taille.

    4. The tax collected by the church was tithe.

    5. Rousseau wrote The Social Contract.

    6. Montesquieu proposed division of powers.

    7. The slogan of the French Revolution was Liberty, Equality, Fraternity.

    8. The Reign of Terror lasted from 1793–1794.

    9. Olympe de Gouges demanded rights for women.

    10. Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo in 1815.

  • Chapter 6: Population, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

    (i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:
    (a) The area of departure
    (b) The area of arrival
    (c) Both the area of departure and arrival
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) Both the area of departure and arrival

    (ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
    (a) High birth rates
    (b) High life expectancies
    (c) High death rates
    (d) More married couples
    Answer: (a) High birth rates

    (iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to:
    (a) Total population of an area
    (b) Number of persons added each year/decade
    (c) Rate at which population increases
    (d) Number of females per 1000 males
    Answer: (b) Number of persons added each year/decade

    (iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who:
    (a) Can read and write his/her name
    (b) Can read and write any language
    (c) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
    (d) Knows the 3 R’s (Reading, Writing, Arithmetic)
    Answer: (c)

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
    → Because birth rates have been declining gradually due to family planning, awareness, better healthcare, and improved literacy.

    (ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
    → Birth rate, death rate, and migration. Birth and death determine natural increase, while migration affects distribution and composition.

    (iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
    → Age structure: Proportion of different age groups in population.
    Birth rate: Live births per 1000 persons per year.
    Death rate: Deaths per 1000 persons per year.

    (iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
    → Migration changes size, composition, and distribution of population. Internal migration redistributes people; international migration alters population size.

    Q3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

    • Growth: Increase in number of people.

    • Change: Includes growth plus changes in distribution, composition, and migration.

    Q4. Relation between occupational structure and development.
    → Higher proportion in secondary/tertiary = more developed economy. Primary sector dominance = less development.

    Q5. Advantages of a healthy population.
    → Greater productivity, better quality of life, lower healthcare costs, improved economic growth.

    Q6. Significant features of National Population Policy 2000.
    → Universal free education up to 14 years, reduced infant mortality, universal immunisation, delayed marriage of girls, voluntary family welfare programs.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the size and distribution of India’s population.
    India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion, about 17% of the world’s population, spread over 3.28 million sq km. This makes India the second most populous country. Population distribution is highly uneven. Uttar Pradesh has 199 million people, the highest among states, while Sikkim and Lakshadweep have less than a million. Half of India’s population lives in just five states: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh. Population density is 382 persons/sq km on average, but varies from 1,102 in Bihar to only 17 in Arunachal Pradesh. Fertile plains and coastal regions are densely populated, while deserts, mountains, and forests are sparsely populated. This unevenness shows how geography influences human settlement.

    Q2. Discuss population growth trends in India since 1951.
    In 1951, India had 361 million people. Since then, population has increased steadily. Growth accelerated from 1951 to 1981, with rates peaking at 2.2% per year due to high birth rates and declining death rates. From 1981 onwards, growth rate declined gradually as fertility declined, but absolute increase remained high due to a large base population. For example, in the 1990s alone, 182 million people were added despite falling growth rates. By 2011, population reached 1.21 billion, and by 2023 India overtook China as the most populous nation. This shows that even with slower growth, the absolute additions remain large because of the sheer population base.

    Q3. Explain the role of migration in population change in India.
    Migration significantly affects population distribution and composition. Internal migration in India is mainly rural-to-urban due to push factors like poverty and unemployment and pull factors like jobs and better facilities in cities. This increases urbanisation; urban population grew from 17% in 1951 to over 31% in 2011, and continues rising. Migration also changes age and sex composition: men often migrate first, leaving women behind, while in cities, working-age groups dominate. International migration has also shaped India—large-scale emigration to Gulf countries and Western nations brings remittances, while immigration from neighbouring countries like Nepal or Bangladesh adds to diversity. Thus, migration redistributes population and impacts economy and society.

    Q4. Why is the adolescent population important for India?
    Adolescents (10–19 years) form one-fifth of India’s population. They are the future workforce and hold the key to economic growth. Proper nutrition and education are vital for them. However, many adolescents, especially girls, suffer from anaemia, malnutrition, and lack of healthcare. If neglected, this segment can become a burden instead of a resource. The government aims to improve adolescent health through literacy, awareness, and nutrition programs. Skilled, healthy adolescents can contribute to innovation, productivity, and nation-building. Hence, investment in this group ensures long-term development and prosperity for India.

    Q5. What are the objectives of National Population Policy 2000? Why is it significant?
    The NPP 2000 provides a comprehensive framework for family welfare and population stabilisation. Its key objectives include: universal free education up to 14 years, reducing infant mortality below 30 per 1000, universal immunisation of children, promoting delayed marriage for girls, voluntary family planning, and making reproductive healthcare accessible. The policy recognises that smaller, healthier families improve quality of life. It also focuses on adolescent health, raising awareness among girls, and ensuring nutrition and education. The significance of NPP lies in balancing population growth with sustainable development. By empowering individuals to plan families voluntarily, it links health, education, and gender equality with demographic goals.

    MCQs

    1. India’s population in 2011 was:
      (a) 1.02 billion
      (b) 1.21 billion
      (c) 1.31 billion
      (d) 1.11 billion
      Answer: (b)

    2. India’s share of world population is about:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 12%
      (c) 17%
      (d) 20%
      Answer: (c)

    3. The most populous state in 2011:
      (a) Bihar
      (b) Uttar Pradesh
      (c) Maharashtra
      (d) West Bengal
      Answer: (b)

    4. Least populated state in 2011:
      (a) Goa
      (b) Sikkim
      (c) Manipur
      (d) Tripura
      Answer: (b)

    5. Population density of India in 2011:
      (a) 250/sq km
      (b) 350/sq km
      (c) 382/sq km
      (d) 400/sq km
      Answer: (c)

    6. Highest density state in 2011:
      (a) West Bengal
      (b) Bihar
      (c) Kerala
      (d) UP
      Answer: (b)

    7. Lowest density state:
      (a) Sikkim
      (b) Arunachal Pradesh
      (c) Mizoram
      (d) Nagaland
      Answer: (b)

    8. Census is conducted every:
      (a) 5 years
      (b) 10 years
      (c) 15 years
      (d) 20 years
      Answer: (b)

    9. First complete census in India:
      (a) 1857
      (b) 1872
      (c) 1881
      (d) 1901
      Answer: (c)

    10. Absolute increase in population means:
      (a) Total population
      (b) Number added during a period
      (c) Growth rate
      (d) Density
      Answer: (b)

    11. Growth rate of population is measured in:
      (a) % per decade
      (b) % per annum
      (c) Total headcount
      (d) Births per year
      Answer: (b)

    12. Birth rate means:
      (a) Births per 100 persons
      (b) Births per 1000 persons
      (c) Children per family
      (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    13. Death rate means:
      (a) Deaths per 100 persons
      (b) Deaths per 1000 persons
      (c) Life expectancy
      (d) Mortality ratio
      Answer: (b)

    14. Rural-urban migration in India is mainly due to:
      (a) Cultural reasons
      (b) Poverty & unemployment in villages
      (c) Religious reasons
      (d) Government policy
      Answer: (b)

    15. India overtook China in population in:
      (a) 2019
      (b) 2020
      (c) 2023
      (d) 2025
      Answer: (c)

    16. Adolescent population is defined as ages:
      (a) 5–15 years
      (b) 10–19 years
      (c) 12–20 years
      (d) 15–25 years
      Answer: (b)

    17. Percentage of adolescent population in India:
      (a) 10%
      (b) 15%
      (c) 20%
      (d) 25%
      Answer: (c)

    18. National Population Policy was adopted in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1980
      (c) 1991
      (d) 2000
      Answer: (d)

    19. NPP 2000 aims to reduce infant mortality rate below:
      (a) 40 per 1000
      (b) 35 per 1000
      (c) 30 per 1000
      (d) 25 per 1000
      Answer: (c)

    20. Which factor does NOT directly affect population growth?
      (a) Birth rate
      (b) Death rate
      (c) Migration
      (d) Rainfall
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s population in 2011 was 1.21 billion.

    2. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state.

    3. Sikkim has the least population among states.

    4. Population density of India in 2011 was 382 persons per sq km.

    5. The highest density state is Bihar.

    6. The lowest density state is Arunachal Pradesh.

    7. First complete census in India was held in 1881.

    8. Absolute increase is the number of people added in a decade.

    9. Growth rate is measured in percent per annum.

    10. The National Population Policy was adopted in 2000.

  • Chapter 5: Natural Vegetation and Wildlife, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:

    (i) To which type of vegetation does rubber belong?
    (a) Tundra
    (b) Tidal
    (c) Himalayan
    (d) Tropical Evergreen
    Answer: (d) Tropical Evergreen

    (ii) Cinchona trees are found in areas of rainfall more than:
    (a) 100 cm
    (b) 50 cm
    (c) 70 cm
    (d) Less than 50 cm
    Answer: (a) 100 cm

    (iii) In which state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
    (a) Punjab
    (b) Delhi
    (c) Odisha
    (d) West Bengal
    Answer: (c) Odisha

    (iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves is not in the world network?
    (a) Manas
    (b) Nilgiri
    (c) Gulf of Mannar
    (d) Panna
    Answer: (d) Panna

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.
    → A protected area where flora, fauna, and ecosystems are conserved. Examples: Nanda Devi, Nilgiri.

    (ii) Name two animals found in tropical and montane vegetation.
    → Tropical: Elephant, tiger. Montane: Yak, snow leopard.

    Q3. Distinguish between:

    (i) Flora and Fauna

    • Flora: Plants of a region.

    • Fauna: Animals of a region.

    (ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests

    • Evergreen: Found in >200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves at different times, always green.

    • Deciduous: Found in 70–200 cm rainfall, trees shed leaves in dry summer, dominant in India.

    Q4. Types of vegetation in India; describe vegetation of high altitudes.
    → Five types: Tropical evergreen, tropical deciduous, thorny forests, montane forests, mangroves.

    • High altitudes (Montane forests): Vegetation changes with altitude. Up to 2000 m: broadleaf trees (oak, chestnut). Between 1500–3000 m: conifers (pine, deodar, cedar). Above 3600 m: alpine grasslands and shrubs, merging into tundra with mosses and lichens.

    Q5. Why are some plants and animals endangered in India?
    → Hunting, deforestation, pollution, industrialisation, expansion of agriculture, and introduction of alien species have led to habitat loss. Overexploitation disturbs ecosystems, making many species endangered or extinct.

    Q6. Why does India have a rich heritage of flora and fauna?
    → Due to varied relief (mountains, plateaus, coasts), different soils, climatic diversity, monsoon influence, and long evolutionary history. Together these factors give India one of the richest biodiversities in the world.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the major types of vegetation in India.
    India has five major vegetation types. Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in areas with over 200 cm rainfall, such as Western Ghats and Andamans, with trees like ebony and mahogany. Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread, found in 70–200 cm rainfall zones, with teak, sal, and shisham. Tropical Thorn Forests grow in areas with less than 70 cm rainfall, such as Rajasthan, with cacti and acacia. Montane Forests change with altitude: oak and chestnut up to 2000 m, conifers up to 3000 m, and alpine vegetation above. Mangrove Forests are found in coastal deltas, with trees like sundari. This variety makes India’s vegetation diverse and rich.

    Q2. Explain the importance of forests and wildlife for human beings.
    Forests and wildlife are vital for ecological balance and human survival. Forests provide oxygen, purify air, regulate climate, prevent soil erosion, and conserve water. They are also a source of timber, fuel, fodder, and medicinal plants. Wildlife maintains the food chain, supports pollination, and enriches biodiversity. Animals like cows, buffaloes, and camels provide milk, draught power, and transport. Fish and birds provide food, while insects help pollinate crops. Loss of forests and wildlife disturbs ecosystems, causing floods, droughts, and climate change. Thus, their conservation is essential for present and future generations.

    Q3. Discuss the Montane forests and their fauna.
    Montane forests develop in mountainous regions where temperature decreases with altitude. Between 1000–2000 m, wet temperate broadleaf trees like oak and chestnut grow. Between 1500–3000 m, coniferous forests with pine, cedar, and deodar dominate. Above 3600 m, alpine vegetation with shrubs, grasses, mosses, and lichens is found. These zones are also grazing grounds for nomads like Gujjars. Fauna here include snow leopard, yak, Tibetan antelope, red panda, ibex, and wild sheep, adapted to cold climates. This gradual change from tropical to tundra vegetation makes montane forests unique.

    Q4. What measures has India taken to conserve flora and fauna?
    India has implemented several conservation measures. The Wildlife Protection Act (1972) created National Parks, Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves. Today, there are 106 National Parks and 573 sanctuaries. Projects like Project Tiger, Project Rhino, and Project Elephant protect specific species. India has 18 biosphere reserves, 12 of which are in UNESCO’s world network (e.g., Sundarbans, Nanda Devi). Botanical gardens receive support, and awareness campaigns encourage afforestation and wildlife protection. Such measures aim to protect endangered species, restore ecosystems, and conserve biodiversity for sustainable development.

    Q5. Why is biodiversity conservation necessary?
    Biodiversity conservation is necessary because every species plays a role in ecosystems. Plants provide food, oxygen, and medicine. Animals maintain ecological balance by controlling populations of other species and aiding pollination. Humans depend on biodiversity for agriculture, resources, and livelihood. Loss of species causes imbalance, leading to floods, droughts, and climate change. India’s 1,300 endangered plants and many threatened animals show urgent need for conservation. Protecting biodiversity ensures food security, ecological stability, and sustainable development for future generations.

    MCQs

    1. Natural vegetation refers to:
      (a) Cultivated plants
      (b) Virgin plants growing naturally
      (c) Botanical gardens
      (d) Crops and orchards
      Answer: (b)

    2. Flora means:
      (a) Animal species
      (b) Plant species
      (c) Soil type
      (d) Climate
      Answer: (b)

    3. Fauna means:
      (a) Animals of a region
      (b) Trees of a region
      (c) Rivers of a region
      (d) Minerals of a region
      Answer: (a)

    4. Evergreen forests are found in rainfall above:
      (a) 70 cm
      (b) 100 cm
      (c) 200 cm
      (d) 50 cm
      Answer: (c)

    5. Teak is dominant in:
      (a) Evergreen forests
      (b) Thorn forests
      (c) Moist deciduous forests
      (d) Mangroves
      Answer: (c)

    6. Dry deciduous forests found in:
      (a) 200–100 cm rainfall
      (b) 70–200 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–70 cm rainfall
      (d) <50 cm rainfall
      Answer: (c)

    7. Thorn forests grow in:
      (a) >200 cm rainfall
      (b) <70 cm rainfall
      (c) 100–200 cm rainfall
      (d) Coastal areas
      Answer: (b)

    8. Sundari tree is found in:
      (a) Western Ghats
      (b) Ganga delta
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    9. Largest mangrove forest in India:
      (a) Malabar Coast
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Andamans
      Answer: (b)

    10. Royal Bengal Tiger found in:
      (a) Gir Forest
      (b) Sunderbans
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Nilgiris
      Answer: (b)

    11. Asiatic lion found in:
      (a) Kaziranga
      (b) Gir Forest
      (c) Sundarbans
      (d) Periyar
      Answer: (b)

    12. One-horned rhinoceros found in:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Assam
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b)

    13. India’s only active volcano:
      (a) Narcondam
      (b) Barren Island
      (c) Lakshadweep
      (d) Car Nicobar
      Answer: (b)

    14. “Project Tiger” launched in:
      (a) 1962
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1980
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)

    15. Number of National Parks in India (approx):
      (a) 106
      (b) 573
      (c) 28
      (d) 18
      Answer: (a)

    16. Medicinal plant for blood pressure:
      (a) Neem
      (b) Sarpagandha
      (c) Arjun
      (d) Tulsi
      Answer: (b)

    17. Biosphere reserves in UNESCO list:
      (a) 5
      (b) 8
      (c) 12
      (d) 18
      Answer: (c)

    18. Migratory bird “Siberian Crane” visits:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Rann of Kachchh
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Arunachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    19. Cold desert biosphere reserve is in:
      (a) Rajasthan
      (b) Ladakh
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Himachal Pradesh
      Answer: (b)

    20. Wildlife Protection Act passed in:
      (a) 1952
      (b) 1972
      (c) 1982
      (d) 1992
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Virgin vegetation left undisturbed is called natural vegetation.

    2. Plants of a region are called flora.

    3. Animals of a region are called fauna.

    4. India has about 47,000 plant species.

    5. Tropical Evergreen forests remain green throughout the year.

    6. The most widespread forests in India are tropical deciduous.

    7. The only home of Asiatic lions is Gir forest in Gujarat.

    8. One-horned rhinoceros lives in Assam and West Bengal.

    9. The Sundarbans mangroves are famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    10. The Wildlife Protection Act was passed in 1972.

  • Chapter 4: Climate, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the correct answer:

    (i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
    (a) Silchar
    (b) Mawsynram
    (c) Cherrapunji
    (d) Guwahati
    Answer: (b) Mawsynram

    (ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
    (a) Kaal Baisakhi
    (b) Loo
    (c) Trade Winds
    (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) Loo

    (iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
    (a) Early May
    (b) Early July
    (c) Early June
    (d) Early August
    Answer: (c) Early June

    (iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
    (a) Warm days and warm nights
    (b) Warm days and cold nights
    (c) Cool days and cold nights
    (d) Cold days and warm nights
    Answer: (c) Cool days and cold nights

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) Controls affecting climate of India → Latitude, altitude, pressure & winds, distance from sea, ocean currents, relief.

    (ii) Why monsoon type of climate? → Seasonal reversal of winds; India’s unique location, Himalayas blocking cold winds, ITCZ shifts.

    (iii) Highest diurnal range of temperature? → Thar Desert (hot days, cold nights) because of arid conditions.

    (iv) Which winds bring rainfall along Malabar coast? → South-West Monsoon winds.

    (v) Define monsoon. What is “break” in monsoon? → Monsoon = seasonal reversal of winds. Break = wet/dry spells during rainy season.

    (vi) Why monsoon as unifying bond? → Despite diversity, agriculture, festivals, life, economy revolve around rains across India.

    Q3. Why rainfall decreases east to west in Northern India?
    → Monsoon winds from Bay of Bengal shed most moisture in east; progressively less as they move westward.

    Q4. Give reasons:

    (i) Seasonal reversal of winds → Differential heating of land and sea, ITCZ shift.
    (ii) Rainfall concentrated in few months → Southwest monsoon dominates June–Sept.
    (iii) Tamil Nadu coast gets winter rain → Retreating monsoon + NE monsoon winds.
    (iv) Eastern coast deltas struck by cyclones → Low-pressure systems from Bay of Bengal.
    (v) Rajasthan, Gujarat, leeward Ghats drought-prone → Located in rain shadow / far from monsoon path.

    Q5. Regional variations in climate of India:

    • Jaisalmer: hot desert, <10 cm rain.

    • Shillong: heavy rain (400+ cm).

    • Thiruvananthapuram: equable, coastal.

    • Drass/Leh: extreme cold.

    • Gujarat, MP: hot summers.

    Q6. Cold weather season conditions:

    • Nov–Feb. Temp falls, clear skies, cool days, cold nights.

    • NE trade winds prevail.

    • Western disturbances cause winter rain in north, snowfall in Himalayas.

    • “Mahawat” rain important for rabi crops.

    Q7. Characteristics & effects of monsoon rainfall:

    • Seasonal reversal, June–Sept.

    • Irregular, with breaks.

    • Uneven spatial distribution.

    • Excess = floods, deficit = droughts.

    • Vital for agriculture, economy, festivals.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the factors affecting India’s climate.
    Answer: Latitude (Tropic of Cancer divides), Altitude (Himalayas vs coast), Pressure & Winds (monsoon system), Distance from sea (continentality), Ocean currents (warming/cooling), Relief (rain shadow, windward rainfall).

    Q2. Describe the four seasons of India.
    Answer:

    • Winter (Nov–Feb) – Cold, NE monsoon, western disturbances.

    • Summer (Mar–May) – High temp, loo, dust storms, mango showers.

    • Advancing Monsoon (Jun–Sept) – SW monsoon, heavy rain, floods.

    • Retreating Monsoon (Oct–Nov) – Monsoon withdrawal, cyclones in east coast, October heat.

    Q3. “Monsoon is a unifying bond.” Explain.
    Answer: Despite diverse climates, agriculture, food habits, festivals, crops, river systems, economy—all revolve around monsoons. They bind India by setting agricultural calendar.

    Q4. Discuss regional variations in temperature & rainfall in India with examples.
    Answer: Rajasthan 50°C vs Drass –45°C; Thar diurnal variation vs Kerala equable climate; Mawsynram 400 cm vs Jaisalmer <10 cm; Tamil Nadu winter rain vs Punjab winter rain (western disturbances).

    Q5. Characteristics & significance of monsoon rainfall.
    Answer: Monsoon rainfall is seasonal, irregular, uncertain, unevenly distributed. It sustains Indian agriculture, hydroelectricity, transport, biodiversity, and festivals, but also causes floods and droughts.

    MCQs

    1. Climate refers to weather conditions over:
      (a) A short period
      (b) A long period (30+ years)
      (c) One week
      (d) A day
      Answer: (b)

    2. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
      (a) Middle of India
      (b) Northernmost tip
      (c) Southernmost tip
      (d) Only coastal areas
      Answer: (a)

    3. Cold winds from Central Asia don’t reach India because:
      (a) Deserts block them
      (b) Himalayas block them
      (c) Monsoon winds stop them
      (d) ITCZ shifts
      Answer: (b)

    4. Seasonal reversal of wind is called:
      (a) Westerlies
      (b) Trade winds
      (c) Monsoon
      (d) Cyclone
      Answer: (c)

    5. The “loo” is a:
      (a) Winter wind
      (b) Cold breeze
      (c) Hot, dry wind in summer
      (d) Sea breeze
      Answer: (c)

    6. Kaal Baisakhi occurs in:
      (a) Punjab
      (b) West Bengal
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (b)

    7. Mango showers occur in:
      (a) Kerala & Karnataka
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Punjab
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (a)

    8. Retreating monsoon occurs in:
      (a) June–Sept
      (b) Oct–Nov
      (c) Mar–May
      (d) Dec–Jan
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tamil Nadu gets rainfall in winter due to:
      (a) Western disturbances
      (b) Retreating NE monsoon
      (c) Cyclones only
      (d) Local thunderstorms
      Answer: (b)

    10. Western disturbances bring rain to:
      (a) Tamil Nadu coast
      (b) Rajasthan
      (c) Northern plains in winter
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (c)

    11. Mawsynram is in:
      (a) Meghalaya
      (b) Mizoram
      (c) Tripura
      (d) Assam
      Answer: (a)

    12. Monsoon enters India first at:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Tamil Nadu
      (c) Gujarat
      (d) Odisha
      Answer: (a)

    13. October heat refers to:
      (a) Very hot May–June winds
      (b) Oppressive weather in Oct after rains
      (c) Heat waves in March
      (d) Cyclone season
      Answer: (b)

    14. Break in monsoon means:
      (a) Monsoon ends
      (b) Monsoon delayed
      (c) Wet and dry spells during rains
      (d) No rain for a year
      Answer: (c)

    15. The region with lowest rainfall in India:
      (a) Western Rajasthan & Leh
      (b) Assam
      (c) Kerala
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (a)

    16. Highest diurnal temperature range in India:
      (a) Kerala
      (b) Andaman & Nicobar
      (c) Thar Desert
      (d) Meghalaya
      Answer: (c)

    17. Rainfall decreases from east to west because:
      (a) Himalayas block it
      (b) Winds lose moisture westwards
      (c) Ocean currents deflect
      (d) Cyclones push rain eastwards
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which is NOT a control of climate?
      (a) Latitude
      (b) Altitude
      (c) Distance from moon
      (d) Relief
      Answer: (c)

    19. Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall because:
      (a) Leeward side effect
      (b) Orographic rainfall on windward side
      (c) Retreating monsoon
      (d) Winter rains
      Answer: (b)

    20. Cyclones in retreating monsoon often hit:
      (a) Gujarat coast
      (b) Godavari–Krishna–Kaveri deltas
      (c) Punjab plains
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Climate refers to average conditions over 30+ years.

    2. The word monsoon comes from Arabic word ‘mausim’ meaning season.

    3. Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia.

    4. The hot, dry summer winds in north India are called loo.

    5. Local thunderstorms in Bengal are called Kaal Baisakhi.

    6. Pre-monsoon showers in south India are called mango showers.

    7. The wettest place in the world is Mawsynram.

    8. The retreating monsoon occurs in October–November.

    9. Winter rains in north India are caused by western disturbances.

    10. Monsoon is called a unifying bond of India.

  • Chapter 3: Drainage, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Choose the right answer:
    (i) Wular Lake is in → (d) Jammu & Kashmir
    (ii) Narmada source → (c) Amarkantak
    (iii) Salt water lake → (a) Sambhar
    (iv) Longest Peninsular river → (c) Godavari
    (v) River flowing in rift valley → (d) Tapi

    Q2. Answer briefly:

    (i) What is a water divide?
    → An elevated area separating two drainage basins. Example: Ambala between Indus & Ganga basins.

    (ii) Largest river basin in India?
    → The Ganga basin.

    (iii) Origin of Indus & Ganga?
    → Indus – Tibet near Mansarovar.
    Ganga – Gangotri Glacier (Bhagirathi).

    (iv) Two headstreams of Ganga? Where do they meet?
    → Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet at Devaprayag.

    (v) Why does Brahmaputra carry less silt in Tibet?
    → Tibet is dry and cold, with little rainfall → less water, less silt.

    (vi) Two Peninsular rivers flowing through troughs?
    → Narmada and Tapi.

    (vii) Economic benefits of rivers and lakes?
    → Irrigation, drinking water, hydropower, fisheries, navigation, tourism, soil fertility, climate moderation.

    Q3. Classify lakes (Natural / Human-made):

    • Natural: Wular, Dal, Nainital, Bhimtal, Loktak, Barapani, Chilika, Sambhar, Pulicat, Kolleru.

    • Human-made: Gobind Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Nizam Sagar, Nagarjuna Sagar, Hirakud.

    Q4. Difference between Himalayan and Peninsular rivers:

    • Himalayan: Perennial, long, deep valleys, depositional features (deltas, meanders, oxbow lakes).

    • Peninsular: Seasonal, short, flow in plateaus, shallow valleys, estuaries (west-flowing), smaller deltas (east-flowing).

    Q5. Compare east- and west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India:

    • East-flowing (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri): Flow into Bay of Bengal, form deltas, longer courses.

    • West-flowing (Narmada, Tapi): Flow into Arabian Sea, form estuaries, shorter courses, swift flow.

    Q6. Why are rivers important for India’s economy?
    → They provide irrigation, hydroelectricity, transport, fisheries, tourism, fertile soil, drinking water. Most Indian agriculture depends on rivers, making them the lifeline of the economy.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the Himalayan river systems.
    → Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra. Long, perennial, joined by tributaries. Indus (2,900 km) with Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj. Ganga (2,500 km) with Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Chambal, Betwa, Son. Brahmaputra (Tsangpo in Tibet, Jamuna in Bangladesh) causes floods, forms Majuli island.

    Q2. Explain the Peninsular river systems.
    → Shorter, seasonal, most flow eastwards into Bay of Bengal forming deltas (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri). West-flowing Narmada & Tapi form estuaries. Other west-flowing: Sabarmati, Mahi, Periyar. Their basins are smaller than Himalayan rivers.

    Q3. Write a note on lakes in India.
    → Natural (Dal, Nainital, Chilika, Wular, Sambhar) and man-made (Bhakra Nangal – Gobind Sagar, Hirakud, Nagarjuna Sagar). Lakes regulate river flow, prevent floods, help irrigation, hydropower, fisheries, recreation, tourism, and biodiversity.

    Q4. Role of rivers in Indian economy.
    → Rivers provide irrigation (agriculture), hydropower (electricity), navigation (transport), tourism (boating, pilgrimages), fishing, and fertile soil for crops. Major cities developed on rivers (Delhi – Yamuna, Kolkata – Hooghly, Varanasi – Ganga).

    Q5. Causes and effects of river pollution in India.
    → Causes: sewage, industrial effluents, agricultural runoff, religious practices. Effects: unsafe water, fish death, ecosystem damage, health hazards. Example: Ganga pollution led to Ganga Action Plan & NRCP.

    MCQs

    • The largest river basin in India is:
      (a) Indus
      (b) Ganga
      (c) Brahmaputra
      (d) Godavari
      Answer: (b) Ganga

    • The Indus River originates near:
      (a) Mt. Everest
      (b) Mt. Kailash
      (c) Lake Mansarovar
      (d) Amarkantak
      Answer: (c) Lake Mansarovar

    • Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet to form the Ganga at:
      (a) Haridwar
      (b) Devaprayag
      (c) Allahabad
      (d) Rishikesh
      Answer: (b) Devaprayag

    • The Yamuna meets the Ganga at:
      (a) Varanasi
      (b) Haridwar
      (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)
      (d) Kanpur
      Answer: (c) Allahabad (Prayagraj)

    • The Brahmaputra is known in Tibet as:
      (a) Tsangpo
      (b) Jamuna
      (c) Dihang
      (d) Lohit
      Answer: (a) Tsangpo

    • The world’s largest delta is:
      (a) Mekong Delta
      (b) Amazon Delta
      (c) Mississippi Delta
      (d) Sundarbans Delta
      Answer: (d) Sundarbans Delta

    • The Narmada river rises from:
      (a) Satpura Hills
      (b) Amarkantak Hills
      (c) Western Ghats
      (d) Himalayas
      Answer: (b) Amarkantak Hills

    • The Tapi river originates from:
      (a) Aravali Hills
      (b) Himalayas
      (c) Satpura Ranges
      (d) Vindhya Ranges
      Answer: (c) Satpura Ranges

    • The Godavari is also called:
      (a) Dakshin Ganga
      (b) Krishna of the South
      (c) Peninsular Lifeline
      (d) Bharat Ganga
      Answer: (a) Dakshin Ganga

    • The largest saltwater lake in India is:
      (a) Sambhar Lake
      (b) Chilika Lake
      (c) Pulicat Lake
      (d) Wular Lake
      Answer: (b) Chilika Lake

    • The Sambhar Lake is located in:
      (a) Uttar Pradesh
      (b) Madhya Pradesh
      (c) Rajasthan
      (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (c) Rajasthan

    • The Wular Lake is situated in:
      (a) Himachal Pradesh
      (b) Jammu & Kashmir
      (c) Assam
      (d) Kerala
      Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir

    • The Shivasamudram waterfall is formed by:
      (a) Krishna River
      (b) Godavari River
      (c) Kaveri River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (c) Kaveri River

    • The longest Peninsular river is:
      (a) Mahanadi
      (b) Krishna
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Kaveri
      Answer: (c) Godavari

    • The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow into the:
      (a) Bay of Bengal
      (b) Arabian Sea
      (c) Indian Ocean
      (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (b) Arabian Sea

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” is:
      (a) Kosi
      (b) Damodar
      (c) Gandak
      (d) Ghaghara
      Answer: (a) Kosi

    • The river known as the “Sorrow of Bengal” is:
      (a) Damodar
      (b) Mahananda
      (c) Subarnarekha
      (d) Hooghly
      Answer: (a) Damodar

    • Majuli, the world’s largest riverine island, is formed by:
      (a) Ganga
      (b) Brahmaputra
      (c) Godavari
      (d) Yamuna
      Answer: (b) Brahmaputra

    • The Indira Gandhi Canal gets its water mainly from:
      (a) Yamuna
      (b) Sutlej
      (c) Beas
      (d) Ravi
      Answer: (b) Sutlej

    • The Hirakud Dam is built on the:
      (a) Godavari River
      (b) Krishna River
      (c) Narmada River
      (d) Mahanadi River
      Answer: (d) Mahanadi

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The area drained by a river system is called a drainage basin.

    2. Elevated area separating basins is a water divide.

    3. Indus Water Treaty (1960) allows India to use 20% of Indus water.

    4. The Ganga’s headwaters are Bhagirathi and Alaknanda.

    5. The Brahmaputra is called Jamuna in Bangladesh.

    6. The Sundarbans delta is home of the Royal Bengal Tiger.

    7. Narmada flows through a rift valley.

    8. The Godavari is also known as Dakshin Ganga.

    9. Wular Lake was formed by tectonic activity.

    10. The National River Conservation Plan began in 1995.

  • Chapter 1: India – Size and Location, Class 9th, Geography, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
    (a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tripura
    Answer: (b) Odisha

    Q2. The easternmost longitude of India is:
    (a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E
    Answer: (a) 97°25′E

    Q3. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
    (a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
    Answer: (c) Nepal

    Q4. If you visit Kavaratti, which Union Territory will you go to?
    (a) Puducherry (b) Lakshadweep (c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Daman and Diu
    Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

    Q5. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
    (a) Bhutan (b) Tajikistan (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
    Answer: (b) Tajikistan

    Q6. Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
    → Lakshadweep Islands.

    Q7. Name the countries which are larger than India.
    → Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia.

    Q8. Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
    → Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

    Q9. Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
    → Sri Lanka and Maldives.

    Q10. Why does the sun rise two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh than Gujarat but watches show the same time?
    → Because of India’s great longitudinal extent (30°). To avoid confusion, 82°30′E (near Mirzapur, UP) is taken as the Standard Meridian, and one uniform IST is followed.

    Q11. Why is India’s central location at the head of the Indian Ocean significant?
    → It gives India a strategic advantage for trade and cultural exchange with West Asia, Africa, and Europe (from west coast) and with Southeast Asia and East Asia (from east coast). India’s location makes it a central hub of ocean routes.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the size and extent of India.
    Answer: India has an area of 3.28 million sq. km, about 2.4% of world’s land area, making it the seventh largest country. The mainland stretches between latitudes 8°4′N and 37°6′N and longitudes 68°7′E and 97°25′E. Its north-south extent is 3,214 km and east-west extent is 2,933 km. India has a land boundary of 15,200 km and coastline of 7,516.6 km. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides the country into almost two halves.

    Q2. Describe India’s neighbours and its political boundaries.
    Answer: India shares boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan (northwest), China, Nepal, Bhutan (north), and Bangladesh and Myanmar (east). Across the sea, India’s neighbours are Sri Lanka and Maldives. In South Asia, India occupies a central position with 28 states and 8 Union Territories. Its vast boundary connects it politically, economically, and culturally with neighbouring countries.

    Q3. How has India’s central location helped in establishing cultural and trade contacts?
    Answer: India’s location between East and West Asia made it a crossroads of trade and culture. Ancient land routes across mountain passes helped exchange of goods, like spices, muslin, and ideas like numerals and the decimal system. Sea routes via the Indian Ocean linked India with Southeast Asia, Africa, and Europe. India influenced and absorbed cultures such as Greek sculpture and West Asian architectural styles, making it a centre of interaction.

    Q4. Discuss the importance of Standard Meridian of India.
    Answer: India’s vast longitudinal spread (30°) causes time differences of about 2 hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. To avoid confusion, 82°30′E longitude (through Mirzapur, UP) is chosen as the Standard Meridian. It ensures uniformity of time across India and is called Indian Standard Time (IST). Without it, time differences would disrupt communication, travel, and administration.

    Q5. Explain how India’s geographical features influence its contacts with the world.
    Answer: The Himalayas in the north provide a natural barrier but also mountain passes for ancient contacts. The long coastline facilitated maritime trade. India’s peninsular location makes it project into the Indian Ocean, linking West Asia, Africa, and Europe with Southeast Asia and East Asia. This strategic location allowed India to play a major role in global trade, culture, and history.

    MCQs

    1. India’s total area is:
      (a) 2.4 million sq. km (b) 3.28 million sq. km (c) 4.5 million sq. km (d) 5.2 million sq. km
      Answer: (b)

    2. India is the ___ largest country in the world.
      (a) 5th (b) 6th (c) 7th (d) 8th
      Answer: (c)

    3. India accounts for about ___ of world’s land area.
      (a) 1.8% (b) 2.4% (c) 3.2% (d) 4%
      Answer: (b)

    4. India’s latitudinal extent is:
      (a) 8°4′N to 37°6′N (b) 6°4′N to 36°6′N (c) 10°N to 38°N (d) 9°N to 37°N
      Answer: (a)

    5. India’s longitudinal extent is:
      (a) 68°7′E to 97°25′E (b) 65°E to 95°E (c) 70°E to 98°E (d) 60°E to 95°E
      Answer: (a)

    6. India’s north-south extent is about:
      (a) 2,933 km (b) 3,214 km (c) 2,500 km (d) 3,500 km
      Answer: (b)

    7. India’s east-west extent is about:
      (a) 2,500 km (b) 3,000 km (c) 2,933 km (d) 3,214 km
      Answer: (c)

    8. India’s land boundary length:
      (a) 12,000 km (b) 13,500 km (c) 15,200 km (d) 16,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    9. India’s coastline length:
      (a) 5,216 km (b) 6,500 km (c) 7,516.6 km (d) 8,200 km
      Answer: (c)

    10. Southernmost point of India is:
      (a) Kanyakumari (b) Indira Point (c) Minicoy (d) Palk Strait
      Answer: (b)

    11. Indira Point submerged during:
      (a) Cyclone 1999 (b) Tsunami 2004 (c) Flood 2013 (d) Earthquake 2015
      Answer: (b)

    12. India’s Standard Meridian is:
      (a) 82°30′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 77°6′E
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which city does Standard Meridian pass through?
      (a) Delhi (b) Allahabad (c) Mirzapur (d) Lucknow
      Answer: (c)

    14. Which sea lies west of India?
      (a) Bay of Bengal (b) Arabian Sea (c) Red Sea (d) Caspian Sea
      Answer: (b)

    15. Which sea lies east of India?
      (a) Mediterranean (b) Caspian (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Red Sea
      Answer: (c)

    16. Sri Lanka is separated from India by:
      (a) Gulf of Khambhat (b) Palk Strait (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Both b & c
      Answer: (d)

    17. Maldives lie to the:
      (a) South of Lakshadweep (b) East of Andamans (c) North of Kanyakumari (d) West of Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    18. India’s central location helped spread:
      (a) Greek numerals (b) Indian numerals & decimal system (c) Roman architecture (d) Chinese language
      Answer: (b)

    19. The Suez Canal reduced India–Europe distance by:
      (a) 5,000 km (b) 6,000 km (c) 7,000 km (d) 8,000 km
      Answer: (c)

    20. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
      (a) 28 states, 8 UTs (b) 29 states, 7 UTs (c) 27 states, 9 UTs (d) 30 states, 6 UTs
      Answer: (a)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India’s total area is 3.28 million sq. km.

    2. India is the 7th largest country in the world.

    3. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30′N) divides India into two halves.

    4. The southernmost point of India is Indira Point.

    5. Indira Point submerged in 2004 Tsunami.

    6. India’s north-south extent is 3,214 km.

    7. India’s east-west extent is 2,933 km.

    8. The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′E.

    9. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar.

    10. India shares land boundaries with 7 countries.

  • Chapter 4: Working of Institutions, Class 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

    • (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister ❌

    • (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has majority in Lok Sabha ❌

    • (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both Houses ✅

    • (d) Nominate leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers ❌

    Q2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

    • (a) District Collector ❌

    • (b) Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs ❌

    • (c) Home Minister ✅

    • (d) Director General of Police ❌

    Q3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
    (a) Every law passed by Parliament needs approval of Supreme Court ❌ (False)
    (b) Judiciary can strike down a law against the Constitution ✅ (True)
    (c) Judiciary is independent of Executive ✅ (True)
    (d) Any citizen can approach courts if rights are violated ✅ (True)
    Answer: (a) is false.

    Q4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
    (a) Supreme Court ❌
    (b) President ❌
    (c) Prime Minister ❌
    (d) Parliament ✅

    Q5. Match the ministry with the news:

    • (a) Increase jute exports → (iv) Ministry of Commerce & Industry

    • (b) Telephone services in rural areas → (v) Ministry of Communications & IT

    • (c) Price of rice/wheat in PDS ↓ → (ii) Ministry of Agriculture, Food & Public Distribution

    • (d) Pulse polio campaign → (iii) Ministry of Health

    • (e) Allowances of soldiers ↑ → (i) Ministry of Defence

    Q6. Institutions and powers:
    a) Allocation of money for development → Parliament
    b) Committee on stock exchange law → Parliament
    c) Dispute between two state governments → Supreme Court
    d) Relief for earthquake victims → Political Executive (Government/Ministry)

    Q7. Why is the Prime Minister not directly elected by people?
    Answer:

    • (a) is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, only leader of majority in Lok Sabha becomes PM.

    • Direct election would be costly and may cause conflict between PM and Parliament.

    • Lok Sabha can remove PM before term ends, so accountability is ensured.

    Q8. Film showing CM ruling for one day:
    Imran → Wrong: one-man rule is dangerous.
    Rizwan → Correct: Personal rule without institutions is harmful.
    Shankar → Also correct: No minister can change everything in one day.

    Q9. Mock Parliament choice – Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?
    Answer: Lok Sabha, because it has greater powers in money matters, controls Council of Ministers, and can dismiss government.

    Q10. Reservation order – students’ views:

    • Srinivas: Wrong, judiciary is independent even if it agreed.

    • Anjaiah: Correct, judiciary showed independence and directed modification.

    • Vijaya: Also reasonable, judiciary acted as mediator.
      Best Answer: Anjaiah’s view is most accurate.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of Parliament in a democracy.
    Answer:
    Parliament is the supreme law-making body. It makes, changes, and abolishes laws. It controls the executive through questions, debates, and no-confidence motions. It controls finances by approving budgets. It is also the highest forum for discussion and debate on national issues. Lok Sabha, being directly elected, holds more power than Rajya Sabha, especially in money matters and government accountability. Parliament thus represents the voice of the people.

    Q2. What are the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India?
    Answer:
    The PM is head of government and leader of majority party in Lok Sabha. He chairs Cabinet meetings, coordinates ministries, settles disputes, and supervises work of ministers. He distributes portfolios and can dismiss ministers. All ministers work under his leadership. The PM represents India internationally and influences party and parliamentary affairs. His power depends on majority strength, coalition politics, and his personality.

    Q3. Distinguish between the political executive and the permanent executive. Why is political executive more powerful?
    Answer:

    • Political executive → Elected representatives like PM, ministers; hold office for limited period.

    • Permanent executive → Civil servants/bureaucrats; work for long term irrespective of government.
      Civil servants have expertise, but ministers take final decisions because they are accountable to people. Ministers reflect the will of the people in democracy, hence they are more powerful.

    Q4. Describe the composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
    Answer:
    The Supreme Court is the apex judicial body. It settles disputes between citizens, between citizens and government, and between governments. It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It has the power of judicial review – it can strike down unconstitutional laws. It protects fundamental rights and allows PILs. Judges are appointed by President in consultation with judiciary, and can be removed only by impeachment. Its independence makes it guardian of the Constitution.

    Q5. Why are political institutions necessary in a democracy?
    Answer:
    Institutions like Parliament, Executive, and Judiciary ensure smooth governance. They divide responsibilities: Parliament makes laws, Executive implements them, Judiciary interprets and checks them. Institutions prevent misuse of power and ensure accountability. They provide space for debate and consultation, making decisions more democratic. Though institutions cause delays, they protect democracy by preventing hasty and unfair decisions.

    MCQs

    1. Which body makes laws in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PM
      Answer: (b)

    2. Who is head of state in India?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Speaker (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    3. Who is head of government in India?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) CJI (d) Governor
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who chairs Cabinet meetings?
      (a) President (b) PM (c) Speaker (d) Vice President
      Answer: (b)

    5. Which House controls money matters?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both equally (d) President
      Answer: (a)

    6. Which House is permanent?
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Who is Supreme Commander of defence forces?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Defence Minister (d) Army Chief
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who appoints judges of Supreme Court?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament (d) CJI alone
      Answer: (b)

    9. Tenure of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (b)

    10. Tenure of Rajya Sabha members:
      (a) 4 yrs (b) 5 yrs (c) 6 yrs (d) 7 yrs
      Answer: (c)

    11. Who can dissolve Lok Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) President (c) PM (d) CJI
      Answer: (b)

    12. Who heads Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Speaker (b) PM (c) Vice President (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    13. Which body can strike down unconstitutional laws?
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    14. Judicial review is power of:
      (a) President (b) Judiciary (c) Parliament (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (b)

    15. Who makes final decisions in ministries?
      (a) Civil servants (b) Ministers (c) Secretaries (d) Courts
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which institution ensures accountability of Executive?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Judiciary (d) Election Commission
      Answer: (a)

    17. PM is appointed by:
      (a) Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who can remove Supreme Court judges?
      (a) PM (b) President (c) Parliament via impeachment (d) Cabinet
      Answer: (c)

    19. “Guardian of Constitution” is:
      (a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) PM (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    20. Parliamentary democracy is also called:
      (a) Presidential govt (b) Cabinet govt (c) Federal govt (d) Dictatorship
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The Parliament is the supreme law-making body in India.

    2. The President of India is the head of state.

    3. The Prime Minister is the head of government.

    4. Lok Sabha has greater power in money matters.

    5. Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.

    6. The President appoints the Prime Minister and judges.

    7. The Supreme Court has power of judicial review.

    8. Political executive is elected, permanent executive is appointed.

    9. Parliament controls finances and approves budgets.

    10. Judiciary protects Fundamental Rights of citizens.

  • Chapter 3: Electoral Politics, 9th, Political Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
    a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government. ✅ True
    b) People select the representative of their choice in an election. ✅ True
    c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary. ❌ False
    d) People can indicate which policies they prefer. ✅ True

    Q2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
    a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. ❌ Not a valid reason.
    b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful. ✅ Valid.
    c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote. ✅ Valid.
    d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict. ✅ Valid.

    Q3. Match the following:

    a) It is necessary to keep the voters’ list up to date → (iv) Some people may have moved away from the area.
    b) Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that → (i) There is fair representation of all sections.
    c) Everyone has one and only one vote so that → (ii) Everyone has equal opportunity to elect.
    d) Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because → (iii) All candidates must have a fair chance.

    Q4. List all election-related activities in sequence.

    1. Making of voters’ list

    2. Announcing election schedule

    3. Filing nominations

    4. Releasing election manifestos

    5. Election campaign

    6. Casting of votes

    7. Counting of votes

    8. Declaration of results

    9. Ordering of repoll (if required)

    Q5. Suppose Surekha is an election officer. What should she focus on?
    a) Election campaign – Ensure parties follow Model Code of Conduct, no bribery or misuse of power.
    b) Polling day – Ensure free and fair voting, no rigging or intimidation, secrecy of ballot maintained.
    c) Counting day – Ensure accurate and transparent counting in presence of agents.

    Q6. Should the US have reservations in Congress?
    Answer: Yes, because Blacks and Hispanics are underrepresented compared to their population. A system of reservation would ensure inclusiveness and fair representation, like India’s SC/ST reservations.

    Q7. Can we draw these conclusions?
    a) ECI does not have enough powers → ❌ Wrong, it has very wide powers.
    b) High participation in elections → ✅ True, turnout in India is higher than many countries.
    c) Easy for ruling party to win → ❌ Wrong, ruling parties often lose.
    d) Many reforms are needed → ✅ True, issues like money power, criminalisation remain.

    Q8. Chinappa and Satbir were disqualified. Does it go against democracy?
    → No, it supports democracy. People guilty of crimes like dowry torture and untouchability should not contest. It ensures clean politics.

    Q9. Reports of malpractices:
    a) Nigeria – Counting manipulation → Learn from India’s independent EC and transparency.
    b) Fiji – Threats to voters → Learn from India’s law against intimidation.
    c) USA – Different state procedures → Learn from India’s uniform nationwide election system.

    Q10. Malpractices in India:
    a) Minister promising aid → Misuse of government position. Correct: Model Code of Conduct enforcement.
    b) Opposition denied media → Bias in coverage. Correct: Ensure equal access.
    c) Fake names in rolls → Flawed voter list. Correct: Regular updates and verification.
    d) Party hoodlums with guns → Violence. Correct: Strong police and EC monitoring.

    Q11. Correct Ramesh’s misconceptions:
    a) Women always vote as told → ❌ Wrong. Women make independent choices.
    b) Elections by consensus, not competition → ❌ Wrong. Competition ensures accountability.
    c) Only graduates should contest → ❌ Wrong. Democracy allows equal opportunity.

    Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent constitutional body that conducts elections. It supervises Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and presidential elections. It ensures free and fair elections by preparing voter lists, monitoring campaigns, enforcing the Model Code of Conduct, and preventing misuse of power. It can order repolls, transfer officials, and punish violators. Its independence is protected by the Constitution, making it a strong guardian of democracy.

    Q2. Describe the election process in India step by step.
    Answer (160 words):

    1. Constituencies are demarcated.

    2. Voters’ list is prepared and updated.

    3. Candidates file nominations with security deposits.

    4. Election campaigns are conducted, parties release manifestos.

    5. Polling takes place using EVMs, voters cast votes secretly.

    6. Counting is done under EC supervision.

    7. Results are declared, winners form government.
      This process ensures participation, fairness, and accountability.

    Q3. What are the major challenges of Indian elections?
    Answer (150 words):

    • Use of money power.

    • Criminalisation of politics.

    • Family dominance in parties.

    • Unequal playing field for independents.

    • Misuse of government resources.
      Despite these, Indian elections remain largely free and fair. Reforms like stricter expenditure limits, banning criminals, and more transparency are needed.

    Q4. Why are elections considered essential in a democracy?
    Answer (150 words):
    Elections are the means through which people choose representatives, change governments, and influence policies. They ensure accountability, equality (one person, one vote), and peaceful transfer of power. Without elections, democracy cannot function. They act as a mechanism for people’s consent and provide legitimacy to the government.

    Q5. “Elections in India are both free and fair but face limitations.” Discuss.
    Answer (160 words):
    Indian elections are largely free and fair due to the independent Election Commission, universal franchise, secret ballot, and regular participation. Ruling parties often lose, showing fairness. However, limitations exist: money power, muscle power, fake voters, and lack of choice. Thus, while the system is democratic, reforms are needed to make it fully fair.

    MCQs

    1. Who conducts elections in India?
      (a) President (b) Parliament (c) Election Commission (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    2. Minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b)

    3. Minimum age to contest elections in India:
      (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30
      Answer: (c)

    4. What is an electoral roll?
      (a) Candidate list (b) Voters’ list (c) Party list (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    5. Lok Sabha constituencies in India:
      (a) 500 (b) 543 (c) 550 (d) 552
      Answer: (b)

    6. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for SCs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 100 (d) 90
      Answer: (a)

    7. Reserved Lok Sabha seats for STs:
      (a) 84 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b)

    8. Model Code of Conduct prevents use of:
      (a) Religion, caste (b) Money, bribery (c) Government resources (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    9. Who can order a repoll?
      (a) Government (b) Election Commission (c) High Court (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which voting system is used in India?
      (a) Open ballot (b) Secret ballot (c) Lottery (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    11. When was EVM first used?
      (a) 1977 (b) 1982 (c) 2004 (d) 1999
      Answer: (b) (Kerala, 1982)

    12. A by-election means:
      (a) National election (b) State election (c) Election for one seat due to vacancy (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    13. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Parliament (d) Judiciary
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which law caps candidate spending in Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Representation of People Act (b) Election Reform Act (c) Parliament Act (d) None
      Answer: (a)

    15. Election day is when voters:
      (a) Count votes (b) Cast votes (c) Campaign (d) File nomination
      Answer: (b)

    16. Independent candidates are given:
      (a) Party ticket (b) Party symbol (c) EC allotted symbol (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    17. “Garibi Hatao” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1967 (b) 1971 (c) 1977 (d) 1980
      Answer: (b)

    18. “Save Democracy” slogan was given in:
      (a) 1977 (b) 1980 (c) 1984 (d) 1991
      Answer: (a)

    19. Which organisation introduced EPIC (Voter ID)?
      (a) EC (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) PMO
      Answer: (a)

    20. Who supervises polling inside booths?
      (a) Police (b) Candidate agents (c) Election officials (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. India has 543 Lok Sabha constituencies.

    2. Election Commission of India conducts elections.

    3. Minimum age to contest elections is 25 years.

    4. The voters’ list is also called the electoral roll.

    5. 84 seats in Lok Sabha are reserved for SCs.

    6. 47 seats are reserved for STs.

    7. The ruling party cannot use government resources for campaigning.

    8. EVMs are used for voting in India.

    9. The process of holding elections in one seat due to vacancy is called by-election.

    10. Model Code of Conduct guides election campaigns.

  • Chapter 1: What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9th, Political Science

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote. Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years. Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections. Country D: There is no independent Election Commission. Classify them.
    Answer:

    • Country A – Undemocratic (excludes people on religious basis).

    • Country B – Not sure (could be democratic, but repeated wins may hint unfairness).

    • Country C – Democratic (shows ruling party can lose).

    • Country D – Undemocratic (elections not free and fair).

    Q2. Country P: Parliament cannot pass a law about the army without army chief’s consent. Country Q: Parliament cannot pass a law reducing judiciary’s powers. Country R: Leaders cannot sign treaties without neighbouring country’s permission. Country S: Economic decisions are taken only by central bank officials. Classify.
    Answer:

    • Country P – Undemocratic (army controls government).

    • Country Q – Democratic (judiciary’s independence is protected).

    • Country R – Undemocratic (loss of sovereignty).

    • Country S – Not sure (technical experts may decide, but ministers must remain accountable).

    Q3. Which of these is not a good argument for democracy?
    a) People feel free and equal
    b) Democracies resolve conflict better
    c) Democratic government is more accountable
    d) Democracies are more prosperous
    Answer: (d) Democracies are not always more prosperous than others.

    Q4. Separate democratic and undemocratic elements in the statements:
    a) WTO requires laws – Undemocratic; Parliament passes laws – Democratic.
    b) Re-polling ordered – Democratic; Rigging happened – Undemocratic.
    c) Women’s demand for 1/3 seats – Democratic; Only 10% women present – Undemocratic.

    Q5. Which is not a valid reason that famines are less likely in democracy?
    Answer: (d) People are free to believe in any religion. (Religion is unrelated to famine.)

    Q6. Villagers without drinking water used methods to pressure government. Which is not democratic?
    Answer: (d) Paying bribes to officials.

    Q7. Write responses to arguments against democracy:
    a) Army rule is better – Wrong, because armies are not accountable to people.
    b) Rule of majority = ignorant rule – Wrong, democracy respects equality and collective wisdom.
    c) Religious leaders should rule – Wrong, politics mixed with religion excludes others and becomes undemocratic.

    Q8. Are these statements democratic?
    a) Father denies daughter’s opinion – Undemocratic.
    b) Teacher stops student’s questions – Undemocratic.
    c) Employee demands legal working hours – Democratic.

    Q9. A country with elections, but loans dictate policy, only one language used, leaders arrested, and press censored. Is it a democracy?
    Answer: No, because despite elections, freedom, equality, and rights are denied.

    Q10. Write an essay on Democracy and Poverty (based on US & Indian examples).
    Answer (short):
    Democracy allows participation, but poverty often limits it. In the US, wealthier people influence politics more. In India too, the poor struggle to make their voices heard. Yet democracy gives the poor opportunities through elections, protests, and court petitions. Democracy must reduce inequality to be meaningful.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain four major features of democracy with examples.
    Answer:

    1. Elected rulers – Leaders chosen by citizens (India, not Myanmar under military).

    2. Free and fair elections – Real choice of parties (India vs. China’s one-party rule).

    3. One person, one vote, one value – Universal adult franchise (India vs. Fiji’s unequal votes).

    4. Rule of law and rights – Leaders bound by Constitution and rights (Zimbabwe lacked this).

    Q2. Why is democracy considered the best form of government?
    Answer:

    • Ensures accountability of rulers.

    • Improves decision-making through consultation.

    • Peacefully resolves conflicts in diverse societies.

    • Enhances dignity of citizens.

    • Allows correction of mistakes.

    Q3. Explain any five arguments against democracy. Do you agree?
    Answer:

    1. Frequent changes cause instability.

    2. Decision-making is slow.

    3. Leaders may lack knowledge.

    4. Corruption due to elections.

    5. Ordinary people may not know best.
      While these are challenges, they can be improved within democracy. Other forms like dictatorship remove freedom and accountability, so democracy is still better.

    Q4. Distinguish between a democracy and dictatorship with examples.
    Answer:

    • Rulers: Elected by people in democracy (India), by force in dictatorship (Hitler’s Germany).

    • Elections: Free and fair in democracy, sham in dictatorship.

    • Rights: Citizens enjoy freedom in democracy; restricted in dictatorship.

    • Accountability: Governments answerable to people in democracy, not in dictatorship.

    Q5. “Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.” Explain.
    Answer:
    In democracy, every citizen has equal status regardless of wealth or education. People are rulers of their own destiny, not subjects of a monarch. This equality enhances dignity. Even the poorest voter’s choice counts as much as the richest. Citizens participate in decision-making and can criticise or replace leaders, which gives them self-respect.

    MCQs

    1. The word democracy comes from Greek words meaning:
      (a) Rule by law (b) Rule by the people (c) Rule by king (d) Rule by priests
      Answer: (b)

    2. In Pakistan, power rested finally with:
      (a) Parliament (b) General Musharraf (c) People (d) Supreme Court
      Answer: (b)

    3. Elections in China are held every:
      (a) 3 years (b) 5 years (c) 10 years (d) 6 years
      Answer: (b)

    4. PRI dominated elections in which country till 2000?
      (a) Mexico (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka
      Answer: (a)

    5. Women got voting rights in Saudi Arabia only after:
      (a) 1950 (b) 2000 (c) 2015 (d) 1995
      Answer: (c)

    6. In Fiji, whose votes had more value?
      (a) Indian-Fijians (b) Indigenous Fijians (c) Women (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    7. Robert Mugabe ruled which country?
      (a) Zambia (b) Zimbabwe (c) South Africa (d) Nigeria
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which feature ensures equality in democracy?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Universal adult franchise (c) Federalism (d) Elections
      Answer: (b)

    9. In democracy, rulers must:
      (a) Be nominated by king (b) Be elected by people (c) Be chosen by army (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which body ensures constitutional limits on government?
      (a) Army (b) Judiciary (c) Police (d) Media
      Answer: (b)

    11. Democracy in India is:
      (a) Direct (b) Representative (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
      Answer: (b)

    12. The famine in China (1958–61) showed failure of:
      (a) Dictatorship (b) Democracy (c) Army (d) Market
      Answer: (a)

    13. Which argument is NOT valid for democracy?
      (a) Provides dignity (b) Ensures accountability (c) More prosperous (d) Resolves conflicts
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who said democracy is “government of the people, by the people, for the people”?
      (a) Lincoln (b) Aristotle (c) Plato (d) Gandhi
      Answer: (a)

    15. In democracy, people are:
      (a) Subjects (b) Rulers themselves (c) Slaves (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    16. Which feature of democracy protects minorities?
      (a) Rule of law (b) Free elections (c) Equality of vote (d) Consultation & constitutional limits
      Answer: (d)

    17. Which is NOT an example of free and fair elections?
      (a) China’s one-party system
      (b) India’s multi-party elections
      (c) Mexico post-2000 elections
      (d) USA elections
      Answer: (a)

    18. Which feature distinguishes democracy from monarchy?
      (a) King rules by birth (b) Rulers elected by people (c) Both a & b (d) None
      Answer: (c)

    19. The principle “one person, one vote, one value” is linked to:
      (a) Equality (b) Liberty (c) Justice (d) Sovereignty
      Answer: (a)

    20. Democracy allows correction of:
      (a) Natural disasters (b) Its own mistakes (c) Poverty automatically (d) None
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Democracy means rule by the people.

    2. In Pakistan, General Musharraf held power through a coup.

    3. Elections in China allow only the Communist Party candidates.

    4. The PRI ruled Mexico continuously till 2000.

    5. Universal adult franchise means one person, one vote, one value.

    6. Robert Mugabe was the leader of Zimbabwe.

    7. Democracy ensures rule of law and citizens’ rights.

    8. The Judiciary protects fundamental rights.

    9. The famine in China killed nearly 3 crore people.

    10. Abraham Lincoln gave the famous definition of democracy.

  • Chapter 7: Factors of Production, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. How are the factors of production different from each other? What are the difficulties you faced in classifying the factors of production in the exercise given in-text?
    Answer:
    Factors of production differ in nature:

    • Land: Natural resources like soil, water, minerals.

    • Labour: Human effort, both physical and mental.

    • Capital: Man-made resources like tools, machinery, and money.

    • Entrepreneurship: The initiative to organise the other three factors.

    Difficulties: Some resources overlap. For example, technology can be classified as capital, but it also acts as a facilitator. Similarly, knowledge belongs to labour but is also counted under human capital.

    Q2. How does human capital differ from physical capital?
    Answer:

    • Human capital: Knowledge, skills, health, and abilities of people that make them productive.

    • Physical capital: Tangible assets like machinery, tools, and buildings.
      Human capital cannot be seen or touched but is vital for using physical capital effectively. Without skilled workers, machines remain underutilised.

    Q3. How do you think technology is changing how people develop their skills and knowledge?
    Answer:
    Technology has transformed learning and skill development by:

    • Providing online courses (like SWAYAM, MOOCs).

    • Offering virtual training and simulations for jobs.

    • Allowing access to global resources via the internet.

    • Helping people upgrade skills flexibly while working.
      Thus, technology has made knowledge more accessible, affordable, and widespread.

    Q4. If you could learn one skill today, what would it be and why?
    Answer (sample):
    If I could learn one skill, it would be coding. Coding is important in today’s digital world. It opens opportunities in jobs like app development, robotics, and artificial intelligence. Learning coding would also help me solve real-life problems with technology and keep pace with modern innovations.

    Q5. Do you think entrepreneurship is the ‘driving force’ of production? Why or why not?
    Answer:
    Yes, entrepreneurship is the driving force because entrepreneurs bring together land, labour, and capital to create goods and services. They take risks, make decisions, and innovate to solve problems. Without entrepreneurship, the other factors remain unused or poorly utilised. However, entrepreneurship needs support like finance, skills, and favourable policies.

    Q6. Can technology replace other factors like labour? Is this good or bad? Support your answer with the help of an example.
    Answer:
    Technology can replace some labour, e.g., machines harvesting crops instead of farmers. This increases efficiency but can reduce jobs. However, technology also creates new opportunities, such as software development or drone operation. Thus, it is both good and bad—good for productivity but challenging for employment unless workers upgrade skills.

    Q7. How do education and skill training affect human capital? Can they substitute for each other, or do they complement each other?
    Answer:
    Education builds knowledge, while skill training develops practical abilities. They complement each other because:

    • Education provides theory, training provides application.

    • Both are needed for a productive workforce.
      For example, a doctor requires medical education (theory) and hospital training (practice). They cannot substitute for each other.

    Q8. Imagine you want to start a business that produces steel water bottles. What kind of inputs are needed? How would you obtain them? Suppose one of the factors is missing; what happens to your business operations?
    Answer:
    Inputs needed:

    • Land (factory space),

    • Labour (skilled workers),

    • Capital (machines, money),

    • Entrepreneurship (to organise).

    If any factor is missing:

    • No land → no place for production.

    • No labour → machines remain unused.

    • No capital → cannot buy raw materials.

    • No entrepreneurship → no vision to run the business.
      Thus, all factors are interconnected and essential.

    Q9. Interview an entrepreneur or founder to understand their motivation to start a business and the opportunities and challenges they saw.
    Answer (sample):
    I interviewed a bakery owner. She said her motivation was her love for baking and demand for fresh bread in the area. Opportunities included a growing customer base and scope for online delivery. Challenges were lack of funds, rising raw material costs, and competition. Her success came from innovation (unique cakes) and good customer service.

    Q10. Think like an economist. Suppose you are Ratna (restaurant owner). How would you handle these situations?

    • Rent doubles: Shift to a cheaper place or raise prices slightly.

    • Worker quits: Hire a replacement quickly or distribute tasks temporarily.

    • Loan for new technology: Invest in modern kitchen equipment to improve quality and efficiency.

    • New restaurant nearby: Improve service, maintain quality, and innovate with new dishes.

    • Ease of business laws: Advocate for simpler licensing and lower taxes to help small businesses grow.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Name the four main factors of production.
      → Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneurship.

    2. What is human capital?
      → Skills, knowledge, and health of people that make them productive.

    3. Give one example of capital.
      → Machinery in a factory.

    4. Who is called an entrepreneur?
      → A person who takes risks, innovates, and organises factors of production.

    5. Name two facilitators of human capital.
      → Education and healthcare.

    🔹 Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the interdependence of factors of production with suitable examples.
    Answer (150 words):
    All factors of production—land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship—are interdependent. For example, in agriculture, land is required for farming, labour for cultivation, capital for tractors, and entrepreneurship to manage resources. In industries, machines (capital) cannot function without skilled workers (labour). Similarly, an entrepreneur cannot succeed without land, funds, and skilled people. Modern technology further links all these factors by increasing efficiency. If one factor is missing, production suffers. Hence, production is a teamwork of all factors.

    Q2. Discuss the role of human capital in production.
    Answer (150 words):
    Human capital refers to the skills, knowledge, health, and abilities of people. It is the most important factor because it decides how effectively land, labour, and capital are used. For example, skilled farmers produce more from the same land than unskilled ones. Engineers use machines more productively than untrained workers. Education, training, and healthcare improve human capital, making workers efficient. Without healthy and educated people, machines and resources remain underutilised. Thus, human capital drives innovation, productivity, and economic growth.

    Q3. “Entrepreneurship is the engine of economic growth.” Justify this statement.
    Answer (160 words):
    Entrepreneurship is the driving force of production because entrepreneurs take risks and combine land, labour, and capital to produce goods and services. They innovate by creating new products and services that improve people’s lives. For example, J.R.D. Tata built industries in steel, airlines, and automobiles, contributing to India’s development. Entrepreneurs also create jobs, support supply chains, and generate income for society. They promote competition, efficiency, and global trade. Without entrepreneurship, resources remain idle, and economic growth slows. Thus, entrepreneurship acts as the engine of growth.

    MCQs

    1. Which is not a factor of production?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Money spent in markets
      Answer: (d)

    2. Human capital refers to:
      (a) Machines (b) Money (c) Skills and knowledge (d) Raw materials
      Answer: (c)

    3. Which factor of production is called “nature’s gift”?
      (a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (a)

    4. Who among the following is an entrepreneur?
      (a) Worker (b) Factory owner (c) Innovator taking risks (d) Engineer only
      Answer: (c)

    5. Which of these is physical capital?
      (a) Education (b) Healthcare (c) Machines (d) Training
      Answer: (c)

    6. Who was the founder of Air India?
      (a) Tata Sons (b) J.R.D. Tata (c) Birla (d) Narayana Murthy
      Answer: (b)

    7. Which system trains people in specific job skills?
      (a) Education (b) Training (c) Culture (d) Motivation
      Answer: (b)

    8. Which country applies the concept of kaizen for continuous improvement?
      (a) India (b) China (c) Japan (d) Germany
      Answer: (c)

    9. Which resource includes soil, forests, and minerals?
      (a) Labour (b) Land (c) Capital (d) Entrepreneurship
      Answer: (b)

    10. SWAYAM platform is used for:
      (a) Banking (b) Online courses (c) Farming (d) Trading
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship are the main factors of production.

    2. Skills, knowledge, and health are part of human capital.

    3. Machines and tools are examples of physical capital.

    4. Entrepreneurs are the risk-takers and organisers.

    5. J.R.D. Tata received the Bharat Ratna in 1992.

    6. The Japanese concept of continuous improvement is called kaizen.

    7. The Great Famine of 1876–78 showed the dangers of poor agricultural systems.

    8. Online courses under the Government are available on SWAYAM.

    9. The Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha.

    10. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) became mandatory in 2014.

    True/False

    1. Land includes natural resources like water, soil, and minerals. ✅

    2. Human capital and physical capital mean the same thing. ❌

    3. Entrepreneurs only work for profit. ❌

    4. Technology can act as a facilitator of production. ✅

    5. SWAYAM is an online education platform. ✅

    6. Capital includes both money and man-made resources. ✅

    7. Kaizen refers to a German work ethic. ❌ (It is Japanese)

    8. India is the world’s largest mobile phone manufacturer. ❌ (Second after China)

    9. CSR requires companies to spend part of their profits on social activities. ✅

    10. A healthy and skilled population increases productivity. ✅

  • Chapter 6: The Parliamentary System – Legislature and Executive, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Find out how many representatives from your state are in each House of the Parliament.
    Answer:
    The number of representatives from each state in the Lok Sabha depends on its population. For example:

    • Uttar Pradesh has the maximum with 80 Lok Sabha MPs.

    • Smaller states like Sikkim, Nagaland, and Mizoram have 1 Lok Sabha MP each.

    • In the Rajya Sabha, representation is also based on population. For example, Uttar Pradesh sends 31 members, while smaller states like Goa send 1 member.
      (Students must check their own state’s Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha representation for the most accurate number.)

    Q2. What makes the Indian Parliament the “voice of the people”? How does it ensure that different opinions are heard?
    Answer:
    The Indian Parliament is called the “voice of the people” because it directly represents citizens through their elected members. Every citizen above 18 years votes to elect MPs, who then speak for them in Parliament. Different political parties, regional groups, and communities are represented. Parliamentary debates, Question Hour, and committees allow diverse opinions to be discussed before decisions are made. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs ensures even marginalised groups are heard. This inclusiveness makes Parliament a true reflection of India’s diversity.

    Q3. Why do you think the Constitution made the Executive responsible to the Legislature?
    Answer:
    The Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) is responsible to the Legislature (Lok Sabha) to ensure accountability. Since the Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people, making the Executive answerable to it means the government must work according to the people’s will. Mechanisms like Question Hour, motions of no-confidence, and committee reports ensure that ministers explain and justify their actions. This prevents misuse of power and keeps democracy healthy.

    Q4. Why do you think we have chosen the system of bicameral legislature at the Union level?
    Answer:
    India has a bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to balance representation and ensure better law-making.

    • The Lok Sabha represents people directly.

    • The Rajya Sabha represents the states and ensures their interests are not ignored.
      This system provides checks and balances, prevents hasty decisions, and reflects India’s federal structure. Two houses also allow for deeper debates and review of bills before they become law.

    Q5. Track the journey of a recent bill passed by the Parliament.
    Answer (example: Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023):

    • Introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Lok Sabha on 20 September 2023.

    • Debated and passed in the Rajya Sabha on 21 September 2023.

    • Sent to the President for assent and became law shortly after.
      This bill reserved 33% of seats for women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies. The journey shows how bills are introduced, debated in both houses, and require presidential assent before becoming law.

    Q6. Why might it have taken over 25 years for the Women’s Reservation Bill to be passed, despite wide support?
    Answer:
    The Women’s Reservation Bill was first introduced in 1996 but faced repeated delays due to:

    • Lack of consensus among political parties.

    • Debates about sub-reservation for women from OBC and minority communities.

    • Political hesitation, as many leaders feared losing their constituencies.
      Only in 2023, after decades of discussions, was there enough agreement to pass it. This shows that even popular reforms take time because Parliament must balance many different interests.

    Q7. Sometimes Parliament is disrupted and does not function for the number of days it is supposed to. What impact does this have?
    Answer:
    Disruptions reduce the productivity of Parliament. Important bills get delayed or passed without proper debate. People lose trust in their representatives, as time and taxpayer money are wasted. Healthy discussions, which are the essence of democracy, are lost. This weakens the quality of laws and prevents Parliament from being the true “voice of the people.”

    Q8. What is the role that the Judiciary plays in Indian democracy? What could happen if we didn’t have an independent judiciary?
    Answer:
    The Judiciary interprets laws, protects Fundamental Rights, and checks the powers of the Legislature and Executive. It ensures that government actions follow the Constitution. Without an independent judiciary, there would be no safeguard against misuse of power, corruption, or violation of rights. Democracy would collapse into dictatorship.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. What is a bicameral legislature?
      → A system with two houses, e.g., Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

    2. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
      → The Speaker.

    3. Who is the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha?
      → The Vice President of India.

    4. What is Question Hour?
      → The first hour of a Parliamentary session when MPs question ministers about government policies.

    5. What is a Money Bill?
      → A bill related to taxation or government expenditure that can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the law-making process in the Indian Parliament.
    Answer (150–170 words):
    A law begins as a bill. It can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, except a Money Bill which can only start in the Lok Sabha.

    1. The bill is introduced and goes through its first reading.

    2. It is then debated and discussed clause by clause.

    3. It may be referred to a standing committee for detailed study.

    4. After discussion, it is put to vote.

    5. If passed, the bill moves to the other House where the process is repeated.

    6. After both houses pass it, the bill goes to the President for assent.
      Once signed, it becomes a law and is published in the Gazette of India.

    This process ensures thorough scrutiny, debate, and accountability, reflecting the democratic spirit of Parliament.

    Q2. Compare the Legislature and the Executive in India.
    Answer (150–160 words):
    The Legislature (Parliament) makes laws, while the Executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) implements them.

    • Composition: The Legislature consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The Executive consists of the President, Vice President, and Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister.

    • Role: The Legislature debates, passes laws, and controls finances. The Executive runs the government, enforces laws, and prepares policies.

    • Accountability: The Executive is responsible to the Lok Sabha and must answer questions or face a no-confidence motion.

    • Checks: The Legislature monitors the Executive through Question Hour and committees, while the Executive introduces most bills.

    Thus, while both are interconnected, the Legislature represents the people and checks the Executive, ensuring democratic balance.

    Q3. What challenges does the Indian Parliament face today? Suggest measures to overcome them.
    Answer (150–180 words):
    Challenges include frequent disruptions, low productivity, absenteeism of MPs, and poor quality of debates. Many bills are rushed without proper discussion. Another challenge is the presence of MPs with criminal cases, which reduces public trust. Excessive influence of money and power in elections also affects representation.

    Measures:

    • Strict rules against disruptions and stronger enforcement by the Speaker/Chairman.

    • Encouraging MPs to attend and participate in debates.

    • Ensuring pre-legislative consultations and referring more bills to committees.

    • Banning candidates with serious criminal charges.

    • Strengthening transparency and public involvement.

    By tackling these issues, Parliament can truly become the voice of the people and a model of democratic governance.

    MCQs

    1. The Indian Parliament consists of:
      (a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
      (b) President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      (c) President and Lok Sabha only
      (d) Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
      Answer: (b)

    2. The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is:
      (a) Vice President
      (b) Prime Minister
      (c) Speaker
      (d) President
      Answer: (c)

    3. The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Vice President
      (c) President
      (d) Deputy Speaker
      Answer: (b)

    4. A Money Bill can be introduced only in:
      (a) Lok Sabha
      (b) Rajya Sabha
      (c) Either House
      (d) State Assembly
      Answer: (a)

    5. Who gives assent to bills passed by Parliament?
      (a) Prime Minister
      (b) Speaker
      (c) President
      (d) Chief Justice
      Answer: (c)

    6. Which article provides for Parliament?
      (a) Article 50
      (b) Article 79
      (c) Article 100
      (d) Article 356
      Answer: (b)

    7. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 500
      (b) 550
      (c) 552
      (d) 600
      Answer: (c) 552

    8. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is:
      (a) 250
      (b) 245
      (c) 260
      (d) 270
      Answer: (a) 250

    9. The term of Lok Sabha is:
      (a) 4 years
      (b) 5 years
      (c) 6 years
      (d) 3 years
      Answer: (b)

    10. The Rajya Sabha is also called:
      (a) Upper House
      (b) Permanent House
      (c) House of States
      (d) All of these
      Answer: (d)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552.

    2. The Vice President of India is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

    3. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

    4. The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha sessions.

    5. The Question Hour is the first hour of a Parliamentary session.

    6. The President must give assent before a bill becomes law.

    7. The Rajya Sabha represents the states of India.

    8. Lal Bahadur Shastri resigned as Railway Minister in 1956, showing moral responsibility.

    9. India’s Parliament is based on the British model.

    10. The Judiciary ensures checks and balances in democracy.

    True/False

    1. The Lok Sabha is also called the House of the People. ✅

    2. Rajya Sabha members are elected directly by the citizens. ❌

    3. The President is the real executive authority of India. ❌

    4. The Prime Minister is the de facto head of the Executive. ✅

    5. Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. ❌

    6. Money Bills can be introduced in either House. ❌

    7. The Speaker presides over the Rajya Sabha. ❌

    8. Judiciary protects the Constitution and citizens’ rights. ✅

    9. Disruptions in Parliament increase its productivity. ❌

    10. Question Hour ensures accountability of the Executive. ✅

  • Chapter 5: Universal Franchise and India’s Electoral System, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Why is universal adult franchise important for a healthy democracy?
    Answer:
    Universal adult franchise means that every citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote, regardless of caste, gender, religion, income, or education. It is important because:

    • It ensures equality, giving everyone an equal voice in choosing representatives.

    • It allows people to decide their future by electing leaders of their choice.

    • It makes representatives accountable to all citizens, not just the wealthy or powerful.

    • It strengthens participation and civic engagement, making democracy inclusive.

    Q2. What is the meaning of ‘secret ballot’? Why is this important in a democracy?
    Answer:
    A secret ballot means that no one can know whom a voter has voted for. Each person votes privately inside a booth.
    It is important because:

    • It protects voters from pressure, fear, or bribery.

    • It ensures free choice, as people can vote honestly without influence.

    • It upholds the principle of fairness and strengthens trust in democracy.

    Q3. Give examples of direct and indirect elections.
    Answer:

    • Direct elections: Voters elect representatives directly. Examples: Lok Sabha elections, State Legislative Assembly elections, local body elections.

    • Indirect elections: Representatives are elected by already elected members. Examples: Rajya Sabha elections (by MLAs), President of India (by MPs and MLAs), Vice President of India (by MPs).

    Q4. How is the election of members to the Lok Sabha different from that to the Rajya Sabha?
    Answer:

    • Lok Sabha: Members are elected directly by the people through universal adult franchise, using the first-past-the-post system.

    • Rajya Sabha: Members are elected indirectly by MLAs of state assemblies through a single transferable votesystem. The President also nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

    Q5. What, in your view, are the advantages of the EVM over paper ballots?
    Answer:

    • Faster counting and quicker results.

    • Reduces invalid or spoiled votes.

    • Portable and less costly than printing large numbers of ballot papers.

    • Helps reduce election fraud like multiple voting.

    • Environment-friendly as it saves paper.

    Q6. Voter turnout has been declining in some urban areas of India. What could be the reasons for this trend, and what steps can be taken to encourage more people to vote?
    Answer:
    Reasons:

    • Urban apathy and busy lifestyles.

    • Lack of trust in candidates.

    • Migration and not updating voter ID.

    • Belief that one vote makes no difference.

    Steps:

    • Voter awareness campaigns.

    • Simplifying voter registration.

    • Use of technology like online registration, voter helplines.

    • Ensuring easy access to polling booths.

    • Encouraging youth and first-time voters.

    Q7. Why do you think a proportion of seats in the Lok Sabha is reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes? Write a short note.
    Answer:
    Reservation of seats for SCs and STs ensures fair representation of historically marginalised groups in Parliament. It prevents their exclusion from decision-making. Out of 543 Lok Sabha seats, 84 are reserved for SCs and 47 for STs. This promotes equality, social justice, and inclusiveness, strengthening democracy.

    Q8. Social media is changing the way we experience elections. Is this strengthening democracy or confusing it?
    Answer:

    • Benefits: Increases youth participation, spreads awareness quickly, provides direct connection between leaders and citizens.

    • Challenges: Fake news, misinformation, divisive propaganda, and emotional manipulation.

    • Future: Social media will remain important, but strong fact-checking and digital literacy are needed to ensure it strengthens democracy instead of confusing voters.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. What is universal adult franchise?
      → Every citizen above 18 has the right to vote without discrimination.

    2. When was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18?
      → In 1988, by the 61st Constitutional Amendment.

    3. Who conducts elections in India?
      → The Election Commission of India (ECI).

    4. What is NOTA?
      → “None of the Above” option for rejecting all candidates.

    5. Who was T.N. Seshan?
      → Chief Election Commissioner (1990–96) who introduced strict reforms for free and fair elections.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the role and functions of the Election Commission of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The Election Commission of India (ECI), established in 1950, is an independent constitutional body. It ensures free and fair elections in India. Its main functions are:

    • Conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President.

    • Preparing and updating the voter list.

    • Registering political parties and monitoring their activities.

    • Enforcing the Model Code of Conduct to ensure fair campaigning.

    • Using technology such as EVMs and VVPATs to make elections efficient.

    • Introducing reforms like voter ID cards to prevent fraud.
      Through its impartial functioning, the ECI is called the “guardian of democracy” in India.

    Q2. Describe the process of electing the President of India.
    Answer (150 words):
    The President of India is not elected directly by the people. Instead, an Electoral College elects the President. This includes:

    • Elected members of both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

    • Elected members of all state and UT legislative assemblies (Delhi and Puducherry).

    Nominated MPs, MLAs, and members of Legislative Councils do not participate.
    The single transferable vote system is used, where voters rank candidates by preference. This ensures proportional representation and that the President has the support of both central and state legislatures.
    The President is elected for 5 years. This indirect election reflects India’s federal structure and ensures that the President represents the entire nation, not just one section of people.

    Q3. What are the main challenges faced by India’s electoral system? Suggest solutions.
    Answer (150–170 words):
    India’s electoral system, the largest in the world, faces several challenges:

    1. Use of money and muscle power – Candidates spend heavily on campaigns, and sometimes criminals contest elections.

    2. Voter apathy – Especially in urban areas, many people do not vote.

    3. Misinformation and fake news – Social media spreads rumours and propaganda.

    4. Booth capturing or vote buying – Though reduced, some malpractice still exists.

    5. Low awareness – Many voters lack knowledge about candidates and their rights.

    Solutions:

    • Strict laws to limit election expenditure and ban candidates with criminal records.

    • Stronger role of the Election Commission in monitoring campaigns.

    • Use of technology like online awareness drives and EVM-VVPAT systems.

    • Voter education campaigns in schools, colleges, and through media.

    • Making voting easier with postal ballots for migrants and digital tools.

    By empowering voters and strengthening institutions, India can safeguard its democracy.

    MCQs

    1. The minimum age to vote in India is:
      (a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 25
      Answer: (b) 18

    2. When was the voting age reduced to 18?
      (a) 1947 (b) 1988 (c) 2001 (d) 1950
      Answer: (b) 1988

    3. Which Article of the Constitution provides for universal franchise?
      (a) 326 (b) 356 (c) 370 (d) 124
      Answer: (a) 326

    4. Who conducts Lok Sabha elections?
      (a) Parliament (b) President (c) Election Commission of India (d) Prime Minister
      Answer: (c)

    5. The Rajya Sabha is also called:
      (a) House of People (b) Permanent House (c) Upper House (d) Both b and c
      Answer: (d)

    6. How many seats are there in Lok Sabha?
      (a) 250 (b) 433 (c) 543 (d) 545
      Answer: (c) 543

    7. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for SCs?
      (a) 47 (b) 70 (c) 84 (d) 100
      Answer: (c) 84

    8. How many Lok Sabha seats are reserved for STs?
      (a) 25 (b) 47 (c) 60 (d) 75
      Answer: (b) 47

    9. Who was India’s first Chief Election Commissioner?
      (a) Sukumar Sen (b) T.N. Seshan (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) S. Radhakrishnan
      Answer: (a) Sukumar Sen

    10. Which system is used for Rajya Sabha elections?
      (a) First-past-the-post (b) Single transferable vote (c) Lottery (d) Open ballot
      Answer: (b)

    11. Which electoral option allows voters to reject all candidates?
      (a) VVPAT (b) MCC (c) NOTA (d) Proxy vote
      Answer: (c)

    12. Which year saw India’s first general elections?
      (a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1951–52 (d) 1957
      Answer: (c)

    13. Who enforces the Model Code of Conduct?
      (a) Parliament (b) Political parties (c) Election Commission of India (d) High Court
      Answer: (c)

    14. Who nominates 12 members of Rajya Sabha?
      (a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Chief Justice (d) Lok Sabha Speaker
      Answer: (b)

    15. What is the term of Rajya Sabha members?
      (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) Permanent
      Answer: (c) 6 years

    16. Who was known for strict election reforms in the 1990s?
      (a) T.N. Seshan (b) Sukumar Sen (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Morarji Desai
      Answer: (a)

    17. Which body supervises panchayat elections?
      (a) Election Commission of India (b) State Election Commissions (c) Parliament (d) High Courts
      Answer: (b)

    18. Which voting technology lets voters verify their vote on paper?
      (a) EVM (b) VVPAT (c) MCC (d) NOTA
      Answer: (b)

    19. The President of India is elected by:
      (a) People directly (b) Parliament only (c) MPs and MLAs in Electoral College (d) Only MPs
      Answer: (c)

    20. The Vice President of India is elected by:
      (a) People directly (b) MPs of both Houses (c) MLAs only (d) President
      Answer: (b)

    21. The Lok Sabha elections use which voting system?
      (a) Proportional representation (b) Lottery system (c) First-past-the-post (d) Preferential voting
      Answer: (c)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 to 18 in 1988.

    2. Article 326 guarantees universal adult franchise.

    3. The Election Commission of India was established in 1950.

    4. India’s first general elections were held in 1951–52.

    5. The Rajya Sabha is also called the Permanent House.

    6. The Model Code of Conduct was first adopted in Kerala in 1960.

    7. T.N. Seshan was a famous Chief Election Commissioner.

    8. There are 543 constituencies in Lok Sabha.

    9. Out of these, 84 are reserved for SCs and 47 for STs.

    10. The voting system used in Lok Sabha elections is called first-past-the-post.

    True/False

    1. India granted women voting rights from the beginning. ✅

    2. Rajya Sabha members are directly elected by people. ❌

    3. The Election Commission of India is an independent body. ✅

    4. Lok Sabha elections use the single transferable vote system. ❌

    5. NOTA allows voters to reject all candidates. ✅

    6. The President is elected by an Electoral College of MPs and MLAs. ✅

    7. The Vice President is directly elected by citizens. ❌

    8. EVMs are slower than paper ballots. ❌

    9. The first Chief Election Commissioner was Sukumar Sen. ✅

    10. T.N. Seshan introduced voter ID cards. ✅

  • Chapter-3-The Rise of the Marathas, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Analyse how geography (particularly mountains and coastlines) guided Maratha military strategy and state formation.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    The geography of Maharashtra shaped Maratha strategy and power. The rugged Western Ghats and Deccan hills provided natural fort locations like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad, which became centres of resistance. These forts were difficult for larger Mughal and Sultanate armies to capture, giving the Marathas safe bases. Dense forests and valleys allowed them to adopt guerrilla warfare—attacking with speed, surprise, and knowledge of terrain. The long Konkan coastline gave Shivaji access to trade and resources. Recognising the importance of naval security, he built a navy and coastal forts such as Sindhudurg to resist European naval power. Thus, geography gave the Marathas both defence and mobility, helping them survive against stronger empires and expand their rule.

    Q2. Imagine you are creating a short biography of a Maratha leader for younger students. Choose one personality (Kanhoji Angre, Bajirao I, Mahadji Shinde, Ahilyabai Holkar or Tarabai) and write 3–4 paragraphs highlighting what makes them inspirational. Include at least one challenge they overcame.
    Answer (Ahilyabai Holkar, ~150 words):
    Ahilyabai Holkar was one of the most remarkable women rulers in Indian history. Born in 1725, she became queen of Malwa after the death of her husband and son. Despite personal tragedies, she ruled wisely for over 30 years from Indore.
    Her biggest challenge was maintaining peace and prosperity in a time of political instability after the decline of Mughal power. She overcame this by ensuring fair administration, promoting agriculture, and caring for her people.
    Ahilyabai is remembered for her religious devotion and architectural contributions. She rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath in Varanasi and Somnath in Gujarat, and constructed ghats, wells, and dharamshalas across India. She also promoted the Maheshwar weaving tradition, which continues today.
    Her life shows courage, compassion, and devotion to service, making her a true inspiration.

    Q3. If you could visit one Maratha fort today (such as Raigad, Sindhudurg, Gingee, or Pratapgad), which would you choose and why?
    Answer (100–120 words):
    I would choose to visit Raigad Fort, the capital of Shivaji. It was here that Shivaji was crowned Chhatrapati in 1674, marking the formal beginning of the Maratha Empire. The fort is located 820 metres above sea level, with steep cliffs on all sides, making it nearly impossible for enemies to capture. Inside, it had royal palaces, markets, and a grand coronation hall. The fort also symbolises Shivaji’s vision of Swaraj, as it was the centre of Maratha administration and military planning. Visiting Raigad would help me connect with this historic site that witnessed the rise of one of India’s greatest warrior-kings.

    Q4. The chapter states, “The British took India from the Marathas more than from the Mughals or any other power.” What do you think this means? What evidence from the chapter supports this idea?
    Answer (120 words):
    By the late 18th century, the Marathas—not the Mughals—were the strongest power in India. They controlled Delhi, much of central and northern India, and had powerful generals like Mahadji Shinde and Peshwa Bajirao. The British fought three Anglo-Maratha wars (1775–1818), after which Maratha power ended. Unlike the Mughals, who were already declining after Aurangzeb, the Marathas still posed the biggest challenge to British expansion. Leaders like Nana Phadnavis even tried to form anti-British alliances with Mysore and Hyderabad. Thus, the British victory over the Marathas gave them effective control over India, showing that they captured the subcontinent more from the Marathas than from any other Indian power.

    Q5. Compare how Shivaji and later Marathas treated religious places and people of different faiths. What evidence from the chapter shows their approach to religious diversity?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Shivaji respected religious diversity while being a devout Hindu. During the sack of Surat, he carefully avoided harming places of worship and even spared the house of a charitable man. He rebuilt temples destroyed earlier and encouraged Sanskrit and Marathi literature while respecting other religions. His seal carried a Sanskrit inscription but he avoided religious oppression.
    Later Marathas, though sometimes harsh in wars, generally followed similar traditions. Leaders like Ahilyabai Holkarrebuilt important temples across India, including Somnath and Kashi Vishwanath. The Marathas supported the Jagannath temple at Puri and revived many cultural practices. They did not impose religious taxes like jizya.
    Thus, while strongly rooted in Hindu traditions, the Marathas practised tolerance and contributed to cultural revival without discriminating against other faiths.

    Q6. The chapter describes how forts were ‘the core of the state’ for Marathas. Why were they so important? How did they help the Marathas survive against larger enemies?
    Answer (100–120 words):
    Forts were the backbone of Maratha power. Built in hills, forests, and along coastlines, they provided safe bases for the army and civilians. Forts like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad allowed Shivaji to resist Mughal and Sultanate forces. In guerrilla warfare, the Marathas would strike quickly and retreat into these forts, frustrating larger armies. Coastal forts like Sindhudurg helped protect trade and resist European naval power. Even when the Mughals invaded with massive armies, the forts prevented complete defeat. As Ramachandrapant Amatya said, “This kingdom was created from forts alone.” Forts gave the Marathas strategic depth, endurance, and survival power against stronger enemies.

    Q7. After this introduction to the Maratha period, what do you think was their most important contribution to Indian history? Write a paragraph supporting your opinion.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    The Marathas’ most important contribution was their ideal of Swaraj (self-rule). Shivaji showed that a regional power could challenge mighty empires like the Mughals and Europeans through vision, strategy, and people’s support. They built a powerful empire across India, with an organised administration, navy, and cultural revival. Leaders like Tarabai, Bajirao, Mahadji Shinde, and Ahilyabai Holkar kept the spirit of resistance alive. Even though the Marathas were eventually defeated by the British, their struggle inspired later generations. Their fight for independence and their cultural confidence laid the foundation for India’s later freedom movement.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Who was the founder of the Maratha Empire?
      → Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674.

    2. What was guerrilla warfare?
      → A strategy of surprise attacks, speed, and knowledge of terrain against bigger armies.

    3. Name two taxes levied by the Marathas.
      → Chauth (25%) and Sardeshmukhi (10%).

    4. Who led the Marathas at the Battle of Panipat (1761)?
      → Sadashiv Rao Bhau.

    5. Which Maratha queen led expansion into Mughal territories after Aurangzeb’s death?
      → Tarabai.

    6. Who was the most famous Maratha naval leader?
      → Kanhoji Angre.

    7. Which Maratha ruler rebuilt the Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath temples?
      → Ahilyabai Holkar.

    8. Name the capital where Shivaji was coronated.
      → Raigad Fort.

    9. Who introduced the ashta pradhan mandal (council of eight ministers)?
      → Shivaji.

    10. Who united the Marathas against the British during the First Anglo-Maratha War?
      → Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Describe the achievements of Shivaji Maharaj as a ruler, administrator, and military strategist.

    Answer:
    Shivaji Maharaj (1630–1680) was the founder of the Maratha Empire and one of India’s greatest warrior-kings. As a military leader, he used guerrilla warfare, striking with speed and retreating into the hills and forests. He built a strong network of forts like Raigad, Pratapgad, and Sinhagad, which became the backbone of Maratha resistance. His coronation at Raigad in 1674 marked the formal beginning of Swaraj.

    As an administrator, Shivaji introduced a council of eight ministers called the Ashta Pradhan Mandal. He promoted revenue reforms, discouraging jagirdari and ensuring direct collection from peasants. He levied chauth (25%) and sardeshmukhi (10%) as taxes to strengthen his treasury.

    He encouraged local languages like Marathi and Sanskrit, respected different religions, and promoted trade. By building a navy under leaders like Kanhoji Angre, he secured the Konkan coast.
    Shivaji’s achievements laid the foundation of Maratha power and the idea of Swaraj, inspiring later generations.

    Q2. Discuss the role of Maratha women like Ahilyabai Holkar and Tarabai in strengthening the empire.

    Answer:
    Women leaders played a crucial role in sustaining Maratha power. Tarabai, the widow of Rajaram, became the regent when her husband died in 1700. She organised the administration and continued resistance against the Mughals. She led armies, defended forts, and expanded Maratha influence in central India. Her leadership kept the Maratha state alive at a time of crisis.

    Ahilyabai Holkar, the queen of Malwa, ruled from 1767 to 1795. Known for her wisdom and compassion, she ensured justice, peace, and prosperity in her kingdom. She rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath and Somnath, constructed dharamshalas, tanks, and wells, and promoted weaving traditions of Maheshwar. She maintained stability during political unrest and earned the love of her people.

    Both Tarabai and Ahilyabai Holkar showed courage, intelligence, and devotion to their people. They strengthened the empire during difficult times and proved that women were central to Maratha success.

    Q3. Explain the reasons for the rise and fall of Maratha power in India.

    Answer:
    Rise:
    The Marathas rose under Shivaji’s leadership, who created a disciplined army and navy, built forts, and promoted guerrilla warfare. His vision of Swaraj inspired unity. Efficient taxation like chauth and sardeshmukhi strengthened the economy. After Aurangzeb’s death, the decline of the Mughals allowed the Marathas to expand rapidly under leaders like Bajirao I, Mahadji Shinde, and the Holkars.

    Fall:
    However, several factors led to decline. The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) weakened Maratha strength severely. Internal rivalries among chiefs like the Scindes, Holkars, and Bhonsles reduced unity. The growing power of the British, who defeated them in the Anglo-Maratha Wars (1775–1818), ended their independence. Overextension and failure to adapt modern warfare also played a role.

    Thus, while the Marathas rose as defenders of Swaraj and dominated 18th-century India, disunity and British expansion caused their downfall.

    Q4. Analyse the importance of forts, navy, and trade in Maratha state-building.

    Answer:
    The Marathas depended heavily on geography for survival. Forts were the core of their state. Hill forts like Raigad, Sinhagad, and Pratapgad provided defence and bases for guerrilla attacks. Coastal forts like Sindhudurg and Vijaydurg gave them naval security.

    The Maratha navy, founded by Shivaji and led by Kanhoji Angre, helped protect the Konkan coast and resist European powers like the Portuguese and British. Naval strength also ensured safety for maritime trade.

    Trade was vital for revenue. The Marathas controlled important routes, ports like Surat, and collected chauth and sardeshmukhi from other territories. They encouraged local industries and weaving traditions.

    Together, forts gave defence, the navy ensured control of the seas, and trade generated wealth. These three pillars made the Marathas a formidable power that dominated India in the 17th and 18th centuries.

    Q5. How did the Marathas contribute to India’s cultural revival in the 17th and 18th centuries?

    Answer:
    The Marathas not only fought political battles but also revived Indian culture. Shivaji promoted Marathi and Sanskrit literature, encouraged kirtans and bhajans, and respected saints like Tukaram and Ramdas. His administration used the Modi script, strengthening regional identity.

    Later Marathas, especially Ahilyabai Holkar, rebuilt major temples destroyed earlier, such as Kashi Vishwanath, Somnath, and temples at Mathura and Gaya. She constructed ghats, tanks, and rest houses across India. Marathas also supported the Jagannath temple at Puri and promoted Maheshwar weaving.

    Through festivals, temple patronage, literature, and preservation of traditions, the Marathas revived confidence in Hindu culture during a period of Mughal dominance. Their emphasis on Swaraj and swadharma inspired future generations, linking politics with cultural pride.

    MCQs

    1. Shivaji was born in:
      (a) 1526 (b) 1530 (c) 1630 (d) 1646
      Answer: (c) 1630

    2. Shivaji’s coronation took place at:
      (a) Pratapgad (b) Raigad (c) Sinhagad (d) Surat
      Answer: (b) Raigad

    3. Which weapon did Shivaji use to kill Afzal Khan?
      (a) Sword (b) Spear (c) Wagh Nakh (d) Bow
      Answer: (c) Wagh Nakh

    4. The Maratha navy was founded in:
      (a) 1657 (b) 1666 (c) 1674 (d) 1680
      Answer: (a) 1657

    5. Which port city was sacked twice by Shivaji?
      (a) Goa (b) Surat (c) Mumbai (d) Calicut
      Answer: (b) Surat

    6. Shivaji’s policy of self-rule was called:
      (a) Swarajya (b) Sulh-i-kul (c) Mansabdari (d) Jagirdari
      Answer: (a) Swarajya

    7. The Maratha navy’s most famous leader was:
      (a) Bajirao I (b) Kanhoji Angre (c) Mahadji Shinde (d) Tarabai
      Answer: (b) Kanhoji Angre

    8. Who captured Sambhaji and executed him?
      (a) Aurangzeb (b) Akbar (c) Nizam Shah (d) Afzal Khan
      Answer: (a) Aurangzeb

    9. Who organised the first anti-British alliance?
      (a) Bajirao I (b) Nana Phadnavis (c) Tarabai (d) Mahadji Shinde
      Answer: (b) Nana Phadnavis

    10. Who led the Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat (1761)?
      (a) Tarabai (b) Nana Phadnavis (c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau (d) Shahu
      Answer: (c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau

    11. Which Maratha queen rebuilt Kashi Vishwanath?
      (a) Tarabai (b) Jijabai (c) Ahilyabai Holkar (d) Rani Durgavati
      Answer: (c) Ahilyabai Holkar

    12. The ashta pradhan mandal was:
      (a) A council of ministers (b) A tax system (c) Army division (d) A treaty
      Answer: (a) A council of ministers

    13. The Maratha tax of 25% was called:
      (a) Lagaan (b) Sardeshmukhi (c) Chauth (d) Jizya
      Answer: (c) Chauth

    14. Who was Shivaji’s father?
      (a) Shahaji Bhonsle (b) Sambhaji (c) Ekoji (d) Jijabai
      Answer: (a) Shahaji Bhonsle

    15. Who inspired Bundela prince Chhatrasal to fight the Mughals?
      (a) Akbar (b) Shivaji (c) Tarabai (d) Bajirao
      Answer: (b) Shivaji

    16. The Marathas defeated the Mughals at Saraighat under:
      (a) Bajirao (b) Tarabai (c) Lachit Borphukan (d) Mahadji Shinde
      Answer: Trick Q, Saraighat was by Ahoms – skip

    17. Which script was used by Marathas for administration?
      (a) Persian (b) Devanagari (c) Modi (d) Tamil
      Answer: (c) Modi

    18. Which Maratha general recaptured Delhi in 1771?
      (a) Mahadji Shinde (b) Bajirao I (c) Sadashiv Rao (d) Kanhoji Angre
      Answer: (a) Mahadji Shinde

    19. Who built the Dhanwantari Mahal for medicine?
      (a) Serfoji II (b) Shahu (c) Bajirao (d) Nana Phadnavis
      Answer: (a) Serfoji II

    20. Which Anglo-Maratha war ended Maratha power finally?
      (a) First (1775–82) (b) Second (1803–05) (c) Third (1817–18)
      Answer: (c) Third (1817–18)

    21. The Maratha capital during Rajaram’s rule shifted to:
      (a) Pune (b) Gingee (c) Delhi (d) Surat
      Answer: (b) Gingee

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. Shivaji was coronated in 1674 at Raigad.

    2. The weapon used to kill Afzal Khan was the wagh nakh.

    3. The Maratha queen who led after Rajaram’s death was Tarabai.

    4. The Maratha council of eight ministers was called ashta pradhan mandal.

    5. The Maratha script used in administration was Modi script.

    6. The tax of 25% was known as chauth.

    7. The Somnath temple was rebuilt by Ahilyabai Holkar.

    8. The capital shifted to Gingee during the rule of Rajaram.

    9. The first anti-British alliance was organised by Nana Phadnavis.

    10. The Third Anglo-Maratha War ended in 1818.

    True/False

    1. Shivaji used guerrilla warfare against the Mughals. ✅

    2. Sambhaji was killed by Akbar. ❌ (Aurangzeb)

    3. The Maratha navy was more advanced than European navies. ❌

    4. Tarabai led Maratha expansion into the north. ✅

    5. Modi script was used for Maratha correspondence. ✅

    6. The Battle of Panipat (1761) was a Maratha victory. ❌

    7. Raigad was the first Maratha capital. ✅

    8. Ahilyabai Holkar promoted Maheshwar weaving. ✅

    9. Shivaji imposed jizya on non-Hindus. ❌

    10. The British finally defeated the Marathas in 1818. ✅

  • Chapter 2: Reshaping India’s Political Map, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    NCERT Questions & Answers

    Q1. Compare the political strategies of the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughals. What similarities and differences existed between them?
    Answer (150 words):
    The Delhi Sultanate relied heavily on military campaigns, plunder, and taxation to expand its power. Their succession was unstable, with frequent violence. They imposed the jizya tax on non-Muslims and often destroyed temples, leading to resistance. Administration was centred on the Sultan, assisted by nobles under the iqta system.
    The Mughals, especially Akbar, also expanded through conquest but used diplomacy and alliances, such as marriage ties with Rajputs. They built a more organised administration with the mansabdari and jagirdari systems, regular revenue surveys, and efficient officials. They promoted tolerance, abolished jizya, and supported cultural synthesis.
    Similarity: Both used military power and land revenue as their foundation.
    Difference: The Mughals developed a stronger administrative framework and adopted policies of conciliation, while the Sultanate remained unstable and relied more on force.

    Q2. Why did kingdoms like the Vijayanagara Empire and the Ahom Kingdom manage to resist conquest for a longer time compared to others? What geographical, military, and social factors contributed to their success?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    The Vijayanagara Empire and the Ahoms survived longer due to geography, unity, and innovative strategies. The Vijayanagara capital Hampi was protected by rocky hills and rivers, making invasions difficult. Strong forts, disciplined armies, and efficient use of cavalry and elephants helped them resist. Cultural unity and patronage of temples also strengthened identity.
    The Ahoms, settled in Assam, used their knowledge of rivers, hills, and forests to adopt guerrilla tactics. Their paik system ensured every able-bodied man contributed labour or military service, giving them a large flexible army without maintaining a permanent one. Their unity, adaptability, and use of terrain helped them defeat larger Mughal forces at the Battle of Saraighat (1671). Thus, geographical barriers, military innovation, and social organisation ensured their survival.

    Q3. Imagine you are a scholar in the court of Akbar or Krishnadevaraya. Write a letter to a friend describing the politics, trade, culture, and society you are witnessing.
    Answer (Letter format, ~150 words):
    My dear friend,
    I write to you from the splendid court of Emperor Akbar. The empire is vast, stretching from Bengal to Gujarat. Politics here is based on both war and diplomacy. The emperor welcomes Rajput nobles into his court and promotes tolerance among different religions under the principle of sulh-i-kul (peace with all). Trade flourishes; markets in Agra and Fatehpur Sikri overflow with textiles, spices, and precious stones. Art and architecture thrive, with magnificent palaces, forts, and translations of Sanskrit epics into Persian. Scholars, poets, and painters from many lands gather here, creating a vibrant cultural environment. Society is diverse, with Hindus, Muslims, Jains, and Christians living together, though the peasants often suffer heavy taxation. Life at the court reflects grandeur and wisdom.
    Yours faithfully,
    A humble scholar

    Q4. How come Akbar, a ruthless conqueror in his young days, grew tolerant and benevolent after some years? What could have led to such a change?
    Answer (120 words):
    Akbar’s early years were marked by violent conquests, such as the siege of Chittorgarh. However, as his empire grew, he realised that ruling through fear alone would not ensure stability. He observed that his subjects followed diverse religions and cultures, and peace could only be maintained through tolerance. His interactions with scholars, saints, and philosophers broadened his outlook. He abolished the jizya, initiated interfaith dialogues, and promoted sulh-i-kul(universal peace). Political necessity also played a role—alliances with Rajputs and local leaders helped strengthen his empire. Thus, maturity, exposure to diverse ideas, and practical governance needs transformed him into a more tolerant and benevolent ruler.

    Q5. What might have happened if the Vijayanagara Empire had won the Battle of Talikota? Imagine and describe how it could have changed the political and cultural history of south India.
    Answer (150 words):
    If Vijayanagara had won the Battle of Talikota (1565), south India’s history might have been very different. The empire would have continued to dominate the Deccan, preventing the rise of the Deccan Sultanates. Its capital, Hampi, with its magnificent temples, palaces, and markets, would not have been destroyed. The flourishing art, literature, and temple architecture of Vijayanagara might have continued for centuries, influencing cultural traditions deeply. Politically, the empire could have united most of southern India, providing stability against Mughal expansion. Maritime trade through ports like Calicut and Pulicat might have grown further, making Vijayanagara a stronger economic power. The preservation of its cultural and architectural heritage could have left an even greater impact on Indian civilisation.

    Q6. Many values promoted by early Sikhism, including equality, seva, and justice, remain relevant today. Select one of these values and discuss how it remains relevant in contemporary society.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    The Sikh value of seva (selfless service) is highly relevant today. In times of natural disasters, pandemics, and poverty, voluntary service helps society overcome challenges. The tradition of langar (community kitchen) started by the Sikh Gurus continues today, feeding millions irrespective of caste, religion, or status. This promotes social equality and compassion, values much needed in a world divided by inequality and discrimination. Modern NGOs and community groups adopt the same spirit of seva, showing how timeless this value is. It reminds us that true strength lies in serving humanity with humility and compassion.

    Q7. Imagine you are a trader in a port city (Surat, Calicut or Hooghly). Describe the scenes you see as regards goods, people you trade with, movement of ships, etc.
    Answer (~150 words):
    In the bustling port city of Surat, I witness ships from Arabia, Persia, and Europe arriving daily. The docks are filled with workers unloading spices, textiles, indigo, and precious stones, while horses, silk, and metals are brought in from abroad. Traders from different lands—Arabs, Persians, Gujaratis, and Europeans—bargain loudly in the markets. The streets are crowded with oxen, camels, and carts transporting goods. Warehouses are stacked with cotton cloth, which is in great demand overseas. Moneylenders provide hundis (credit notes) to transfer wealth securely. The air is filled with the smell of spices and the sound of many languages. The city reflects India’s wealth and its place in global trade networks. Life here is vibrant, yet competition is fierce, as every merchant hopes for great profit.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Name the five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate.
      → Mamluks (Slave), Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Sayyids, Lodis.

    2. Who founded the Mughal Empire and in which year?
      → Babur, in 1526 after the First Battle of Panipat.

    3. What was the paik system of the Ahoms?
      → Every able-bodied man provided labour or military service in exchange for land rights.

    4. Who was Rani Durgavati?
      → A Gond queen who bravely resisted Mughal forces and sacrificed her life in battle (1564).

    5. What is jizya?
      → A tax imposed on non-Muslims by some rulers of the Delhi Sultanate and Mughals.

    6. Name two literary works patronised by Krishnadevaraya.
      → Telugu epic Āmuktamālyada (authored by him) and Sanskrit poetry by court scholars.

    7. What is sulh-i-kul?
      → Akbar’s policy of universal peace and tolerance among all religions.

    8. Who led the Ahoms in the Battle of Saraighat?
      → Lachit Borphukan in 1671.

    9. Which Sikh Guru was executed by Aurangzeb in Delhi in 1675?
      → Guru Tegh Bahadur.

    10. Who unified the Sikhs into an empire?
      → Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    1. Compare the administration of the Delhi Sultanate and the Mughal Empire.

    2. Describe the rise and achievements of the Vijayanagara Empire under Krishnadevaraya.

    3. Explain the causes of decline of the Mughal Empire after Aurangzeb.

    4. Discuss the role of the Sikhs in resisting Mughal oppression.

    5. How did trade and commerce flourish in medieval India? Give examples of ports and trading practices.

    Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

    1. The Delhi Sultanate was established after the defeat of:
      (a) Prithviraj Chauhan (b) Rana Sanga (c) Babur (d) Timur
      Answer: (a) Prithviraj Chauhan

    2. The five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate were:
      (a) Rajputs (b) Mughals (c) Turkic-Afghans (d) Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, Lodi
      Answer: (d)

    3. Who shifted the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad?
      (a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (c) Babur (d) Akbar
      Answer: (b)

    4. Which tax was imposed on non-Muslims?
      (a) Jizya (b) Lagaan (c) Khilaat (d) Mansab
      Answer: (a)

    5. The Battle of Talikota (1565) led to the decline of:
      (a) Mughals (b) Vijayanagara Empire (c) Bahmani Sultanate (d) Ahoms
      Answer: (b)

    6. Who led the Ahoms in the Battle of Saraighat (1671)?
      (a) Rani Durgavati (b) Lachit Borphukan (c) Rana Pratap (d) Durga Das
      Answer: (b)

    7. Which Rajput ruler fought at Haldighati (1576)?
      (a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Pratap (c) Rana Kumbha (d) Durga Das
      Answer: (b)

    8. Who abolished jizya?
      (a) Babur (b) Akbar (c) Aurangzeb (d) Alauddin Khilji
      Answer: (b)

    9. Who reimposed jizya?
      (a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb (c) Jahangir (d) Humayun
      Answer: (b)

    10. Which empire was described as “as large as Rome” by Domingo Paes?
      (a) Mughal (b) Vijayanagara (c) Bahmani (d) Delhi Sultanate
      Answer: (b)

    11. Who built the Konark Sun Temple?
      (a) Narasimhadeva I (b) Rana Kumbha (c) Krishnadevaraya (d) Shah Jahan
      Answer: (a)

    12. Who was called ‘the second Alexander’?
      (a) Akbar (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Babur (d) Aurangzeb
      Answer: (b)

    13. Who introduced the mansabdari system?
      (a) Babur (b) Akbar (c) Sher Shah Suri (d) Jahangir
      Answer: (b)

    14. Which Mughal ruler built the Taj Mahal?
      (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb
      Answer: (c)

    15. Who shifted the capital back from Daulatabad to Delhi?
      (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Babur (d) Akbar
      Answer: (a)

    16. Who founded the Mughal Empire?
      (a) Humayun (b) Babur (c) Timur (d) Sher Shah
      Answer: (b)

    17. The Ahoms originally migrated from:
      (a) Tibet (b) Myanmar (c) China (d) Nepal
      Answer: (b)

    18. Who established the Khalsa?
      (a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Arjan (c) Guru Hargobind (d) Guru Gobind Singh
      Answer: (d)

    19. Who was executed in Chandni Chowk in 1675?
      (a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Arjan (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur (d) Guru Gobind Singh
      Answer: (c)

    20. Who unified the Sikhs into an empire?
      (a) Banda Bahadur (b) Guru Gobind Singh (c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (d) Guru Arjan
      Answer: (c)

    21. Which finance minister introduced revenue reforms under Akbar?
      (a) Abul Fazl (b) Todar Mal (c) Birbal (d) Bairam Khan
      Answer: (b)

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate was the Lodi dynasty.

    2. The Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.

    3. Krishnadevaraya composed the Telugu epic Āmuktamālyada.

    4. The Ahom general who defeated the Mughals at Saraighat was Lachit Borphukan.

    5. The Konark Sun Temple was built by Narasimhadeva I.

    6. Akbar’s policy of tolerance was called sulh-i-kul.

    7. The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan.

    8. The Sikh Guru executed in Delhi by Aurangzeb was Guru Tegh Bahadur.

    9. The Khalsa was founded in 1699 by Guru Gobind Singh.

    10. The Sikh Empire was unified under Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

  • Chapter-1-Natural Resources and Their Use, Class 8th, Social Science, NCERT

    Chapter 1: Natural Resources and Their Use

    NCERT Questions and Answers

    Q1. What can make what is today a renewable resource non-renewable tomorrow? Describe some actions that can prevent this from happening.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    A renewable resource becomes non-renewable if it is exploited faster than its natural rate of regeneration. For example, forests are renewable, but deforestation without replantation can destroy them permanently. Similarly, over-extraction of groundwater can turn fertile regions into dry lands. Pollution, climate change, and unsustainable practices disturb the natural cycle of restoration and regeneration, making renewable resources scarce.
    To prevent this, we must use resources responsibly: promote afforestation, practice water harvesting, regulate mining, and adopt organic farming. Renewable energy sources like solar and wind should replace excessive use of coal and petroleum. Recycling, reuse, and reduced wastage are also essential. Thus, human care and sustainable practices ensure that renewable resources remain available for future generations.

    Q2. Name five ecosystem functions that serve humans.
    Answer (80–100 words):
    Ecosystems perform natural functions that directly or indirectly support human life. Five important ones are:

    1. Oxygen production by plants and trees through photosynthesis.

    2. Water purification by forests, wetlands, and natural filters.

    3. Soil fertility and nutrient cycling through decomposition of organic matter.

    4. Pollination of crops by bees, birds, and insects.

    5. Climate regulation by forests and oceans absorbing carbon dioxide.
      These functions are called ecosystem services when humans benefit from them, such as clean water, fertile farmland, and protection from floods.

    Q3. What are renewable resources? How are they different from non-renewable ones? What can people do to ensure that renewable resources continue to be available for our use and that of future generations? Give two examples.
    Answer (120–150 words):
    Renewable resources are resources that regenerate naturally and can be used again and again, such as sunlight, wind, forests, and rivers.
    Non-renewable resources take millions of years to form and are exhausted once used, such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
    To ensure renewable resources remain available, people must:

    • Use them sustainably, without over-exploitation.

    • Promote conservation practices such as afforestation, water harvesting, and organic farming.

    • Reduce dependence on fossil fuels and increase reliance on solar, wind, and hydropower.
      Examples: Solar energy and timber from forests (if regeneration is maintained).

    Q4. Identify cultural practices in your home and neighbourhood that point to mindfulness in the use of natural resources.
    Answer (100–120 words):
    In many Indian traditions, nature is considered sacred, and this is reflected in cultural practices. For example, people worship Tulsi and Peepal trees, which are known for their ecological benefits. Festivals like Van Mahotsav encourage tree planting. In rural areas, community-managed sacred groves prevent indiscriminate cutting of trees. Clay diyas, jute bags, and banana-leaf plates are used instead of plastics in rituals and ceremonies. Water is often conserved through rituals of offering arghyam to rivers and ponds. Such practices show how culture promotes sustainability by linking spiritual values with conservation of nature.

    Q5. What are some considerations to keep in mind in the production of goods for our current use?
    Answer (120–150 words):
    While producing goods, we must ensure that our needs are met without damaging nature or depriving future generations. Some key considerations are:

    1. Sustainability – use resources without exhausting them.

    2. Eco-friendliness – adopt clean technologies that cause minimal pollution.

    3. Waste management – promote recycling and reduce single-use materials.

    4. Equity – resources and products should be accessible to all sections of society.

    5. Long-term vision – production should not focus only on profit but also on environmental responsibility.
      For example, instead of using excessive coal for electricity, industries should shift to renewable energy. Similarly, packaging should be biodegradable. This ensures that economic growth is balanced with environmental conservation.

    Extra Short Answer Questions

    1. Define natural resources.
      → Materials and substances found in nature and useful to humans, such as air, water, soil, minerals, and forests.

    2. What is stewardship of resources?
      → It means using resources responsibly while ensuring their restoration and regeneration for future generations.

    3. Name two renewable and two non-renewable resources.
      → Renewable: solar energy, forests. Non-renewable: coal, petroleum.

    4. What is the ‘resource curse’?
      → It means that resource-rich regions often remain poor due to mismanagement, corruption, or over-dependence on raw resources.

    5. What is Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda?
      → An ancient Indian science dealing with sustainable plant care, irrigation, soil management, and pest control.

    6. Name two cultural practices that promote conservation.
      → Worship of rivers and trees; preservation of sacred groves.

    7. Which state is fully organic in India?
      → Sikkim, declared 100% organic in 2016.

    8. What was the problem of groundwater in Punjab?
      → Over-extraction due to paddy and wheat cultivation, leading to severe depletion and contamination.

    9. Name two ecosystem services from forests.
      → Water purification and prevention of soil erosion.

    10. Which international initiative did India launch in 2015 to promote renewable energy?
      → The International Solar Alliance (ISA).

    Extra Long Answer Questions

    Q1. Explain the implications of unsustainable use of resources with examples.
    Answer:
    Unsustainable use of resources leads to ecological imbalance, loss of biodiversity, and depletion of essential reserves. For instance, over-extraction of groundwater in Punjab during the Green Revolution caused water scarcity and chemical contamination. Deforestation reduces rainfall, increases soil erosion, and endangers wildlife. Overfishing has led to the decline of tuna populations, disturbing ocean ecosystems. Industrial pollution damages rivers and air quality, making them toxic for humans and animals. These examples show that ignoring sustainability causes both short-term and long-term harm. Responsible use, afforestation, and renewable energy can reduce such impacts.

    Q2. Discuss the case of organic farming in Sikkim and its impact.
    Answer:
    Sikkim adopted a policy of becoming a fully organic state, completed in 2016. Farmers replaced chemical fertilisers and pesticides with compost and natural repellents. Initially, yields fell as the soil recovered, but over time productivity improved. Biodiversity flourished with insects and birds returning, while tourism increased due to Sikkim’s model of sustainability. Farmers earned higher incomes by selling organic produce at premium prices. The state became an international example of how sustainable farming improves both ecology and economy.

    Q3. How can we ensure sustainable use of non-renewable resources?
    Answer:
    Non-renewable resources like coal, petroleum, and minerals are limited. To ensure sustainability:

    1. Use them judiciously and avoid wastage.

    2. Develop alternative sources of renewable energy like solar and wind.

    3. Promote recycling of metals and materials.

    4. Improve energy efficiency in industries, vehicles, and homes.

    5. Invest in new technologies for cleaner production.
      By combining conservation with innovation, we can extend the life of non-renewables until renewable substitutes become widely available.

    Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

    1. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
      (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Solar energy (d) Iron ore
      Answer: (c) Solar energy

    2. The over-exploitation of groundwater is a major issue in:
      (a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
      Answer: (b) Punjab

    3. Which of these is NOT an ecosystem service?
      (a) Soil fertility (b) Oxygen production (c) Deforestation (d) Pollination
      Answer: (c) Deforestation

    4. The “paradox of plenty” refers to:
      (a) Excess of rainfall (b) Resource curse (c) Industrial pollution (d) Recycling
      Answer: (b) Resource curse

    5. Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda deals with:
      (a) Astronomy (b) Trees and plants (c) Rivers (d) Cattle
      Answer: (b) Trees and plants

    6. Which state became 100% organic in 2016?
      (a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Sikkim (d) Assam
      Answer: (c) Sikkim

    7. Which two crops caused groundwater depletion in Punjab?
      (a) Cotton and jute (b) Wheat and paddy (c) Tea and coffee (d) Sugarcane and maize
      Answer: (b) Wheat and paddy

    8. Which organisation regulates solar energy cooperation internationally?
      (a) WHO (b) WTO (c) ISA (d) ILO
      Answer: (c) ISA

    9. India launched ISA with:
      (a) USA (b) France (c) Germany (d) Japan
      Answer: (b) France

    10. Which of these is a non-renewable resource?
      (a) Water (b) Coal (c) Sunlight (d) Timber
      Answer: (b) Coal

    11. Which material’s production is among the most polluting industries?
      (a) Steel (b) Plastic (c) Cement (d) Paper
      Answer: (c) Cement

    12. Which is called “black gold”?
      (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Gold (d) Iron ore
      Answer: (b) Petroleum

    13. Which festival promotes afforestation in India?
      (a) Diwali (b) Holi (c) Van Mahotsav (d) Pongal
      Answer: (c) Van Mahotsav

    14. The Kaveri river water dispute is between:
      (a) Punjab and Haryana (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat and Rajasthan (d) UP and Bihar
      Answer: (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

    15. Which practice helps conserve soil fertility?
      (a) Excess fertiliser use (b) Mulching (c) Overgrazing (d) Deforestation
      Answer: (b) Mulching

    16. Which state is known as the “Granary of India”?
      (a) Punjab (b) Gujarat (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu
      Answer: (a) Punjab

    17. What is the main aim of stewardship of resources?
      (a) Exploitation (b) Conservation (c) Profit-making (d) Pollution control only
      Answer: (b) Conservation

    18. Which is the largest solar park in India?
      (a) Charanka (b) Bhadla (c) Pavagada (d) Kurnool
      Answer: (b) Bhadla

    19. Which natural resource is linked to deforestation?
      (a) Timber (b) Iron (c) Bauxite (d) Coal
      Answer: (a) Timber

    20. Which of these shows unsustainable use?
      (a) Organic farming (b) Rainwater harvesting (c) Overfishing of tuna (d) Solar parks
      Answer: (c) Overfishing of tuna

    21. Which Indian text describes tree care and sustainable farming?
      (a) Arthashastra (b) Rigveda (c) Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda (d) Manusmriti
      Answer: (c) Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda

    Fill in the Blanks

    1. The first fully organic state of India is Sikkim.

    2. The over-extraction of groundwater is a major issue in Punjab.

    3. The International Solar Alliance was launched by India and France in 2015.

    4. Cement production is one of the most polluting industries.

    5. Petroleum is also known as black gold.

    6. The decline in the variety of life on Earth is called biodiversity loss.

    7. The festival that encourages tree plantation is Van Mahotsav.

    8. Coal reserves in India may last only another 50 years.

    9. Sacred groves are protected community forests.

    10. The case study of sustainable agriculture in Sikkim is linked to organic farming.

    True/False

    1. Solar energy is a renewable resource. ✅

    2. Over-extraction of groundwater is a problem only in Punjab. ❌

    3. Van Mahotsav encourages water conservation. ❌ (It promotes tree planting.)

    4. Petroleum is called black gold. ✅

    5. ISA was launched in 2015 by India and France. ✅

    6. Cement is the least polluting industry. ❌

    7. Sacred groves promote conservation of biodiversity. ✅

    8. Vr̥ikṣhāyurveda deals with astronomy. ❌

    9. Organic farming increases biodiversity. ✅

    10. The natural resource curse means abundance of resources always brings wealth. ❌

  • Chapter-12-Understanding Markets Class 7th, Social Science, NCERT

    Chapter 12: Understanding Markets

    NCERT Questions and Activities (with Answers)

    Q1. What are the main features of a market? Recall a recent visit to a market to purchase a product. What are the different features of a market that you observed during this visit?
    Answer:
    Features of a market:

    1. Presence of buyers and sellers.

    2. Exchange of goods/services at a mutually agreed price.

    3. Negotiation or bargaining may take place.

    4. Goods are available in different varieties and quantities.

    5. Prices depend on demand and supply.

    (Example: In a vegetable market, I observed bargaining, variety of sellers, competitive prices, and many buyers.)

    Q2. Remember the epigraph from a famous economist at the beginning of the chapter? Discuss its relevance in the context of the chapter you have read.
    Answer:
    Adam Smith’s quote means that markets arise because people cannot produce everything themselves. Markets connect people, bring goods and services together, and promote prosperity. The chapter shows that markets provide essentials, link buyers and sellers, and support society and culture.

    Q3. In the example of buying and selling of guavas, imagine that the seller is getting a good price, and is able to make a profit. He will try to get more guavas from farmers to be able to sell them at the same price and increase his earnings. What is the farmer likely to do in this kind of a situation? Do you think he will start thinking about the demand for guavas in the next season? What is likely to be his response?
    Answer:
    The farmer will see that guavas are in demand and will try to grow more guavas in the next season. He may expand cultivation or improve quality to earn more profit. Farmers do think about market demand before deciding what crops to grow.

    Q4. Match the following types of markets with their characteristics:

    1. Physical market → Requires physical presence of buyers and sellers

    2. Online market → Buyers and sellers meet virtually and can transact anytime

    3. Domestic market → Lies within the boundaries of a nation

    4. International market → Goods and services flow outside a nation’s boundaries

    5. Wholesale market → Deals in bulk quantities

    6. Retail market → Serves the final consumers with goods and services

    Q5. Prices are generally determined by the interaction between demand from buyers and supply by sellers. Can you think of products where prices are high despite lesser number of buyers demanding the product? What could be the reasons for that?
    Answer:
    Examples: gold, diamonds, luxury cars, branded clothes.
    Reasons: scarcity of supply, high production costs, brand value, and exclusive demand by a small group of wealthy buyers.

    Q6. A family buys beans for ₹40/kg in a supermarket though the cart-seller offered them at ₹30/kg. Why did they do this?
    Answer:
    Because supermarkets provide clean packaging, quality assurance, and trust in weights. Non-price factors like hygiene, comfort, and brand reputation influence consumer choices along with price.

    Q7. Farmers often throw away tomatoes when harvest is large. Why? What role can wholesalers play?
    Answer:
    When supply is too high, prices fall so much that farmers cannot cover costs. Wholesalers can buy in bulk, store in cold storage, and supply to other regions. Government and cooperatives can help process tomatoes into ketchup, puree, or dried products to reduce waste and losses.

    Q8. Have you heard about/visited a school carnival or fair? How do students conduct selling and negotiation with buyers?
    Answer:
    Yes, in school carnivals students sell food, games, and handmade items. They fix prices or negotiate with buyers. They learn how markets work, including demand, pricing, and profits.

    Q9. Choose 5 products and check their labels for certification marks. Did you find some without logos? Why?
    Answer:
    Examples:

    • Milk (FSSAI)

    • Electric fan (ISI mark)

    • Rice (AGMARK)

    • Refrigerator (BEE star rating)

    • Biscuit packet (FSSAI)

    Some unbranded products lack certification because they are local, small-scale, or uncertified.

    Q10. You and your classmates have manufactured a soap bar. Design a label for its packaging. What should be mentioned?
    Answer:
    Label should mention:

    • Brand name

    • Ingredients

    • Date of manufacture & expiry

    • Weight/quantity

    • MRP

    • Certification logo (ISI/FSSAI equivalent)

    • Manufacturer’s details

    • Allergen warnings

    Extra Short Answer Questions (2–3 sentences)

    1. What is a market?
      → A market is a place, physical or online, where buyers and sellers exchange goods or services at agreed prices.

    2. What is demand?
      → The quantity of a product buyers are willing and able to buy at a particular price.

    3. What is supply?
      → The quantity of a product sellers are willing to sell at a particular price.

    4. What is meant by bargaining?
      → Bargaining is the negotiation between buyer and seller to settle on a mutually acceptable price.

    5. What is the difference between wholesale and retail markets?
      → Wholesale markets deal in bulk sales to retailers, while retail markets sell in smaller quantities directly to consumers.

    6. Give an example of an international market product.
      → India imports crude oil from West Asia and exports textiles to Europe.

    7. What is the role of distributors?
      → They connect wholesalers to retailers, ensuring supply even in remote areas.

    8. Name one famous women-run market in India.
      → Ima Keithal (Mother’s Market) in Manipur.

    9. What does the FSSAI mark on food packets mean?
      → It means the food has been tested and certified safe by the Food Safety & Standards Authority of India.

    10. What does the BEE star rating on appliances show?
      → It shows energy efficiency; more stars mean lower electricity use and savings.

    🔹 Extra Long Answer Questions (5–6 sentences)

    Q1. Explain the role of government in markets.
    → The government regulates markets to ensure fairness and protect consumers. It sets minimum support prices for crops and maximum prices for essential medicines. It ensures quality standards through ISI, FSSAI, and AGMARK. It provides public goods like roads, parks, and policing. It also checks pollution and misuse of resources. Thus, it balances interests of buyers, sellers, and society.

    Q2. How do markets affect people’s lives beyond just buying and selling?
    → Markets also build relationships of trust between buyers and sellers, often lasting generations. They provide employment and income, like Ima Keithal in Manipur. They are places for cultural exchange, traditions, and festivals. Markets also influence lifestyle choices, like energy-efficient appliances. They are important socially as well as economically.

    Q3. Explain the chain of supply in a physical market with an example.
    → The supply chain begins with the producer or manufacturer, who sells to wholesalers in bulk. Wholesalers store goods in warehouses and sell to retailers. Retailers sell in smaller quantities to final consumers. For example, in the Surat textile market, cotton is processed into cloth, sold in wholesale, and then distributed to shops across India and abroad. This chain ensures goods reach consumers efficiently.