Tag: UGC NET MBA guide

  • UGC NET MBA Unit – 10 Entrepreneurship Development PYQ

    1. Match the items of List – I with List – II relating to entrepreneurship:

    List – I List – II
    a. Richard Cantillon i. Entrepreneurs are engaged in economic activity
    b. Joseph Schumpeter

    ii. Entrepreneur introduces innovation and change

    c. J.K. Galbraith iii. Entrepreneur must work hard to achieve something

    A. (iii) (i) (ii)
    B. (ii) (i) (iii)
    C. (ii) (iii) (i)
    D. (i) (iii) (ii)

    Correct Answer: C


    2. The stage where support is provided to industrial units facing early symptoms of sickness is called:

    A. Recovery stage
    B. Handholding stage
    C. Financial restructuring stage
    D. Insolvency stage

    Correct Answer: B


    3. Federation of Associations of Small Industries of India (FASII), promoted in 1959, is a:

    A. Government organisation
    B. Liaisoning organisation
    C. Small Scale Unit
    D. Industrial estate body

    Correct Answer: B


    4. Under the Sick Industrial Companies Act (SICA), public sector companies were covered from:

    A. February 1994
    B. January 1990
    C. December 1991
    D. March 1997

    Correct Answer: C


    5. Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India (IRBI) was renamed in 1997 as:

    A. SIDBI
    B. Industrial Investment Bank of India
    C. IFCI
    D. NABARD

    Correct Answer: B


    6. A collusive agreement between management and union leaders against employee interest is called:

    A. Jurisdictional contract
    B. Wildcat contract
    C. Sweetheart contract
    D. Open contract

    Correct Answer: C


    7. A strike in which workers stop work without union consent is called:

    A. Sympathy strike
    B. Slowdown strike
    C. Wildcat strike
    D. Recognition strike

    Correct Answer: C


    8. Preparation of a Business Plan as a prerequisite to business promotion mainly aims to:

    A. Ensure no flaws exist in the idea
    B. Arrange finance & avoid NPAs
    C. Guarantee break-even
    D. Improve worker efficiency

    Correct Answer: B


    9. Non-availability of required project planning capability is due to:

    A. Poor general management
    B. Poor professional management
    C. Poor entrepreneurial management
    D. Poor marketing management

    Correct Answer: C


    10. Which scheme provides promotion assistance for development of Khadi?

    A. SRUTI
    B. ISEC
    C. MDA
    D. KVIC Finance

    Correct Answer: C


    11. Which scheme is related to financial assistance for registration of traditional industries?

    A. MDA
    B. ISEC
    C. SRUTI
    D. NIESBUD

    Correct Answer: C


    12. Explicit Resale Price Valuation assumes that investor holds shares only for a few years. The value is based on:

    A. Dividend stream only
    B. Expected sale price only
    C. Expected dividends + sale price
    D. Market price only

    Correct Answer: C


    13. A person inside the organisation who innovates as an entrepreneur is called:

    A. Social entrepreneur
    B. Intrapreneur
    C. Corporate sponsor
    D. Professional manager

    Correct Answer: B


    14. A document issued by exporter’s bank undertaking to pay the exporter is called:

    A. Bill of Exchange
    B. Letter of Credit
    C. Bill of Lading
    D. Promissory Note

    Correct Answer: B


    15. A strike conducted in sympathy with other employees is called:

    A. Recognition strike
    B. Sympathy strike
    C. Lock-out strike
    D. Boycott strike

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit – 9 International Business & Information Technology PYQ

    1. Assertion (A): The integration of domestic economy through trade and capital flows accelerated Indian economic growth significantly.

    Reason (R): The Government is keen to promote exports and provide more jobs.

    A. Both (A) and (R) correct; (R) explains (A)
    B. Both (A) and (R) correct; but (R) does not explain (A)
    C. (A) correct, (R) incorrect
    D. (R) correct, (A) incorrect

    Correct Answer: A


    2. Which is a benchmarking tool to measure logistics supply chain performance across nations?

    A. Logistics Preparedness Index
    B. Supply Chain Performance Index
    C. Logistics Performance Index
    D. Supply Chain Preparedness Index

    Correct Answer: C


    3. Which of the following is / are NOT true about linear shipping?

    (a) Used for high-value manufactured goods
    (b) Offers slower service
    (c) Runs on fixed schedule
    (d) Contract document is Charter Party

    A. (a) & (c)
    B. (a), (b) & (d)
    C. (d)
    D. (b) & (d)

    Correct Answer: B


    4. Which term refers to effective control acquisition by one company over another without legal combination?

    A. Consolidation
    B. Acquisition
    C. Merger
    D. Takeover negotiation

    Correct Answer: B


    5. WTO body that reviews trade policies of member countries is:

    A. TRIPS
    B. DSB
    C. TPRB
    D. General Council

    Correct Answer: C


    6. Balance of payment accounts include which components?

    A. Current account & Capital account
    B. Government & Private accounts
    C. Budget & Trade accounts
    D. Revenue & Expenditure accounts

    Correct Answer: A


    7. Under which WTO agreement protection is provided to trademarks and copyrights?

    A. TRIMS
    B. TRIPS
    C. GATS
    D. GATT

    Correct Answer: B


    8. The international organisation providing concessional loans for economic development of poor countries is:

    A. IMF
    B. WTO
    C. World Bank
    D. OECD

    Correct Answer: C


    9. Which information system supports routine, structured reporting processes?

    A. MIS
    B. DSS
    C. ESS
    D. KMS

    Correct Answer: A


    10. Data Mining is used for:

    A. Extracting patterns from large databases
    B. Storing large data
    C. Presenting summary reports only
    D. Hardware networking

    Correct Answer: A


    11. Decision support system (DSS) is used for:

    A. Strategic unstructured decision making
    B. Regular operational reporting
    C. Data storing
    D. Management accounting only

    Correct Answer: A


    12. Artificial intelligence primarily aims at:

    A. Improving physical productivity
    B. Simulating human thought processes into machines
    C. Networking hardware across systems
    D. Improving inventory capacity

    Correct Answer: B


    13. EXIM policy relates to:

    A. Promotion of foreign tourism
    B. Export-import trade regulations
    C. Banking credit policy
    D. Control of foreign exchange

    Correct Answer: B


    14. Foreign Direct Investment advantages include:

    A. Increase capital formation & technological upgradation
    B. Guaranteed domestic employment
    C. Monopoly protection
    D. Trade deficit control only

    Correct Answer: A


    15. A document used internationally as a transport contract is:

    A. Delivery challan
    B. Bill of Lading
    C. Certificate of Origin
    D. Letter of Credit

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit – 8 Statistics & Operations Management PYQ

    1. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

    A. Range
    B. Variance
    C. Median
    D. Standard deviation

    Correct Answer: C


    2. The difference between the highest and lowest value in a dataset is called:

    A. Mean deviation
    B. Standard deviation
    C. Range
    D. Coefficient of variation

    Correct Answer: C


    3. Which probability distribution describes the number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space?

    A. Normal distribution
    B. Poisson distribution
    C. Student’s t distribution
    D. Binomial distribution

    Correct Answer: B


    4. When population variance is unknown and sample size is small (<30), hypothesis testing uses:

    A. z–test
    B. t–test
    C. chi-square test
    D. F–test

    Correct Answer: B


    5. The coefficient of correlation ranges between:

    A. 0 to +1
    B. –1 to +1
    C. 0 to +10
    D. –10 to +10

    Correct Answer: B


    6. PERT analysis uses which type of time estimation?

    A. Most likely time
    B. Probabilistic time estimates
    C. Deterministic time estimates
    D. Linear time estimates

    Correct Answer: B


    7. EOQ (Economic Order Quantity) model attempts to:

    A. Minimise labour time
    B. Minimise fluctuation in demand
    C. Minimise total ordering and carrying costs
    D. Maximise storage capacity

    Correct Answer: C


    8. Which layout is suitable when product variety is high and production volume is low?

    A. Process layout
    B. Product layout
    C. Fixed position layout
    D. Cellular layout

    Correct Answer: A


    9. A chart showing order and completion time for jobs to be scheduled is:

    A. Activity chart
    B. Control chart
    C. Gantt chart
    D. Pareto chart

    Correct Answer: C


    10. Quality that is measured by statistical techniques is known as:

    A. TQM
    B. Quality function deployment
    C. Statistical quality control
    D. Lean quality control

    Correct Answer: C


    11. Six Sigma aims at limiting defects to:

    A. 3.4 defects per million opportunities
    B. 300 defects per million
    C. 34 defects per thousand
    D. Zero defects

    Correct Answer: A


    12. Which of the following is not a component of TQM philosophy?

    A. Continuous improvement
    B. Employee involvement
    C. Customer focus
    D. Increasing production speed

    Correct Answer: D


    13. ERP stands for:

    A. Enterprise Realistic Planning
    B. Enterprise Resource Planning
    C. Enterprise Resource Programming
    D. Enterprise Result Planning

    Correct Answer: B


    14. In queuing theory, the waiting line characteristics include:

    A. Arrival pattern, Service pattern, Queue discipline
    B. Production capacity, Layout design, Customer value
    C. Demand level, Price, Marginal utility
    D. Forecast accuracy and Break–even cost

    Correct Answer: A


    15. In transportation problems, the number of basic feasible solutions should be equal to:

    A. m + n – 1
    B. m × n
    C. m + n
    D. m – n

    (where m = origin, n = destination)

    Correct Answer: A

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-7 Consumer Behaviour, Branding, SCM, CRM, Retail & International Marketing PYQ

    1. Which of the following is the consumer behaviour model that conceives a person (consumer) as a system with outputs (behaviour) in response to inputs?

    A. Thorndike’s Theory
    B. Engel–Kollat–Blackwell Theory
    C. Buying Theory by Drucker
    D. Comprehensive Theory of Consumer Behaviour

    Correct Answer: B


    2. Which set of variables define buyer behaviour according to Howard–Sheth Theory?

    A. Physical input, external, exogenous, output
    B. Personality, perception, learning, brand variables
    C. Social input, attitude, selection behaviour, brand
    D. Stimulus input, internal variables, exogenous variables, response output

    Correct Answer: D


    3. The tendency of consumers to interpret information in a way that fits their preconceptions is called:

    A. Selective Attention
    B. Selective Distortion
    C. Selective Retention
    D. Subliminal Perception

    Correct Answer: B


    4. Attributes that consumers strongly associate with a brand and believe they cannot find with competitors refer to:

    A. Competitive points-of-parity
    B. Relational points-of-parity
    C. Correlational points-of-parity
    D. Points-of-difference

    Correct Answer: D


    5. Which Brand Equity dimension measures perceptions of quality and loyalty?

    A. Differentiation
    B. Knowledge
    C. Esteem
    D. Relevance

    Correct Answer: C


    6. Viral marketing refers to:

    A. Digital SMS messaging
    B. Online word-of-mouth encouraging consumers to share information
    C. Customer database promotion
    D. Website display banner advertising

    Correct Answer: B


    7. Which statements related to online marketing are correct?

    I. Online communities exist only in one format.
    II. In paid search, marketers bid for search terms in a continuous auction.
    III. Only some consumers want deep engagement with brands.

    A. I & II
    B. II & III
    C. I & III
    D. All statements are correct

    Correct Answer: B


    8. Which of the following is a benchmarking tool to measure logistics supply chain performance across nations?

    A. Logistics Preparedness Index
    B. Supply Chain Performance Index
    C. Logistics Performance Index
    D. Supply Chain Preparedness Index

    Correct Answer: C


    9. Workplace where intrapreneurial teams work informally to develop new products is called:

    A. Garage teams
    B. Venture teams
    C. Skunk Works
    D. Communities of Practice

    Correct Answer: C


    10. Which service quality dimension describes employees’ ability to convey trust and confidence?

    A. Empathy
    B. Responsiveness
    C. Reliability
    D. Assurance

    Correct Answer: D


    11. Which method tests new products by initially offering them free and later reoffering at reduced price?

    A. Simulated Test Marketing
    B. Controlled Test Marketing
    C. Test Markets
    D. Sales-Wave Research

    Correct Answer: D


    12. CRM focuses on:

    A. Controlling warehouse capacity
    B. Carefully managing information about individual customers to increase loyalty
    C. Reducing logistics cost
    D. Optimizing distribution channels

    Correct Answer: B


    13. Which is NOT true in linear shipping?

    (a) Used for high-value cargo
    (b) Offers slower shipping services
    (c) Operates on fixed schedule
    (d) Contract document is called Charter Party

    A. (a) and (c)
    B. (a), (b) and (d)
    C. (d) only
    D. (b) and (d)

    Correct Answer: B


    14. Facebook was founded in:

    A. 2004 – Peter Corbett
    B. 2005 – Peter Corbett
    C. 2004 – Mark Zuckerberg
    D. 2005 – Mark Zuckerberg

    Correct Answer: C


    15. Online promotion that encourages consumers to spread messages digitally is:

    A. Microsite marketing
    B. Viral marketing
    C. Interstitial advertising
    D. Contextual placement

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-6 Strategic Management PYQ

    MCQs with Answers & Explanations


    1. Match the items of List – I with List – II and select the correct code:

    List – I List – II
    (a) Mission (i) Aspiration expressed as strategic intent
    (b) Vision (ii) Activities needed to accomplish plan
    (c) Objectives (iii) Accomplishing results within a time-frame
    (d) Programmes (iv) Reason for existence

    Options:
    A. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    B. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
    C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
    D. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Mission = purpose; Vision = aspiration; Objectives = measurable targets; Programmes = action plans.


    2. The willingness to reject unfamiliar or negative information is known as:

    A. Vision Myopia
    B. Strategic Myopia
    C. Marketing Myopia
    D. Environmental Myopia

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Strategic myopia means narrow focus restricting strategic decision making.*


    3. Which matrix portrays differences among divisions relative to market share and industry growth?

    A. SPACE Matrix
    B. BCG Matrix
    C. IE Matrix
    D. SWOT Matrix

    Correct Answer: B


    4. According to Porter, the basis for competitive advantage includes:

    A. Growing, building, sustaining
    B. Integration, diversification and acquisition
    C. Cost leadership, differentiation and focus
    D. Positioning, capturing and changing

    Correct Answer: C


    5. Industry Life Cycle theory – identify the correct set of statements:

    (a) Industry stage does not influence competitive rivalry
    (b) In maturing industries standards and expectations change
    (c) Price competition increases in mature stage
    (d) Only efficient firms survive decline stage

    A. Only (c) and (d)
    B. (a), (c) and (d)
    C. (b) and (c) only
    D. (b), (c) and (d)

    Correct Answer: D


    6. Statement (I): VED analysis is meant for project maximization.

    Statement (II): Network analysis is independent of planning process.

    A. Both (I) and (II) are correct
    B. Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
    C. (I) correct but (II) incorrect
    D. (II) correct but (I) incorrect

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: VED controls stores based on criticality, not project maximization; network analysis requires planning.*


    7. A forum which reviews trade policies of all WTO member countries is:

    A. TRIPS
    B. DSB
    C. TPRB
    D. General Council

    Correct Answer: C — Trade Policy Review Body


    8. Which of the following describes ‘Strategic Control’?

    A. Evaluating deviation between actual & standards
    B. Controlling daily operations
    C. Monitoring long-term direction & effectiveness of strategy
    D. Monitoring employee performance

    Correct Answer: C


    9. A stage in turnaround strategy that gives early support to distressed units is called:

    A. Recovery Stage
    B. Handholding Stage
    C. Supporting Stage
    D. Rescue Stage

    Correct Answer: B


    10. The benchmarking tool for logistics performance across nations is:

    A. Supply Chain Preparedness Index
    B. Logistics Performance Index
    C. Supply Chain Productivity Index
    D. Logistics Readiness Index

    Correct Answer: B


    11. Which tool helps strategic evaluation of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities & threats?

    A. BCG Matrix
    B. SWOT
    C. SPACE Matrix
    D. GE Matrix

    Correct Answer: B


    12. The reconstituted Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India in 1997 was renamed as:

    A. SIDBI
    B. Industrial Investment Bank of India
    C. IFCI
    D. BIFR

    Correct Answer: B


    13. Which strategy involves combining two or more firms?

    A. Divestment
    B. Turnaround
    C. Merger
    D. Retrenchment

    Correct Answer: C


    14. SPACE Matrix is used to evaluate:

    A. Risk-return relationship
    B. Market growth vs Share
    C. Internal-external competitive position
    D. Product positioning only

    Correct Answer: C


    15. Strategy that seeks survival rather than growth is called:

    A. Stability strategy
    B. Retrenchment strategy
    C. Diversification strategy
    D. Merger strategy

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-5 Investment Management PYQ

    Production & Operations Management / Operations Research / Project & Supply Management / Forecasting / Inventory / Quality

    MCQs with Answers & Explanations


    1. Which of the following production/operations decisions relate to short–time horizon?

    (i) Production scheduling
    (ii) Breakdown maintenance
    (iii) Available materials allocation & handling
    (iv) Product design

    A. (i), (iii), (iv)
    B. (i), (ii), (iv)
    C. (iii), (v), (vi)
    D. (iii), (v), (vi)

    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Scheduling, breakdown maintenance, allocation & handling are short-term operational decisions.


    2. Match the following Operations Research models and basis of categorisation:

    List – I (Model type) List – II (Basis)
    a. Analogue Model i. Structure
    b. Descriptive Model ii. Method of getting solution
    c. Deterministic Model iii. Nature of environment
    d. Simulation Model iv. Utility

    A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
    B. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    C. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    D. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

    Correct Answer: B


    3. Which forecasting model is qualitative in nature?

    A. Economic modelling
    B. Naïve model
    C. Delphi technique
    D. Exponential smoothing

    Correct Answer: C


    4. Match forecasting techniques with category

    List – I List – II
    a. Delphi technique i. Qualitative model
    b. Economic modelling ii. Causal quantitative model
    c. Exponential smoothing iii. Quantitative (Naïve)

    A. (i), (ii), (iii)
    B. (ii), (i), (iii)
    C. (iii), (ii), (i)
    D. (i), (iii), (ii)

    Correct Answer: A


    5. Which job in production management relates to long-term horizon?

    A. Product design
    B. Production scheduling
    C. Breakdown maintenance
    D. Material handling

    Correct Answer: A


    6. Match production & marketing promotion tools

    List – I List – II
    a. Coupons i. Savings offers
    b. Tie–in promotions ii. Joint branding contests
    c. Cross promotions iii. Certificates for price reduction
    d. Price packs iv. Advertising unrelated brands

    Codes:
    A. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
    B. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
    C. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    D. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

    Correct Answer: A


    7. The researcher wants to test significance between more than two sample means. Which test applies?

    A. Chi-square
    B. F-test
    C. z-test
    D. t-test

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: ANOVA uses F-test to compare means of 3+ groups.


    8. Which one defines Analogue model usage in OR?

    A. Based on environment nature
    B. Similarity with physical real world
    C. Mathematical abstraction
    D. Solution through derivatives

    Correct Answer: B


    9. Stock files placed in warehouse for record are called:

    A. Daily reports
    B. Master files
    C. Stock control files
    D. Intranet records

    Correct Answer: B


    10. The process of managing goods sensibly to maintain flow in warehouse is called:

    A. Stock control
    B. Production design
    C. Master stock storage
    D. Job loading

    Correct Answer: A


    11. Log-in access allowed only to internal organisational members refers to:

    A. Intranet
    B. Internet
    C. Extranet
    D. WAN

    Correct Answer: A


    12. In operations research, deterministic model assumes:

    A. Outcome determined by randomness
    B. Known input values without variation
    C. Demand forecast uncertainty
    D. Use of past information trends

    Correct Answer: B


    13. Simulation models are used when:

    A. Analytic solution possible
    B. Variables operate in uncertain complex conditions
    C. Past trends stable
    D. Environment remains constant

    Correct Answer: B


    14. In PLC (Product Life Cycle), which combination is correct?

    A. Introduction – low profit, Growth – rapid acceptance high profit, Decline – profit erodes
    B. Introduction – high profit
    C. Growth – slow acceptance
    D. Decline – profit stabilises

    Correct Answer: A


    15. Process of analyzing potential fixed asset investment decisions is called:

    A. Financial leverage
    B. Capital budgeting
    C. Working capital
    D. Depreciation planning

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-4 Accounting and Financial Management PYQ

    1. Which one is NOT a property of Cobb-Douglas Production Function?

    A. Multiplicative power function can be written in log-linear form
    B. Parameters a & b represent elasticity coefficients
    C. Constants a & b represent share of inputs
    D. Power functions are homogeneous because exponents sum to 1

    Answer: D
    Explanation: Only if exponents sum to 1 does homogeneity exist; otherwise not.


    2. Costs which do not take the form of cash outlays and do not appear in books are called:

    A. Sunk Costs
    B. Opportunity Costs
    C. Accounting Costs
    D. Direct Costs

    Answer: B


    3. Funds From Operations exclude which item?

    A. Depreciation
    B. Loss on sale of building
    C. Profit on sale of land
    D. Amortisation of goodwill

    Answer: C
    Explanation: Non-operating profit deducted in FFO computation.


    4. EVA (Economic Value Added) is defined as:

    A. Net Profit After Tax
    B. Operating profit after tax minus cost of capital
    C. Net profit before tax
    D. Accounting profit minus expenses

    Answer: B


    5. Which statement is FALSE regarding CAPM?

    A. Required return = risk-free rate + risk premium
    B. Relevant risk is contribution to portfolio risk
    C. Relevant risk greater than stand-alone risk
    D. Different securities have different degrees of relevant risk

    Answer: C


    6. Beta (β) is a measure of:

    A. Systematic risk
    B. Unsystematic risk
    C. Total risk
    D. Business risk

    Answer: A


    7. When required rate > coupon rate, the bond sells at:

    A. Premium
    B. Par
    C. Discount
    D. Book value

    Answer: C


    8. Value of a bond equals face value when:

    A. Required > coupon
    B. Required < coupon
    C. Required = coupon
    D. Risk = zero

    Answer: C


    9. Capital Budgeting is concerned with:

    A. Arranging finances
    B. Working capital management
    C. Evaluating investment decisions
    D. Repairs & renewals

    Answer: C


    10. DuPont analysis decomposes ROE into:

    A. Margin × Turnover × Leverage
    B. Profit × Dividends × Risk
    C. Revenue × Cost × Time
    D. Assets ÷ Liabilities × Turnover

    Answer: A


    11. Debt Service Coverage Ratio indicates:

    A. Effective utilisation of assets
    B. Times fixed assets cover borrowed funds
    C. Excess of CA over CL
    D. Times surplus covers interest + loan instalments

    Answer: D


    12. Authorised capital ₹5 lakh, 40% paid-up, loss this year ₹50,000 and previous loss ₹2 lakh. Tangible net worth =

    A. ₹2,00,000
    B. ₹2,50,000
    C. ₹–50,000
    D. ₹7,50,000

    Answer: C
    Paid up = 40% × 5,00,000 = 2,00,000 – 2,50,000 loss total = -50,000


    13. Liquidity ratios include:

    A. Current ratio, Acid Test, Defensive interval
    B. Quick ratio, Total asset turnover
    C. Asset turnover, Defensive interval
    D. Current ratio, Asset turnover

    Answer: A


    14. Break-Even Q: SP=20, VC=14, Fixed=540000+252000 = 792000

    Contribution = 6
    Break-even units = 792000 / 6 = 132,000
    Units for ₹60000 profit = 792000 + 60000 = 852000 / 6 = 142000
    Sales = 142000 × 20 = 28,40,000

    Correct answer closest: (3) 26,40,000 & 1,42,000


    15. Capital structure M-M assumes:

    A. Perfect capital market, equal risk class, nominal taxes
    B. Perfect market only
    C. Dividend payout 100%
    D. High personal tax

    Answer: A


    16. CAPM was developed by:

    A. Sharpe & Lintner
    B. Lintner & Treynor
    C. Sharpe, Lintner & Treynor
    D. Miller & Modigliani

    Answer: C


    17. Controller function in finance includes:

    A. Negotiating loans
    B. Advertising public issue
    C. Analysing variance standard vs actual cost
    D. Estimating future cash flow

    Answer: C


    18. Match – Cash & Working Capital

    Concentration banking – Cash collection
    Playing float – Cash disbursement
    Optimum cash certainty – Baumol
    Uncertainty – Miller Orr

    Correct Code: b a d c


    19. Credit policy does NOT aim at:

    A. Max sales
    B. Minimise bad debts
    C. Maximise shareholder wealth
    D. Minimise adverse effect on sales

    Answer: C


    20. Non-payment by solvent debtor till due date is:

    A. Default cost
    B. Delinquency cost
    C. Capital cost
    D. Extra collection cost

    Answer: B


    21. Capital budgeting methods include:

    A. Payback, PI, IRR
    B. Payback, Utility theory
    C. Utility theory, IRR
    D. PI, Utility theory

    Answer: A


    22. Acquisition is same as:

    A. Merger & Amalgamation
    B. Amalgamation & Absorption
    C. Takeover & Absorption
    D. Merger alone

    Answer: C


    23. IRR decision:

    A. IRR > cost of capital → Accept
    B. IRR < cost of capital → Accept
    C. IRR = NPV = zero
    D. Both A & C

    Answer: D

  • NET MBA Unit-3 Previous Year Questions

    Industrial Relations • Trade Unions • Labour Laws • Dispute Settlement • CSR & Corporate Governance

    1. Match the following trade unions with their political associations:

    List–I List–II
    a. INTUC i. Indian National Congress
    b. AITUC ii. Communist Party of India
    c. BMS iii. Bharatiya Janata Party
    d. CITU iv. Communist Party of India (Marxist)

    A. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
    B. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
    C. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
    D. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: INTUC = INC, AITUC = CPI, BMS = BJP, CITU = CPI(M).


    2. The agreement reached during conciliation proceedings in industrial disputes is called:

    A. Award
    B. Settlement
    C. Reward
    D. Accord

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Conciliation results in a mutually acceptable settlement, while adjudication results in an award.


    3. Which term refers to the initial period in a career when high job expectations meet dull reality?

    A. Reality Shock
    B. Career Upset
    C. Mentoring Shock
    D. Mental Upcharge

    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: When new employees face mismatch between expectations and work environment, they experience reality shock.


    4. The two major aspects of modern industrial relations are:

    A. Conflict & Conciliation
    B. Cooperation & Conciliation
    C. Conflict & Cooperation
    D. Cooperation & Codetermination

    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: IR deals with balance between conflict of interest and cooperation for productivity.


    5. The decision of an adjudication authority in industrial disputes is called:

    A. Settlement
    B. Award
    C. Reward
    D. Accord

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Award is a binding decision from a labour court/tribunal/arbitrator.


    6. Which of the following is NOT true about an enquiry officer in a domestic enquiry?

    A. Must follow natural justice
    B. Can recommend punishment with report
    C. Can take final decision and issue punishment order
    D. May be internal or external officer

    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Enquiry officer only investigates & reports; final punishment is imposed by management authority.


    7. Under which commission were tripartite consultation bodies in industrial relations first recommended in India?

    A. Law Commission
    B. Whitley Commission
    C. Kothari Commission
    D. Hunter Commission

    Correct Answer: B


    8. Which approach to industrial relations was developed by Dunlop?

    A. Gandhian Approach
    B. V.V. Giri Approach
    C. System Approach
    D. Socio-ethical Approach

    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Dunlop proposed the Systems Model of Industrial Relations.


    9. The peaceful coexistence of capital and labour is a principle under which approach to IR?

    A. Gandhian
    B. V.V. Giri
    C. Systems
    D. Socio-ethical

    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: Gandhian approach focuses on moral and peaceful resolution.


    10. CSR definition focusing on ethical behavior and improving quality of life belongs to:

    A. Ethical responsibility of business
    B. Corporate Social Responsibility
    C. Employee welfare commitment
    D. Social audit

    Correct Answer: B

  • UGC NET MBA Unit – 2 Organisational Behaviour & Human Resource Management – PYQ

    1. Assertion (A): Attribution theory is based on the relationship between personal perception and interpersonal behaviour.

    Reason (R): Since most ‘whys’ are not directly observable, people must depend upon cognitions, particularly perception.

    A. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
    B. (A) is wrong but (R) is right
    C. Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A)
    D. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A)

    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Attribution theory explains behaviour using cognitive interpretation of causes based on perception.


    2. In Reddin’s Tridimensional Leadership Grid, which one of the following is a less effective style of leadership?

    A. Developer
    B. Missionary
    C. Executive
    D. Bureaucrat

    Correct Answer: D. Bureaucrat
    Explanation: Bureaucratic style is rule-bound, rigid and interpreted as less effective.


    3. One of the trends to build a sustainable competitive advantage is innovation and innovation management. HRM needs to integrate innovation with traditional change management.

    This means :

    A. Both statements correct and (R) explains (A)
    B. Both correct but (R) does not explain (A)
    C. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
    D. (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect

    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: Strategic HRM links innovation to organisational change to gain advantage.


    4. Which of the following is NOT a principle of the Hot Stove Rule in discipline?

    A. Prior Warning
    B. Immediate Response
    C. Consistent Action
    D. Personal Approach

    Correct Answer: D. Personal Approach
    Explanation: The Hot Stove Rule insists on fairness and uniform application, not personal treatment.


    5. In India, tripartite bodies of industrial relations were formed on recommendations of which commission?

    A. Law Commission
    B. Whitley Commission
    C. National Statistical Commission
    D. Kothari Commission

    Correct Answer: B. Whitley Commission
    Explanation: Whitley Commission supported tripartite consultative mechanisms involving government, employers and workers.


    6. Assertion (A): Equity theory of work motivation is based on social exchange involving inputs and outcomes.

    Reason (R): People compare their inputs and outcomes with others and attempt to restore fairness.

    A. (A) and (R) correct and (R) explains (A)
    B. (A) and (R) correct but (R) does not explain (A)
    C. (A) correct but (R) incorrect
    D. (R) correct but (A) incorrect

    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: Motivation depends on perceived equity of rewards relative to others.


    7. Which training technique requires trainees to act out parts in a realistic managerial situation?

    A. Action learning
    B. Role playing
    C. Behaviour modelling
    D. Case study

    Correct Answer: B. Role playing
    Explanation: Role play develops interpersonal and leadership skills through simulation.


    8. Ability to work in a group, enforce group dynamics and motivate employees refers to:

    A. Knowledge, skills and motives
    B. Ability to prepare viable projects
    C. Ability to manage group behaviour effectively
    D. Assign priorities according to Maslow’s needs

    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: It is part of group and interpersonal competency.


    9. The tendency of individuals to interpret information to fit their beliefs is known as:

    A. Selective Attention
    B. Selective Distortion
    C. Selective Retention
    D. Subliminal Perception

    Correct Answer: B. Selective Distortion
    Explanation: People reshape inconsistent information to support preconceived views.


    10. The correct sequence of the HR Diagnostic Model is:

    A. Evaluate → Prescribe → Diagnose → Implement
    B. Diagnose → Prescribe → Implement → Evaluate
    C. Implement → Evaluate → Diagnose → Prescribe
    D. Prescribe → Implement → Diagnose → Evaluate

    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: The logical order begins with problem diagnosis, followed by prescription, implementation, and evaluation.

  • MBA NET MBA Unit-1 Previous Year Questions

    Management: Concepts- Functions- Decision-Making Communication and Managerial Economics

    Q1. Managerial economics is concerned with which combination of the following?

    (a) Investment Analysis and Decisions
    (b) Production Behaviour and Cost Analysis
    (c) Input Reward Analysis and Decisions
    (d) Economic Environment Analysis

    Code :
    (1) (a), (b) and (c)
    (2) (b), (c) and (d)
    (3) (a), (b) and (d)
    (4) (a), (c) and (d)

    Correct Answer : (3) (a), (b) and (d)
    Explanation : Managerial economics assists in decision-making related to investment, production and external economic environment. Input reward is not its core focus.


    Q2. When P₀ and P₁ & Q₀ and Q₁ denote before and after change in price and quantity respectively, and total outlay remains the same, which formula gives similar arc price-elasticity values?

    (1) (b), (c) and (e)
    (2) (a), (b) and (e)
    (3) (a), (c) and (e)
    (4) (b), (c) and (d)

    Correct Answer : (3) (a), (c) and (e)
    Explanation : Arc elasticity uses midpoint method; these formula options maintain proportional change when expenditure remains same.


    Q3. In case the producer’s equilibrium shifts to a higher isoquant due to decrease in input price, the curve combining successive equilibrium positions is called—

    (1) Product Possibility Curve
    (2) Price Factor Curve
    (3) Expansion Path
    (4) Product Line

    Correct Answer : (3) Expansion Path
    Explanation : Expansion path shows optimal input combinations with cost variations while keeping technology constant.


    Q4. The achievement of goals with the least amount of resources is—

    (1) Effectiveness
    (2) Synergy
    (3) Efficiency
    (4) Economy

    Correct Answer : (3) Efficiency
    Explanation : Efficiency means organizational objectives achieved with minimum inputs and maximum productivity.


    Q5. Match the following pioneers of Scientific Management:

    List-I List-II
    (a) F.W Taylor (i) Fair day’s pay for fair day’s work
    (b) Henry L. Gantt (iii) Graphic scheduling
    (c) Frank & Lillian Gilbreth (ii) Motion study
    (d) Max Weber (iv) Bureaucratic organization

    Codes:
    (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
    (2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
    (3) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
    (4) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

    Correct Answer : (2)
    Explanation : Taylor – wage system; Gantt – Gantt chart; Gilbreths – motion study; Weber – bureaucracy.


    Q6. “Costs equaling average cost where average cost is minimum” refers to—

    (1) Marginal cost declines faster
    (2) Marginal cost rises faster
    (3) Marginal cost equals average cost where AC is minimum
    (4) Average cost equals marginal cost where MC is minimum

    Correct Answer : (3)
    Explanation : MC intersects AC at its minimum point; fundamental law in cost curves.


    Q7. Which one is NOT suitable for Cost-Plus Pricing?

    (1) Product tailoring
    (2) Profit maximizing
    (3) Monopsony pricing
    (4) Public utility pricing

    Correct Answer : (2)
    Explanation : Cost-plus pricing focuses on cost recovery not maximizing profits.


    Q8. Match the Communication Models

    List-I List-II
    (a) Lasswell Model (iv) Persuasive model
    (b) Shannon-Weaver (i) Information theory
    (c) Gerbner’s (ii) Different shapes of process
    (d) Berlo (iii) Dynamic interactive process

    Codes:
    (1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
    (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
    (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
    (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

    Correct Answer : (3)


    Q9. Decision-making is a _________ process.

    (1) Routine
    (2) Mental & Logical
    (3) Financial
    (4) Automatic

    Correct Answer : (2) Mental & Logical
    Explanation : Decision-making requires evaluation, reasoning and selection of alternatives.


    Q10. Planning means—

    (1) Recruiting manpower
    (2) Deciding in advance what, when and how to do
    (3) Allocating resources
    (4) Monitoring efficiency

    Correct Answer : (2)
    Explanation : Planning is a primary function that precedes all management activities.

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-10 MCQs

    Entrepreneurship Development, Innovation and Small Business Management


    🔹 SECTION A – ENTREPRENEURSHIP CONCEPTS & CHARACTERISTICS


    1. Entrepreneurship is best described as:
    A. Routine management activity
    B. Innovation and risk-bearing for value creation
    C. Financial accounting practice
    D. Wage employment
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Entrepreneurship involves innovating, taking risks, and organizing resources to create value.*


    2. The word entrepreneur is derived from:
    A. Latin
    B. French
    C. Greek
    D. German
    Answer: B
    Explanation: From French entreprendre meaning “to undertake.”*


    3. According to Schumpeter, the entrepreneur is:
    A. A risk-taker
    B. An innovator introducing new combinations
    C. A manager of a firm
    D. A financier
    Answer: B


    4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of entrepreneurship?
    A. Innovation
    B. Risk-taking
    C. Imitation only
    D. Proactiveness
    Answer: C


    5. Entrepreneurship contributes to economic growth primarily by:
    A. Creating employment and innovation
    B. Increasing imports
    C. Reducing production
    D. None
    Answer: A


    6. Entrepreneurs differ from managers because they:
    A. Create and own the business
    B. Only supervise operations
    C. Work for wages
    D. Have limited risk exposure
    Answer: A


    7. Which of the following statements is true?
    A. All entrepreneurs are innovators
    B. All innovators are entrepreneurs
    C. Entrepreneurship requires both innovation and organization
    D. None
    Answer: C


    8. Entrepreneurship is a:
    A. Process
    B. One-time activity
    C. Government scheme
    D. None
    Answer: A


    9. The core element of entrepreneurship is:
    A. Value creation through opportunity exploitation
    B. Routine job performance
    C. Bureaucratic control
    D. None
    Answer: A


    10. Intrapreneurship occurs:
    A. Within an existing organization
    B. In new startups only
    C. Among government employees only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION B – THEORIES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP


    11. The Risk-Bearing Theory of entrepreneurship was proposed by:
    A. Cantillon
    B. Schumpeter
    C. Knight
    D. Weber
    Answer: A


    12. According to Knight, profits arise due to:
    A. Uncertainty-bearing
    B. Risk-sharing
    C. Innovation
    D. Monopolies
    Answer: A


    13. J.B. Say considered the entrepreneur as:
    A. Organizer of production
    B. Innovator
    C. Capitalist
    D. Worker
    Answer: A


    14. Schumpeter’s innovation theory describes entrepreneurs as:
    A. Agents of creative destruction
    B. Wage earners
    C. Capital owners only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    15. According to McClelland, entrepreneurship is driven by:
    A. Need for achievement (nAch)
    B. Need for affiliation
    C. Need for power
    D. Risk aversion
    Answer: A


    16. Hagen’s Status Withdrawal theory relates entrepreneurship to:
    A. Social frustration and displacement
    B. Economic resources
    C. Innovation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    17. Max Weber emphasized entrepreneurship arises from:
    A. Protestant work ethic and cultural values
    B. Government subsidies
    C. Luck
    D. None
    Answer: A


    18. According to Kirzner, entrepreneurs identify:
    A. Market disequilibria and arbitrage opportunities
    B. Government policies
    C. Technology only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    19. Economic theory of entrepreneurship focuses on:
    A. Capital and resource allocation
    B. Psychological motivation
    C. Cultural beliefs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    20. McClelland’s theory is primarily:
    A. Psychological
    B. Economic
    C. Sociological
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION C – ENTREPRENEURIAL PROCESS & COMPETENCIES


    21. The first step in the entrepreneurial process is:
    A. Opportunity identification
    B. Business registration
    C. Resource mobilization
    D. None
    Answer: A


    22. Feasibility analysis includes:
    A. Technical, financial, and market analysis
    B. Advertising
    C. Customer service
    D. None
    Answer: A


    23. Entrepreneurial competencies can be developed through:
    A. Training and experience
    B. Family background only
    C. Luck
    D. None
    Answer: A


    24. Key entrepreneurial competency includes:
    A. Initiative
    B. Procrastination
    C. Avoidance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    25. An entrepreneur who innovates within an existing organization is known as:
    A. Intrapreneur
    B. Manager
    C. Contractor
    D. None
    Answer: A


    26. Risk in entrepreneurship is:
    A. Uncertain but manageable
    B. Fully predictable
    C. Always avoidable
    D. None
    Answer: A


    27. Opportunity recognition requires:
    A. Creativity and environmental scanning
    B. Routine operations
    C. Accounting skills only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    28. Entrepreneurial motivation refers to:
    A. Internal and external forces that stimulate entrepreneurial behavior
    B. Legal obligations
    C. Tax incentives only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    29. A key determinant of entrepreneurial success is:
    A. Competence and adaptability
    B. Heredity
    C. Political affiliation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. Entrepreneurial decision-making is generally:
    A. Unstructured and uncertain
    B. Routine
    C. Fixed
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION D – WOMEN & RURAL ENTREPRENEURSHIP


    31. Women entrepreneur is one who:
    A. Owns and manages an enterprise wholly or partly
    B. Works in government
    C. Manages only home-based work
    D. None
    Answer: A


    32. A major problem faced by women entrepreneurs in India is:
    A. Lack of finance and mobility
    B. Too much government support
    C. Excess labor
    D. None
    Answer: A


    33. STEP Scheme relates to:
    A. Training and employment for women
    B. Startup grants
    C. Infrastructure finance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    34. Rural entrepreneurship is based primarily on:
    A. Local resources and traditional skills
    B. Imports
    C. Urban markets
    D. None
    Answer: A


    35. Major constraint in rural entrepreneurship:
    A. Lack of infrastructure and market access
    B. Excess investment
    C. Skilled labor surplus
    D. None
    Answer: A


    36. PMEGP scheme promotes:
    A. Employment generation through micro enterprises
    B. Only export industries
    C. Urban malls
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. Mahila Coir Yojana aims at:
    A. Promoting women-led coir industry
    B. Dairy farming
    C. Export training
    D. None
    Answer: A


    38. Rural entrepreneurship contributes mainly to:
    A. Balanced regional development
    B. Urban congestion
    C. Inflation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    39. TREAD scheme supports:
    A. Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development for women
    B. Technology research
    C. Rural tourism
    D. None
    Answer: A


    40. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are a major tool for:
    A. Microfinance and rural entrepreneurship
    B. Export financing
    C. Import subsidies
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION E – INNOVATION AND BUSINESS IDEAS


    41. Innovation in business refers to:
    A. Commercial application of new ideas
    B. Copying competitors
    C. Routine activity
    D. None
    Answer: A


    42. Schumpeter’s view of innovation includes:
    A. New products, processes, markets, or organizations
    B. Government policies
    C. Social media
    D. None
    Answer: A


    43. Process innovation focuses on:
    A. Improving methods of production or delivery
    B. Launching new products
    C. Advertising
    D. None
    Answer: A


    44. Business opportunity identification involves:
    A. Matching market needs with entrepreneur’s strengths
    B. Random guessing
    C. Copying competitors
    D. None
    Answer: A


    45. Screening of business ideas ensures:
    A. Viability and feasibility
    B. Imitation
    C. Market monopoly
    D. None
    Answer: A


    46. Product innovation example:
    A. Introduction of electric cars
    B. Recruitment of staff
    C. Cost accounting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    47. Business model innovation example:
    A. Uber’s ride-sharing platform
    B. Discount sales
    C. New warehouse
    D. None
    Answer: A


    48. Innovation is essential for:
    A. Sustaining competitive advantage
    B. Bureaucracy
    C. Stabilizing monopolies
    D. None
    Answer: A


    49. Incremental innovation refers to:
    A. Small improvements in existing products or processes
    B. Radical new inventions
    C. Imitation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    50. Disruptive innovation example:
    A. Netflix replacing DVD rentals
    B. Traditional retail expansion
    C. Luxury hotel marketing
    D. None
    Answer: A

    UGC NET Management – Unit X

    Entrepreneurship Development, Innovation & Small Business Management


    🔹 SECTION F – BUSINESS PLAN & FEASIBILITY ANALYSIS


    51. A business plan is:
    A. A written document describing business objectives, strategy, and resources
    B. A government policy paper
    C. A legal contract
    D. A budget report
    Answer: A
    Explanation: A business plan outlines an entrepreneur’s goals, market, operations, and financial projections.*


    52. The first part of a business plan is the:
    A. Executive Summary
    B. Appendix
    C. Financial Statement
    D. Product Description
    Answer: A


    53. A business plan is primarily used to:
    A. Attract investors and guide management decisions
    B. Replace accounting records
    C. Avoid marketing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    54. The feasibility study is conducted:
    A. Before preparing a business plan
    B. After launching the business
    C. After one year of operations
    D. None
    Answer: A


    55. Market feasibility focuses on:
    A. Demand, competition, and market potential
    B. Factory layout
    C. Labour laws
    D. None
    Answer: A


    56. Technical feasibility examines:
    A. Production methods and resource availability
    B. Marketing cost
    C. Taxes
    D. None
    Answer: A


    57. Financial feasibility evaluates:
    A. Cost, investment, and profitability
    B. Product design
    C. Employee morale
    D. None
    Answer: A


    58. The main purpose of feasibility analysis is to:
    A. Evaluate project viability before investment
    B. File taxes
    C. Hire labour
    D. None
    Answer: A


    59. Sensitivity analysis in financial feasibility tests:
    A. How results change with key variable changes
    B. Employee satisfaction
    C. Fixed cost only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    60. A good business plan should be:
    A. Clear, realistic, and flexible
    B. Overly optimistic
    C. Lengthy and technical
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION G – MICRO, SMALL & MEDIUM ENTERPRISES (MSMEs)


    61. MSMEs in India are classified based on:
    A. Investment and annual turnover
    B. Number of employees
    C. Export volume
    D. None
    Answer: A


    62. As per the MSME classification (2020):
    A. Micro – ₹1 Cr investment, ₹5 Cr turnover
    B. Small – ₹10 Cr investment, ₹50 Cr turnover
    C. Medium – ₹50 Cr investment, ₹250 Cr turnover
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


    63. MSMEs contribute approximately what percentage to India’s GDP?
    A. 30%
    B. 10%
    C. 60%
    D. 45%
    Answer: A


    64. MSMEs employ around:
    A. 11 crore people
    B. 50 lakh people
    C. 3 crore people
    D. None
    Answer: A


    65. Major government initiative promoting MSMEs:
    A. Make in India
    B. Startup India
    C. Atmanirbhar Bharat
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


    66. The nodal agency for MSME development in India is:
    A. Ministry of MSME
    B. NITI Aayog
    C. Ministry of Finance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    67. Udyam Registration replaced:
    A. Udyog Aadhaar system
    B. DGFT registration
    C. Import license
    D. None
    Answer: A


    68. PMEGP stands for:
    A. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme
    B. Public Manufacturing Enterprise Growth Plan
    C. Post-Manufacturing Entrepreneurship Grant Policy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    69. Cluster Development Programme is intended to:
    A. Support groups of similar small industries
    B. Promote individual trade
    C. Reduce export
    D. None
    Answer: A


    70. MSMEs are vital for:
    A. Balanced regional development and inclusive growth
    B. Import promotion
    C. Capital flight
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION H – SICKNESS IN SMALL INDUSTRIES


    71. A small-scale unit is termed “sick” when:
    A. It cannot meet financial obligations or sustain operations
    B. It has high profit
    C. It pays all loans on time
    D. None
    Answer: A


    72. Major cause of industrial sickness:
    A. Poor management and marketing problems
    B. High productivity
    C. Government support
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Technological obsolescence refers to:
    A. Use of outdated technology causing inefficiency
    B. New technology adoption
    C. Cost reduction
    D. None
    Answer: A


    74. Internal cause of sickness:
    A. Poor working capital management
    B. Infrastructure shortage
    C. Policy changes
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. External cause of sickness:
    A. Power shortage and delayed payments
    B. Inefficient labour
    C. Poor leadership
    D. None
    Answer: A


    76. Rehabilitation of sick units involves:
    A. Financial, technical, and managerial restructuring
    B. Liquidation
    C. Outsourcing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    77. Which institution is primarily responsible for assisting sick small units?
    A. SIDBI
    B. RBI
    C. SEBI
    D. None
    Answer: A


    78. Early detection of sickness is important because:
    A. Corrective actions are cheaper and more effective
    B. Government grants increase
    C. It ensures monopoly
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. Industrial sickness can be reduced through:
    A. Improved financial discipline and training
    B. Ignoring market signals
    C. Cost escalation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    80. Rehabilitation of small industries focuses mainly on:
    A. Reviving production and profitability
    B. Selling assets
    C. Closing units
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION I – INSTITUTIONAL FINANCE TO SMALL INDUSTRIES


    81. SIDBI stands for:
    A. Small Industries Development Bank of India
    B. State Investment Development Board of India
    C. Small Investors’ Development Bureau of India
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. SIDBI was established in:
    A. 1990
    B. 1985
    C. 1995
    D. 1992
    Answer: A


    83. Primary function of SIDBI:
    A. Finance, promote, and develop MSMEs
    B. Manage public debt
    C. Regulate stock exchanges
    D. None
    Answer: A


    84. NSIC assists small industries in:
    A. Marketing and raw material procurement
    B. Tax management
    C. Employee recruitment
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. NABARD supports:
    A. Rural industries and agricultural enterprises
    B. Stock market reforms
    C. Telecom industries
    D. None
    Answer: A


    86. KVIC promotes:
    A. Khadi and village industries
    B. Large corporate units
    C. Software exports
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. Cooperative banks primarily serve:
    A. Rural and semi-urban entrepreneurs
    B. Large industries
    C. Exporters only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    88. Microfinance provides:
    A. Small, collateral-free loans to low-income entrepreneurs
    B. Large-scale industrial loans
    C. Foreign currency financing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    89. SHG–Bank linkage model refers to:
    A. Linking self-help groups with banks for microcredit
    B. Bank merger scheme
    C. Capital market integration
    D. None
    Answer: A


    90. Grameen Bank model was pioneered by:
    A. Muhammad Yunus (Bangladesh)
    B. Amartya Sen
    C. C.K. Prahalad
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION J – GOVERNMENT SUPPORT & CONTEMPORARY ISSUES


    91. Startup India initiative was launched in:
    A. 2016
    B. 2014
    C. 2019
    D. 2020
    Answer: A


    92. The main aim of Startup India is to:
    A. Promote innovation and entrepreneurship through simplified regulation
    B. Reduce startup funding
    C. Promote monopolies
    D. None
    Answer: A


    93. Atal Innovation Mission focuses on:
    A. Fostering innovation and incubation in schools and research institutes
    B. Agriculture only
    C. Tourism
    D. None
    Answer: A


    94. Stand-Up India Scheme provides:
    A. Bank loans to women and SC/ST entrepreneurs
    B. Export subsidies
    C. Corporate tax benefits
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. “Make in India” initiative aims to:
    A. Transform India into a global manufacturing hub
    B. Promote only imports
    C. Encourage outsourcing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    96. A key difference between entrepreneur and intrapreneur:
    A. Ownership and risk-bearing responsibility
    B. Education level
    C. Working hours
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Business incubators primarily provide:
    A. Mentoring, space, and support for new startups
    B. Fixed capital loans
    C. Tax collection services
    D. None
    Answer: A


    98. Entrepreneurship development programs (EDPs) aim at:
    A. Developing entrepreneurial competencies and motivation
    B. Teaching manual work
    C. Reducing competition
    D. None
    Answer: A


    99. The success of entrepreneurial ventures depends most on:
    A. Innovation, management, and adaptability
    B. Government bureaucracy
    C. Imitation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    100. Entrepreneurship contributes to sustainable development by:
    A. Promoting innovation, inclusivity, and responsible resource use
    B. Ignoring social issues
    C. Reducing employment
    D. None
    Answer: A

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-10

    Entrepreneurship Development, Innovation, and Small Business Management

    1. ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT – CONCEPT & NATURE


    A. Concept

    Entrepreneurship is the process of identifying opportunities, mobilizing resources, and creating value through the establishment of new ventures or transformation of existing businesses.

    An Entrepreneur is a person who takes initiative, bears risk, and innovates to convert ideas into commercially viable activities.


    B. Characteristics of Entrepreneurship

    1. Innovation: Introduction of new products, processes, or markets.

    2. Risk-taking: Managing uncertainty for potential rewards.

    3. Proactiveness: Taking initiative before competitors.

    4. Decision-making: Rational yet creative judgment.

    5. Vision and leadership: Long-term strategic orientation.


    C. Importance of Entrepreneurship

    • Promotes economic growth and employment.

    • Encourages innovation and competitiveness.

    • Mobilizes savings and capital formation.

    • Reduces regional disparities through local enterprises.

    • Enhances exports and foreign exchange earnings.


    🟩 2. TYPES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP

    Type Meaning / Features
    Innovative Entrepreneur Introduces new ideas or technology.
    Imitative / Adoptive Entrepreneur

    Copies or adapts successful innovations.

    Fabian Entrepreneur

    Skeptical and changes only when necessary.

    Drone Entrepreneur Resists change despite losses.
    Social Entrepreneur

    Works for social goals using entrepreneurial methods.

    Serial Entrepreneur Starts multiple ventures sequentially.
    Intrapreneur

    Innovates within an existing organization.

    Women / Rural Entrepreneur Operates in specific demographic or regional contexts.

    🟩 3. THEORIES OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP


    A. Economic Theories

    1. Richard Cantillon (Risk-Bearing Theory):
      Entrepreneur = risk-bearer who buys inputs at known costs and sells at uncertain prices.

    2. J.B. Say (Coordination Theory):
      Entrepreneur combines factors of production for productivity.

    3. Schumpeter (Innovation Theory):
      Entrepreneur as “creative destroyer” — introducing new combinations:

      • New product

      • New method

      • New market

      • New source of supply

      • New organization

    4. Knight (Uncertainty-Bearing Theory):
      Profit is a reward for bearing uninsurable uncertainty.

    5. Kirzner (Alertness Theory):
      Entrepreneur discovers unnoticed opportunities and arbitrage gaps.


    B. Sociological and Psychological Theories

    Theory Proponent Focus
    Need for Achievement Theory David McClelland High “nAch” motivates entrepreneurship.
    Status Withdrawal Theory Hagen

    Entrepreneurship as reaction to social frustration.

    Cultural Theory Max Weber Protestant work ethic promotes enterprise.

    C. Integrated Approach

    Entrepreneurship arises from the interaction of economic, social, psychological, and environmental factors — not one single determinant.


    🟩 4. PROCESS OF ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT


    1. Opportunity Identification:
      Spotting unmet needs, trends, and market gaps.

    2. Feasibility Analysis:
      Technical, financial, and market viability study.

    3. Business Plan Preparation:
      Structured plan for operations, marketing, finance, HR, and growth.

    4. Resource Mobilization:
      Arranging finance, manpower, and materials.

    5. Implementation:
      Establishing the enterprise and commencing operations.

    6. Growth and Sustainability:
      Scaling operations, diversification, innovation.


    Entrepreneurial Competencies

    A set of knowledge, skills, and behaviors enabling success:

    • Initiative & perseverance

    • Risk management

    • Goal orientation

    • Networking ability

    • Problem-solving

    • Self-confidence


    🟩 5. INTRAPRENEURSHIP – CONCEPT & PROCESS


    A. Concept

    Intrapreneurship = Entrepreneurship within an existing organization.
    It involves employees acting like entrepreneurs to develop new products, improve processes, or enter new markets — without owning the firm.


    B. Process

    1. Idea generation within firm.

    2. Top management support.

    3. Resource allocation & team formation.

    4. Pilot testing & commercialization.

    5. Reward and recognition.


    C. Barriers

    • Bureaucratic culture

    • Risk aversion

    • Lack of autonomy

    • Inadequate reward systems


    D. Advantages

    • Continuous innovation

    • Employee motivation

    • Competitive advantage

    • Organizational renewal


    🟩 6. WOMEN ENTREPRENEURSHIP


    A. Concept

    A woman entrepreneur is one who individually or jointly owns and manages an enterprise.

    B. Challenges

    • Limited access to finance and training

    • Cultural and social barriers

    • Balancing family and work responsibilities

    • Market access issues

    C. Government Support Schemes

    • STEP: Support to Training and Employment Programme for Women

    • Mahila Coir Yojana

    • TREAD: Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development

    • Stand-Up India Scheme (2016): Loans for women and SC/ST entrepreneurs.


    🟩 7. RURAL ENTREPRENEURSHIP


    A. Concept

    Entrepreneurial activities in rural or semi-urban areas, utilizing local resources and skills.

    B. Features

    • Labour-intensive

    • Based on agriculture and handicrafts

    • Local market orientation

    C. Types

    1. Agro-based industries: Dairy, food processing.

    2. Handicrafts & village industries: Pottery, weaving.

    3. Service enterprises: Transport, repair shops.

    4. Social entrepreneurship: Rural healthcare, education.

    D. Challenges

    • Poor infrastructure

    • Lack of credit and training

    • Market access limitations

    E. Remedies

    • Rural industrial clusters

    • Government and NGO support

    • Cooperative models

    • Microfinance linkages


    🟩 8. INNOVATION IN BUSINESS


    A. Concept

    Innovation = “Application of new ideas to improve products, processes, or services.”
    (As per Schumpeter — “creative destruction”).


    B. Types of Innovation

    Type Example
    Product Innovation New goods/services (smartphones)
    Process Innovation

    Improved production or delivery (automation)

    Marketing Innovation

    Novel pricing or packaging (Paytm cashback model)

    Organizational Innovation

    New management practices (flat hierarchy)

    Business Model Innovation Redefining value creation (Airbnb, Uber)

    C. Opportunity Identification

    • Market trends and customer pain points

    • Technological shifts

    • Government policies and incentives

    • Global best practices


    D. Screening of Business Ideas

    1. Assessing feasibility (technical, financial, legal).

    2. Evaluating risk and profitability.

    3. Considering fit with entrepreneur’s competencies.

    4. Selecting the most viable idea for business planning.


    🟩 9. BUSINESS PLAN AND FEASIBILITY ANALYSIS


    A. Business Plan – Meaning

    A written document outlining the goals, strategies, target market, financial projections, and operations of a proposed business.


    B. Contents of a Business Plan

    1. Executive summary

    2. Product/service description

    3. Market analysis

    4. Marketing & sales strategy

    5. Management team

    6. Financial projections (income, cash flow, balance sheet)

    7. Risk assessment

    8. Funding requirements


    C. Feasibility Analysis

    Type Key Question Focus
    Technical Feasibility Can we make it? Technology, inputs, process
    Market Feasibility Can we sell it?

    Demand, competition, pricing

    Financial Feasibility Can we afford it? Cost, capital, profitability

    D. Importance

    • Reduces risk and uncertainty

    • Attracts investors and lenders

    • Guides implementation


    🟩 10. MICRO, SMALL & MEDIUM ENTERPRISES (MSMEs) IN INDIA


    A. Definition (As per MSMED Act, 2006 – revised 2020)

    Category Investment + Turnover (₹)
    Micro Enterprise Investment ≤ ₹1 Cr & Turnover ≤ ₹5 Cr
    Small Enterprise

    Investment ≤ ₹10 Cr & Turnover ≤ ₹50 Cr

    Medium Enterprise Investment ≤ ₹50 Cr & Turnover ≤ ₹250 Cr

    B. Role of MSMEs

    • Contribute ~30% to India’s GDP.

    • Employ ~11 crore people.

    • Account for ~40% of exports.

    • Encourage regional development.


    C. Government Initiatives

    • Udyam Registration Portal (replacing Udyog Aadhaar).

    • PMEGP: Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme.

    • Cluster Development Programme.

    • Make in India and Startup India initiatives.


    🟩 11. SICKNESS IN SMALL INDUSTRIES


    A. Meaning

    A sick unit is one that fails to generate internal surplus and cannot meet financial obligations.


    B. Causes

    1. Poor management or planning

    2. Obsolete technology

    3. Delayed payments and credit crunch

    4. Marketing and raw material problems

    5. Infrastructure bottlenecks


    C. Rehabilitation Measures

    • Financial restructuring by banks

    • Technical modernization

    • Managerial and marketing assistance

    • Government revival packages (e.g., SIDBI schemes)


    🟩 12. INSTITUTIONAL FINANCE TO SMALL INDUSTRIES


    A. Major Financial Institutions

    Institution Role / Function
    SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) Apex institution for financing and promoting MSMEs.
    NSIC (National Small Industries Corporation)

    Raw material support, marketing, and training.

    KVIC (Khadi and Village Industries Commission)

    Promotion of rural and traditional industries.

    NABARD Finances rural enterprises and agriculture-linked units.

    B. Role of Banks

    • Commercial Banks: Provide working capital, term loans, export finance.

    • Cooperative Banks: Serve rural entrepreneurs.

    • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): Focus on micro and small enterprises.


    C. Microfinance Institutions (MFIs)

    Provide small collateral-free loans to low-income entrepreneurs, especially women and rural groups.

    Models:

    • Self-Help Group (SHG)–Bank Linkage

    • Grameen Model (group-based lending)

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-9 MCQs

    International Business, WTO, Financial Institutions, and IT in Management

    SECTION A – INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS AND GLOBALIZATION


    1. International Business refers to:
    A. Business transactions that occur within one country
    B. Business transactions that cross national borders
    C. Government trade only
    D. None
    Answer: B
    Explanation: International business includes trade, investment, and other commercial activities across countries.*


    2. The major driver of globalization is:
    A. Technological innovation
    B. Tariff barriers
    C. Bureaucracy
    D. Protectionism
    Answer: A


    3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of globalization?
    A. Free flow of goods and services
    B. Integration of markets
    C. Protectionism and isolation
    D. Flow of information
    Answer: C


    4. A firm’s internationalization begins with:
    A. Domestic sales
    B. Exporting
    C. Mergers
    D. Outsourcing
    Answer: B


    5. The globalization of production means:
    A. Sourcing goods and services from worldwide locations
    B. Exporting only
    C. Manufacturing domestically
    D. Selling globally only
    Answer: A


    6. Globalization leads to:
    A. Increased interdependence among nations
    B. Less competition
    C. Reduced trade
    D. None
    Answer: A


    7. Which of the following is an example of a global firm?
    A. Coca-Cola
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Local co-operative
    D. None
    Answer: A


    8. Outsourcing is:
    A. Subcontracting business functions to external providers
    B. Hiring permanent staff
    C. In-house production
    D. None
    Answer: A


    9. The term “Glocalization” means:
    A. Think globally, act locally
    B. Act globally, think domestically
    C. Ignore local needs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    10. Which of the following is a challenge of globalization?
    A. Cultural diversity and competition
    B. Access to new markets
    C. Free flow of technology
    D. Economic growth
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION B – THEORIES OF INTERNATIONAL TRADE


    11. The theory of Absolute Advantage was given by:
    A. David Ricardo
    B. Adam Smith
    C. Eli Heckscher
    D. Michael Porter
    Answer: B


    12. Comparative Advantage theory is based on:
    A. Opportunity cost
    B. Equal efficiency
    C. Exchange rate
    D. Labour theory only
    Answer: A


    13. Heckscher–Ohlin theory explains trade on the basis of:
    A. Factor endowment
    B. Absolute cost
    C. Product differentiation
    D. Exchange rate
    Answer: A


    14. The Leontief paradox contradicted:
    A. Heckscher–Ohlin theory
    B. Mercantilism
    C. Comparative advantage
    D. Product life cycle theory
    Answer: A


    15. Product Life Cycle Theory was given by:
    A. Raymond Vernon
    B. Michael Porter
    C. Paul Krugman
    D. David Ricardo
    Answer: A


    16. According to Product Life Cycle Theory, production moves to developing countries in:
    A. Standardization stage
    B. Introduction stage
    C. Growth stage
    D. Decline stage
    Answer: A


    17. Porter’s Diamond model includes all except:
    A. Demand conditions
    B. Factor conditions
    C. Cultural barriers
    D. Firm strategy and rivalry
    Answer: C


    18. Mercantilists believed that:
    A. Exports should exceed imports
    B. Imports should exceed exports
    C. Trade balance doesn’t matter
    D. None
    Answer: A


    19. Comparative advantage suggests:
    A. Mutual benefits from specialization
    B. Protectionism
    C. Equal output across nations
    D. None
    Answer: A


    20. The modern trade theories emphasize:
    A. Innovation and economies of scale
    B. Gold reserves
    C. Colonial control
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION C – BALANCE OF PAYMENTS (BoP)


    21. Balance of Payments is a record of:
    A. All economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world
    B. Only visible trade
    C. Only imports and exports
    D. None
    Answer: A


    22. The Current Account includes:
    A. Trade in goods and services
    B. Loans and investments
    C. Reserve changes
    D. None
    Answer: A


    23. The Capital Account records:
    A. Foreign investments and loans
    B. Merchandise exports
    C. Transfer payments
    D. None
    Answer: A


    24. BoP surplus means:
    A. Inflows exceed outflows
    B. Outflows exceed inflows
    C. No balance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    25. Persistent BoP deficit leads to:
    A. Depletion of foreign exchange reserves
    B. Increase in exports
    C. Currency appreciation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    26. Devaluation of currency helps in:
    A. Making exports cheaper
    B. Making imports cheaper
    C. Reducing exports
    D. None
    Answer: A


    27. Official reserve account records:
    A. Transactions of central bank in foreign exchange
    B. Private capital flows
    C. Transfers
    D. None
    Answer: A


    28. Invisible items in BoP refer to:
    A. Services and transfers
    B. Physical goods
    C. Machinery only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    29. Capital flight means:
    A. Sudden withdrawal of foreign capital
    B. Import boom
    C. Export subsidy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. A surplus in current account with deficit in capital account indicates:
    A. Net balance depends on magnitude of both
    B. Overall surplus always
    C. Always deficit
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION D – FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI)


    31. FDI involves:
    A. Long-term investment with control in foreign business
    B. Portfolio investment only
    C. Buying bonds
    D. None
    Answer: A


    32. Greenfield FDI means:
    A. Setting up new facilities from scratch
    B. Acquiring existing foreign companies
    C. Portfolio purchase
    D. None
    Answer: A


    33. Horizontal FDI refers to:
    A. Same industry abroad as home country
    B. Different industry
    C. Raw material industry
    D. None
    Answer: A


    34. Vertical FDI refers to:
    A. Investment in supply chain industries abroad
    B. Same product
    C. Service industry
    D. None
    Answer: A


    35. FDI benefits the host country by:
    A. Bringing capital, technology, employment
    B. Reducing competition
    C. Restricting exports
    D. None
    Answer: A


    36. A potential cost of FDI is:
    A. Repatriation of profits
    B. Technology transfer
    C. Employment generation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. Determinant of FDI inflow:
    A. Market size, infrastructure, political stability
    B. Isolation and tariff barriers
    C. None
    Answer: A


    38. Joint ventures involve:
    A. Shared ownership between foreign and local partners
    B. 100% ownership
    C. Licensing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    39. Portfolio investment differs from FDI as:
    A. It lacks control and is short-term
    B. It ensures management control
    C. It is only in bonds
    D. None
    Answer: A


    40. FDI in India is regulated under:
    A. FEMA, 1999
    B. MRTP Act
    C. Companies Act
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION E – WTO AND MULTILATERAL TRADE


    41. WTO was established in:
    A. 1995
    B. 1947
    C. 1991
    D. 1985
    Answer: A


    42. GATT was replaced by:
    A. WTO
    B. IMF
    C. UNCTAD
    D. None
    Answer: A


    43. Headquarters of WTO:
    A. Geneva
    B. Washington D.C.
    C. New York
    D. Paris
    Answer: A


    44. WTO covers:
    A. Trade in goods, services, and intellectual property
    B. Agriculture only
    C. Tariff only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    45. The dispute settlement mechanism in WTO is:
    A. Binding on members
    B. Voluntary
    C. Ignored
    D. None
    Answer: A


    46. TRIPS Agreement deals with:
    A. Intellectual property rights
    B. Investment policy
    C. Services trade
    D. None
    Answer: A


    47. GATS stands for:
    A. General Agreement on Trade in Services
    B. General Agreement on Tariff Systems
    C. Global Agricultural Trade System
    D. None
    Answer: A


    48. TRIMS deals with:
    A. Investment-related measures
    B. Monetary control
    C. Environmental policy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    49. WTO’s main objective is to:
    A. Promote free and fair international trade
    B. Restrict trade
    C. Encourage protectionism
    D. None
    Answer: A


    50. AoA under WTO refers to:
    A. Agreement on Agriculture
    B. Arrangement on Aid
    C. Association of Allies
    D. None
    Answer: A

    SECTION F – INTERNATIONAL TRADE PROCEDURES & EXIM POLICY


    51. EXIM Policy stands for:
    A. Export-Import Policy
    B. Export Industry Model
    C. Exchange Management Plan
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s EXIM Policy governs foreign trade — export promotion, import regulation, and trade facilitation.*


    52. The EXIM Policy in India is formulated by:
    A. Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
    B. Ministry of Finance
    C. NITI Aayog
    D. RBI
    Answer: A


    53. The current EXIM Policy period in India generally covers:
    A. 5 years
    B. 1 year
    C. 10 years
    D. 3 years
    Answer: A


    54. The primary objective of India’s EXIM Policy is:
    A. Promote exports and reduce trade deficit
    B. Restrict imports
    C. Regulate domestic production
    D. None
    Answer: A


    55. EPCG Scheme under EXIM Policy allows:
    A. Duty-free import of capital goods for export production
    B. Import of consumer goods freely
    C. Tax exemption for software
    D. None
    Answer: A


    56. “Letter of Credit (L/C)” in export trade ensures:
    A. Payment security for exporter
    B. Free shipping
    C. Insurance coverage
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: A Letter of Credit is a bank’s guarantee ensuring payment once shipping conditions are fulfilled.*


    57. Bill of Lading serves as:
    A. Evidence of contract and title of goods
    B. Tax invoice
    C. Insurance policy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    58. Certificate of Origin certifies:
    A. The country where goods were manufactured
    B. Quality standards
    C. Port of shipment
    D. None
    Answer: A


    59. The term “EPC” stands for:
    A. Export Promotion Council
    B. Export Policy Code
    C. Exchange Price Certificate
    D. None
    Answer: A


    60. The Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act was enacted in:
    A. 1992
    B. 1985
    C. 2000
    D. 1999
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION G – INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS


    61. IMF was established in:
    A. 1945
    B. 1947
    C. 1950
    D. 1965
    Answer: A


    62. Headquarters of IMF is located in:
    A. Washington D.C.
    B. Geneva
    C. London
    D. New York
    Answer: A


    63. IMF’s main objective is to:
    A. Promote exchange rate stability and global monetary cooperation
    B. Control global trade
    C. Provide development grants
    D. None
    Answer: A


    64. IMF provides:
    A. Short-term balance of payment assistance
    B. Long-term development loans
    C. Export finance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    65. The currency unit of IMF is:
    A. SDR (Special Drawing Rights)
    B. US Dollar
    C. Euro
    D. Pound
    Answer: A


    66. The World Bank primarily provides:
    A. Long-term development loans
    B. Short-term credit
    C. Trade insurance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    67. IBRD and IDA are part of:
    A. World Bank Group
    B. IMF
    C. WTO
    D. None
    Answer: A


    68. IFC stands for:
    A. International Finance Corporation
    B. Indian Finance Commission
    C. International Fund Council
    D. None
    Answer: A


    69. MIGA provides:
    A. Investment guarantees against political risk
    B. Export insurance
    C. Credit rating
    D. None
    Answer: A


    70. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) was established in:
    A. 1966
    B. 1945
    C. 1950
    D. 1990
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION H – INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS


    71. MIS stands for:
    A. Management Information System
    B. Managerial Investment Scheme
    C. Marketing Information Source
    D. None
    Answer: A


    72. MIS provides:
    A. Timely, relevant information for managerial decision-making
    B. Only accounting data
    C. Marketing research
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Key components of MIS are:
    A. Input, Processing, Output, Feedback
    B. Hardware only
    C. Software only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    74. The main goal of MIS is:
    A. Improve decision-making and control
    B. Replace management
    C. Increase manual work
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. DSS stands for:
    A. Decision Support System
    B. Data Storage Software
    C. Design Simulation System
    D. None
    Answer: A


    76. A Decision Support System (DSS) is used for:
    A. Semi-structured and unstructured problems
    B. Routine transactions
    C. Accounting entries
    D. None
    Answer: A


    77. Expert systems are part of:
    A. Artificial Intelligence applications
    B. Data warehousing
    C. Database management
    D. None
    Answer: A


    78. TPS (Transaction Processing System) is used for:
    A. Routine, repetitive operations
    B. Strategic decisions
    C. Long-term forecasting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. MIS differs from DSS because:
    A. MIS provides regular reports; DSS supports analysis and simulation
    B. DSS is used only by top management
    C. Both are same
    D. None
    Answer: A


    80. ERP integrates:
    A. All functional areas of an organization using a common database
    B. Only HR activities
    C. Sales and Marketing only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION I – ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE, BIG DATA & TECHNOLOGY


    81. Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to:
    A. Simulation of human intelligence in machines
    B. Natural learning only
    C. Hardware systems
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. A major area of AI application in management is:
    A. Predictive analytics
    B. Manual filing
    C. Typewriting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    83. Machine Learning is a subset of:
    A. Artificial Intelligence
    B. Big Data
    C. Blockchain
    D. None
    Answer: A


    84. Big Data refers to:
    A. Data sets with high Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, and Value
    B. Only large files
    C. Historical archives
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. One of the challenges of Big Data is:
    A. Data privacy and security
    B. Low storage
    C. Lack of information
    D. None
    Answer: A


    86. Big Data analytics is primarily used for:
    A. Understanding customer behavior and market trends
    B. Payroll processing
    C. Data deletion
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. Cloud computing enables:
    A. On-demand network access to shared computing resources
    B. Offline data storage only
    C. Manual record keeping
    D. None
    Answer: A


    88. Internet of Things (IoT) refers to:
    A. Network of connected devices that communicate automatically
    B. Traditional telephones
    C. Only websites
    D. None
    Answer: A


    89. Blockchain technology ensures:
    A. Secure, transparent, and decentralized data transactions
    B. Manual accounting
    C. File encryption only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    90. In management, AI enhances decision-making through:
    A. Predictive models and pattern recognition
    B. Manual data entry
    C. Random guessing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION J – DATA WAREHOUSING, DATA MINING & KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT


    91. Data Warehouse is:
    A. Central repository integrating data from multiple sources
    B. Set of physical warehouses
    C. Archive files
    D. None
    Answer: A


    92. Data in a warehouse is:
    A. Subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, and non-volatile
    B. Temporary
    C. Random
    D. None
    Answer: A


    93. Data Mining means:
    A. Extracting useful patterns and knowledge from large datasets
    B. Deleting old records
    C. Manual sorting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    94. “Market Basket Analysis” is an example of:
    A. Association Rule in Data Mining
    B. Regression
    C. Clustering
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. OLAP stands for:
    A. Online Analytical Processing
    B. Offline Application Program
    C. Open Learning Access Program
    D. None
    Answer: A


    96. Knowledge Management (KM) is the process of:
    A. Capturing, storing, and sharing organizational knowledge
    B. Outsourcing IT
    C. Collecting only customer data
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Tacit knowledge is:
    A. Personal, experience-based, and hard to codify
    B. Documented and explicit
    C. Easily transferable
    D. None
    Answer: A


    98. Explicit knowledge refers to:
    A. Knowledge that can be easily documented and shared
    B. Personal intuition
    C. Informal communication
    D. None
    Answer: A


    99. The key objective of Knowledge Management is:
    A. Enhance innovation, efficiency, and organizational learning
    B. Restrict information
    C. Increase paperwork
    D. None
    Answer: A


    100. Managing technological change effectively requires:
    A. Forecasting, training, and employee involvement
    B. Ignoring new technology
    C. Rapid layoffs
    D. None
    Answer: A

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-9

    International Business, Global Institutions & Information Technology in Management

    1. INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS: OVERVIEW


    A. Meaning

    International Business (IB) refers to commercial transactions (trade, investment, logistics, finance, and services)across national borders, carried out to satisfy individuals and organizations globally.


    B. Nature and Scope

    1. Cross-border transactions involving multiple currencies.

    2. Different political, legal, cultural, and economic environments.

    3. Management of operations, subsidiaries, and supply chains worldwide.

    4. Integration of production and marketing on a global scale.


    C. Difference Between Domestic and International Business

    Aspect Domestic International
    Environment Single country Multinational
    Currency Single Multiple
    Market Homogeneous Diverse
    Risks Limited

    High (exchange, political)

    Decision-making Simple Complex

    D. Globalization

    Globalization is the process of increasing interdependence and integration of world economies through trade, investment, and technology.

    Drivers:

    • Liberalization of trade policies

    • Technological progress

    • Transportation and communication advancements

    • Deregulation and foreign investment inflows

    Implications for Management:

    • Cross-cultural leadership

    • Global supply chain management

    • International human resource policies

    • Managing exchange rate risk


    2. THEORIES OF INTERNATIONAL TRADE


    A. Classical Theories

    1. Mercantilism (16th–18th Century)

      • Wealth = Gold & Silver reserves.

      • Advocated export surplus and import restriction.

      • Criticism: Ignores mutual benefits of trade.


    1. Absolute Advantage (Adam Smith, 1776)

      • A country should specialize where it is more efficient.

      • Example: India → textiles; USA → machinery.


    1. Comparative Advantage (David Ricardo, 1817)

      • Trade benefits both nations even if one is more efficient in all goods.

      • Specialization based on relative efficiency (opportunity cost).

    Comparative Advantage=Lower Opportunity Cost of Production


    B. Modern Theories

    1. Heckscher–Ohlin (Factor Proportion) Theory

      • Trade is based on factor endowments (land, labor, capital).

      • A country exports goods that use its abundant factors intensively.

      • Criticism: Ignores technology and economies of scale.


    1. Leontief Paradox

      • Empirical test of H–O theory found the U.S. exported labor-intensive goods despite being capital-rich.


    1. Product Life Cycle Theory (Vernon)

      • Trade pattern evolves through product innovation and diffusion.

      • Stages:

        1. New Product (developed in advanced countries)

        2. Maturing Product (demand grows, export rises)

        3. Standardized Product (production shifts to developing countries).


    1. Porter’s Diamond Model (National Competitive Advantage)
      Four determinants of competitiveness:

      • Factor conditions (resources)

      • Demand conditions

      • Related and supporting industries

      • Firm strategy, structure, rivalry


    3. BALANCE OF PAYMENTS (BoP)


    Definition:
    A systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world during a specific period.


    Structure of BoP

    Account Items
    Current Account Goods, services, income, transfers
    Capital Account

    Investments, loans, banking capital

    Official Reserves Account Foreign exchange and gold reserves

    BoP Surplus: Inflows > Outflows → appreciation of currency.
    BoP Deficit: Outflows > Inflows → depreciation or borrowing.


    Causes of Deficit:

    • High imports, low exports

    • Capital flight

    • Rising external debt

    Correction Measures:

    • Export promotion, import control

    • Currency depreciation

    • Attracting FDI


    4. FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI)


    A. Definition

    FDI is long-term investment by a foreign entity in the management and control of a business enterprise in another country.


    B. Forms of FDI

    1. Greenfield Investment: Establishing new facilities abroad.

    2. Mergers & Acquisitions: Acquiring existing foreign firms.

    3. Joint Ventures: Shared ownership with local partners.


    C. Benefits of FDI

    • Brings capital and technology.

    • Enhances employment and productivity.

    • Improves export competitiveness.

    • Strengthens infrastructure and managerial skills.


    D. Costs / Risks

    • Profit repatriation

    • Market dominance by MNCs

    • Cultural and environmental concerns

    • Policy dependency


    E. Determinants of FDI

    • Market size and potential

    • Political stability

    • Infrastructure quality

    • Exchange rate stability

    • Incentives and tax policies


    5. MULTILATERAL REGULATION OF TRADE AND INVESTMENT: WTO


    A. Evolution

    • GATT (1947–1994): General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade – promoted trade liberalization.

    • WTO (1995–present): Replaced GATT; covers goods, services, and intellectual property (TRIPS).


    B. Objectives of WTO

    1. Promote free and fair international trade.

    2. Settle trade disputes.

    3. Reduce tariff and non-tariff barriers.

    4. Provide transparency and predictability in trade policies.


    C. Key Agreements

    • GATS: General Agreement on Trade in Services.

    • TRIPS: Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.

    • TRIMS: Trade-Related Investment Measures.

    • AoA: Agreement on Agriculture.


    D. WTO and Developing Countries

    • Benefits: Market access, dispute resolution, FDI inflows.

    • Challenges: Loss of policy space, competition pressure, IP restrictions.


    6. INTERNATIONAL TRADE PROCEDURES & DOCUMENTATION


    A. Key Export Procedure

    1. Receipt of inquiry and quotation.

    2. Export order and letter of credit (L/C).

    3. Production/procurement.

    4. Quality inspection and customs clearance.

    5. Shipment and documentation.

    6. Payment realization.


    B. Important Documents

    Document Purpose
    Invoice Details of goods and prices
    Packing List Package contents
    Bill of Lading

    Transport document & title of goods

    Certificate of Origin Country of manufacture
    Insurance Certificate

    Covers transit risk

    Letter of Credit Bank guarantee of payment

    C. EXIM Policy (India)

    EXIM Policy = Export-Import Policy, announced every 5 years by DGFT under the Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act, 1992.

    Objectives:

    • Promote exports and reduce trade deficit

    • Enhance competitiveness

    • Simplify procedures

    Key Schemes:

    • Advance Authorization Scheme

    • EPCG (Export Promotion Capital Goods)

    • SEZ (Special Economic Zones)

    • Duty Drawback Scheme


    7. INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS (IFIs)


    A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

    Founded: 1945 at Bretton Woods Conference.
    Headquarters: Washington D.C.
    Members: 190+

    Objectives:

    • Promote exchange rate stability

    • Facilitate balanced growth of trade

    • Provide short-term financial assistance

    • Reduce global imbalances

    Key Instruments:

    • SDR (Special Drawing Rights)

    • Quota-based lending (conditional assistance)

    • Surveillance and technical advice


    B. World Bank Group (IBRD + IDA)

    IBRD: Provides long-term loans for development.
    IDA: Provides concessional loans and grants for poorest countries.

    Functions:

    • Financing infrastructure, education, and health projects

    • Promoting poverty reduction

    • Supporting policy reforms


    C. Other Institutions

    • IFC: Private sector investment.

    • MIGA: Investment guarantees.

    • ADB: Regional development financing (Asia-Pacific).


    8. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY IN MANAGEMENT


    A. Use of Computers in Management

    Computers facilitate:

    • Decision support and analytics

    • Process automation

    • Enterprise communication

    • Financial management (ERP, MIS)


    B. Management Information System (MIS)

    Definition:
    A structured system that collects, processes, and presents data for managerial decision-making.

    Components:

    1. Input (data capture)

    2. Processing (computations, comparisons)

    3. Output (reports, dashboards)

    4. Feedback

    Benefits:

    • Timely and accurate information

    • Better planning and control

    • Enhanced productivity


    C. Decision Support System (DSS)

    Definition:
    A computer-based system that supports semi-structured and non-programmed decisions.

    Features:

    • Interactive, model-driven

    • Uses “what-if” analysis and simulations

    • Integrates data with expert judgment

    Examples: Financial planning, resource allocation, pricing simulations.


    9. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (AI) AND BIG DATA


    A. Artificial Intelligence (AI)

    AI is the simulation of human intelligence in machines designed to think, learn, and act like humans.

    Applications in Management:

    • Marketing: Predictive analytics, customer segmentation.

    • HR: AI-based recruitment and appraisal.

    • Operations: Predictive maintenance, robotic process automation.

    • Finance: Fraud detection, algorithmic trading.


    B. Big Data

    Refers to large, complex, high-velocity data that cannot be processed using traditional tools.

    Characteristics (5 Vs):

    1. Volume

    2. Velocity

    3. Variety

    4. Veracity

    5. Value

    Applications:

    • Consumer behaviour analysis

    • Real-time decision-making

    • Market trend prediction


    10. DATA WAREHOUSING, DATA MINING & KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT


    A. Data Warehousing

    A central repository integrating data from multiple sources for analysis and reporting.
    Features: Subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile.
    Tools: OLAP (Online Analytical Processing), ETL processes.


    B. Data Mining

    Process of discovering patterns, correlations, and insights from large data sets using statistical and AI techniques.

    Techniques:

    • Classification (e.g., customer segmentation)

    • Clustering (grouping similar entities)

    • Association (market basket analysis)

    • Prediction (forecasting trends)


    C. Knowledge Management (KM)

    Systematic process of creating, storing, sharing, and utilizing organizational knowledge.

    KM Tools:

    • Intranets

    • Expert systems

    • Document management systems

    Benefits:

    • Improved innovation

    • Reduced redundancy

    • Faster decision-making


    11. MANAGING TECHNOLOGICAL CHANGE


    A. Concept

    Technological change refers to the process of invention, innovation, adoption, and diffusion of technology.


    B. Phases of Technological Change

    1. Invention: Creation of new ideas or prototypes.

    2. Innovation: Commercial application of invention.

    3. Diffusion: Spread and adoption of new technology.


    C. Technology Management Process

    1. Scanning and forecasting trends.

    2. Technology selection and acquisition.

    3. Implementation and training.

    4. Monitoring and continuous improvement.


    D. Challenges in Managing Technology

    • Rapid obsolescence

    • High investment cost

    • Employee resistance

    • Ethical and privacy concerns


    E. Managerial Strategies

    • Encourage R&D and learning culture

    • Develop flexible IT infrastructure

    • Collaborate with technology partners

    • Emphasize change management and reskilling

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-8 MCQs

    Statistics for Management, Operations, and Operations Research

    SECTION A – STATISTICS: CONCEPTS & DESCRIPTIVE ANALYSIS


    1. Statistics in management is primarily used to:
    A. Replace intuition with quantitative analysis
    B. Eliminate human judgment
    C. Avoid decision-making
    D. Only summarize data
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Statistics brings objectivity and helps managers make rational decisions based on numerical evidence.*


    2. Which of the following is not a function of statistics?
    A. Data presentation
    B. Forecasting
    C. Moral judgment
    D. Data collection
    Answer: C
    Explanation: Statistics is factual and quantitative; moral judgment is outside its scope.*


    3. Descriptive statistics involves:
    A. Summarizing and presenting data
    B. Drawing inferences
    C. Testing hypotheses
    D. Estimating parameters
    Answer: A


    4. The process of drawing conclusions about a population based on sample data is called:
    A. Inferential statistics
    B. Descriptive statistics
    C. Enumeration
    D. Classification
    Answer: A


    5. Which of the following scales has a true zero?
    A. Nominal
    B. Ordinal
    C. Interval
    D. Ratio
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Ratio scale includes an absolute zero, allowing ratio comparisons (e.g., weight, income).*


    6. In a normal distribution, mean = median = mode.
    Answer: True
    Explanation: Normal distribution is symmetric; all measures of central tendency coincide.*


    7. Which is the most affected by extreme values?
    A. Median
    B. Mode
    C. Mean
    D. Geometric mean
    Answer: C


    8. The measure that divides data into 100 equal parts is called:
    A. Percentiles
    B. Quartiles
    C. Deciles
    D. None
    Answer: A


    9. If Mean = 50 and SD = 5, what is the coefficient of variation (CV)?
    A. 10%
    B. 5%
    C. 15%
    D. 20%
    Answer: A

    CV=σXˉ×100=550×100=10%


    10. For skewed data, which measure is most appropriate?
    A. Median
    B. Mean
    C. Mode
    D. Range
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Median is less affected by extreme values and better represents central tendency.*


    🔹 SECTION B – DISPERSION & PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTIONS


    11. The square root of variance gives:
    A. Mean deviation
    B. Standard deviation
    C. Coefficient of variation
    D. Range
    Answer: B


    12. A low coefficient of variation indicates:
    A. High consistency
    B. High variability
    C. Instability
    D. None
    Answer: A


    13. In a binomial distribution, mean = np. If n = 10 and p = 0.3, mean = ?
    A. 3
    B. 7
    C. 10
    D. 5
    Answer: A


    14. For Poisson distribution, variance = ?
    A. Mean
    B. np(1−p)
    C. n²p
    D. None
    Answer: A


    15. The shape of a normal distribution curve is:
    A. Bell-shaped and symmetric
    B. Positively skewed
    C. Negatively skewed
    D. Uniform
    Answer: A


    16. In a normal distribution, 95.45% of data lies within:
    A. ±1σ
    B. ±2σ
    C. ±3σ
    D. ±4σ
    Answer: B


    17. The total area under a probability density curve equals:
    A. 1
    B. 0
    C. 100
    D. Mean value
    Answer: A


    18. The expected number of occurrences in Poisson distribution is represented by:
    A. m or λ
    B. σ²
    C. n
    D. p
    Answer: A


    19. Exponential distribution is used to model:
    A. Waiting or service time
    B. Number of trials
    C. Income distribution
    D. None
    Answer: A


    20. If two events A and B are independent, then P(AB)=?
    A. P(A)+P(B)
    B. P(A)×P(B)
    C. P(A)P(B)
    D. 1P(A)
    Answer: B


    🔹 SECTION C – SAMPLING AND QUESTIONNAIRE DESIGN


    21. Sampling is used because:
    A. Studying the whole population is costly and time-consuming
    B. Complete enumeration is impossible
    C. Both A and B
    D. None
    Answer: C


    22. Sampling error arises due to:
    A. Observing only a part of population
    B. Faulty data recording
    C. Incorrect coding
    D. None
    Answer: A


    23. In stratified sampling, the population is divided into:
    A. Homogeneous groups (strata)
    B. Heterogeneous groups
    C. Random clusters
    D. None
    Answer: A


    24. Systematic sampling involves:
    A. Selecting every kth item from a list
    B. Random selection
    C. Dividing into strata
    D. None
    Answer: A


    25. Snowball sampling is especially useful for:
    A. Hidden or hard-to-reach populations
    B. Large homogeneous populations
    C. Statistical inference
    D. None
    Answer: A


    26. The first step in questionnaire design is:
    A. Defining objectives
    B. Drafting questions
    C. Testing
    D. Editing
    Answer: A


    27. Which type of question allows freedom in answering?
    A. Open-ended
    B. Closed-ended
    C. Dichotomous
    D. Multiple choice
    Answer: A


    28. A biased questionnaire results in:
    A. Invalid data
    B. Accurate results
    C. Efficient sampling
    D. None
    Answer: A


    29. The purpose of pilot testing a questionnaire is:
    A. To identify and correct errors before final use
    B. To collect final data
    C. To test reliability only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. The most common non-probability sampling used in marketing surveys is:
    A. Convenience sampling
    B. Stratified sampling
    C. Random sampling
    D. Systematic sampling
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION D – HYPOTHESIS TESTING


    31. The null hypothesis (H₀) assumes:
    A. No significant difference exists
    B. A difference exists
    C. Sample is biased
    D. None
    Answer: A


    32. The level of significance is:
    A. Probability of committing Type I error
    B. Probability of Type II error
    C. Power of test
    D. None
    Answer: A


    33. Type I error occurs when:
    A. True H₀ is rejected
    B. False H₀ is accepted
    C. False H₁ is accepted
    D. Both A and C
    Answer: A


    34. Which test is suitable for small samples with unknown variance?
    A. t-test
    B. Z-test
    C. F-test
    D. χ² test
    Answer: A


    35. Z-test is used when:
    A. Population variance is known
    B. Sample size is large (n>30)
    C. Both A and B
    D. None
    Answer: C


    36. Chi-square test is applied to:
    A. Qualitative or categorical data
    B. Continuous data
    C. Large numerical datasets
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. F-test is used to compare:
    A. Two variances
    B. Two means
    C. Two proportions
    D. Two correlations
    Answer: A


    38. In hypothesis testing, “p-value” indicates:
    A. Probability of obtaining test statistic at least as extreme as observed
    B. Mean of data
    C. Sample size
    D. None
    Answer: A


    39. A two-tailed test is used when:
    A. Deviation can occur in either direction
    B. Deviation occurs only on one side
    C. Data are nominal
    D. None
    Answer: A


    40. The decision to reject H₀ is made when:
    A. p-value < α
    B. p-value > α
    C. Mean difference = 0
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION E – CORRELATION & REGRESSION


    41. Karl Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures:
    A. Strength and direction of linear relationship
    B. Cause-effect relationship
    C. Non-linear association
    D. None
    Answer: A


    42. If r = +1, the two variables are:
    A. Perfectly positively correlated
    B. Perfectly negatively correlated
    C. Unrelated
    D. None
    Answer: A


    43. If correlation between X and Y is zero, it means:
    A. No linear relationship
    B. Independent variables
    C. Non-linear relation exists
    D. None
    Answer: A


    44. Regression analysis helps in:
    A. Predicting one variable from another
    B. Comparing means
    C. Sampling
    D. None
    Answer: A


    45. The slope (b) in regression equation Y=a+bX indicates:
    A. Change in Y per unit change in X
    B. Mean of Y
    C. Intercept
    D. None
    Answer: A


    46. If r = 0.8, coefficient of determination r2=?
    A. 0.64
    B. 0.8
    C. 1.6
    D. 0.4
    Answer: A


    47. In multiple regression, number of independent variables is:
    A. More than one
    B. One
    C. Two only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    48. Regression coefficient can be negative.
    Answer: True


    49. Correlation implies causation.
    Answer: False
    Explanation: Correlation shows association, not cause-effect relationship.*


    50. Spearman’s rank correlation is suitable for:
    A. Ordinal data
    B. Ratio data
    C. Interval data
    D. None
    Answer: A

    SECTION F – OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT


    51. Operations Management primarily deals with:
    A. Conversion of inputs into outputs efficiently
    B. Marketing of products
    C. Accounting for profit
    D. Setting financial goals
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Operations Management focuses on optimizing production and service processes to deliver value.*


    52. The main objective of Operations Management is:
    A. Increase efficiency and effectiveness
    B. Maximize advertising
    C. Minimize competition
    D. None
    Answer: A


    53. Which of the following is not a function of Operations Management?
    A. Product design
    B. Plant layout
    C. Inventory control
    D. Stock valuation
    Answer: D


    54. Productivity is defined as:
    A. Output / Input
    B. Input / Output
    C. Profit / Cost
    D. Cost / Revenue
    Answer: A


    55. A major decision area in Operations Management includes:
    A. Facility location
    B. Promotion mix
    C. Financial investment
    D. Tax planning
    Answer: A


    56. Facility location decision is critical because:
    A. It affects cost, accessibility, and efficiency
    B. It changes daily
    C. It has no long-term impact
    D. None
    Answer: A


    57. The process layout is most suitable for:
    A. Job production
    B. Mass production
    C. Continuous production
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: In job production, different processes are grouped by function (e.g., hospital, repair shop).*


    58. Product layout is ideal when:
    A. Volume is high and variety is low
    B. Volume is low and variety is high
    C. Demand is uncertain
    D. None
    Answer: A


    59. A fixed-position layout is used in:
    A. Shipbuilding and construction projects
    B. Assembly lines
    C. Textile manufacturing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    60. “Cellular Layout” combines advantages of:
    A. Process and Product Layout
    B. Job and Project Layout
    C. Fixed and Functional Layout
    D. None
    Answer: A


    SECTION G – ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP)


    61. ERP stands for:
    A. Enterprise Resource Planning
    B. Enterprise Research Process
    C. Efficient Resource Planning
    D. None
    Answer: A


    62. ERP is best described as:
    A. An integrated information system covering all functional areas
    B. A financial planning tool
    C. A marketing strategy
    D. A manufacturing technique
    Answer: A


    63. The core modules of ERP typically include:
    A. Finance, HR, Production, SCM, CRM
    B. Advertising and Design
    C. Tax and Audit
    D. None
    Answer: A


    64. Which of the following is an ERP vendor?
    A. SAP
    B. Oracle
    C. Microsoft Dynamics
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


    65. A major challenge in ERP implementation is:
    A. Resistance to change
    B. System integration
    C. High cost
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


    66. ERP improves decision-making by:
    A. Providing real-time data and integrated reports
    B. Isolating departments
    C. Reducing transparency
    D. None
    Answer: A


    67. The first step in ERP implementation is:
    A. Requirement analysis and planning
    B. Testing
    C. Data migration
    D. Training
    Answer: A


    68. One of the main benefits of ERP is:
    A. Reduced redundancy and duplication of data
    B. Increased manual work
    C. Fragmented systems
    D. None
    Answer: A


    69. ERP integrates:
    A. Information across departments
    B. Competitors’ data
    C. Market research
    D. None
    Answer: A


    70. ERP’s biggest advantage in supply chain management is:
    A. Visibility of inventory and orders
    B. Advertisement design
    C. Labour reduction
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION H – SCHEDULING, SEQUENCING & MONITORING


    71. Scheduling refers to:
    A. Determining when and in what order jobs are performed
    B. Assigning machines to workers
    C. Estimating production cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    72. Loading is:
    A. Assigning jobs to specific machines or departments
    B. Recording sales
    C. Maintenance activity
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Sequencing is about:
    A. Deciding priority of jobs
    B. Setting targets
    C. Estimating time
    D. None
    Answer: A


    74. The rule “SPT” in sequencing means:
    A. Shortest Processing Time
    B. Standard Production Target
    C. Sequential Process Time
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. Monitoring in production control ensures:
    A. Adherence to schedule and corrective actions
    B. Pricing policy
    C. Quality audit only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    76. “Dispatching” in production control refers to:
    A. Issuing work orders to start operations
    B. Planning demand
    C. Procurement
    D. None
    Answer: A


    77. Which of the following minimizes average job flow time?
    A. SPT rule
    B. FCFS rule
    C. EDD rule
    D. LPT rule
    Answer: A


    78. A Gantt chart is used for:
    A. Scheduling and progress tracking
    B. Statistical analysis
    C. Regression analysis
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. Bottleneck operations are:
    A. Work centers limiting system capacity
    B. Unused machines
    C. Idle resources
    D. None
    Answer: A


    80. Effective scheduling results in:
    A. Improved utilization, reduced idle time, timely delivery
    B. Increased cost
    C. Delayed production
    D. None
    Answer: A


    SECTION I – QUALITY MANAGEMENT


    81. Quality means:
    A. Fitness for intended purpose
    B. High cost
    C. Luxury
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. Statistical Quality Control (SQC) uses:
    A. Control charts
    B. Inventory models
    C. Demand forecasting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    83. Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasizes:
    A. Continuous improvement and customer satisfaction
    B. Inspection only
    C. Reduction in workforce
    D. None
    Answer: A


    84. Kaizen refers to:
    A. Continuous small improvements
    B. Employee layoffs
    C. Major innovation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. Benchmarking means:
    A. Comparing performance with best practices
    B. Copying competitors blindly
    C. Auditing accounts
    D. None
    Answer: A


    86. Six Sigma aims at:
    A. Reducing defects to less than 3.4 per million opportunities
    B. Achieving 100% output
    C. Increasing production cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. The DMAIC cycle stands for:
    A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
    B. Develop, Manage, Audit, Implement, Correct
    C. None
    Answer: A


    88. ISO 9000 is related to:
    A. Quality management system standards
    B. Environmental norms
    C. Cost control
    D. None
    Answer: A


    89. A Pareto chart identifies:
    A. Major causes contributing most to problems (80/20 rule)
    B. Average performance
    C. Random variation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    90. Control limits in control charts are set at:
    A. ±3σ
    B. ±1σ
    C. ±2σ
    D. None
    Answer: A


    SECTION J – OPERATIONS RESEARCH (OR)


    91. Operations Research is:
    A. Application of scientific methods to decision-making
    B. Human resource study
    C. Market analysis
    D. None
    Answer: A


    92. Objective of Operations Research is:
    A. Optimization of limited resources
    B. Cost increase
    C. Sales increase only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    93. The transportation model aims to:
    A. Minimize cost of shipping goods between sources and destinations
    B. Forecast demand
    C. Schedule maintenance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    94. The initial feasible solution in transportation problems can be found by:
    A. North-West Corner, Least Cost, VAM
    B. Linear Regression
    C. PERT
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. Queuing theory deals with:
    A. Waiting lines and service systems
    B. Inventory planning
    C. Facility layout
    D. None
    Answer: A


    96. Arrival rate (λ) and service rate (μ) are parameters in:
    A. Queuing model
    B. Regression model
    C. Inventory model
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Decision theory helps in:
    A. Selecting best alternative under risk or uncertainty
    B. Marketing segmentation
    C. Labour planning
    D. None
    Answer: A


    98. In PERT, expected time is calculated as:

    te=a+4m+b6

    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A


    99. Critical path in CPM represents:
    A. Longest path determining project duration
    B. Shortest path
    C. Average path
    D. None
    Answer: A


    100. Slack time indicates:
    A. Maximum delay possible without affecting project completion
    B. Idle labour
    C. Cost overrun
    D. None
    Answer: A

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-8

    Statistics for Management, Operations, and Operations Research

    PART 1: STATISTICS FOR MANAGEMENT


    1. Concept and Scope

    Statistics is both a science and an art of collecting, classifying, presenting, analyzing, and interpreting numerical data to aid rational decision-making under uncertainty.

    It provides quantitative foundations for managerial functions such as planning, control, and forecasting.

    Branches of Statistics

    1. Descriptive Statistics – summarizing data through tables, charts, and averages.

    2. Inferential Statistics – drawing conclusions about populations from samples using probability theory.

    Role of Statistics in Management

    • Marketing: Market surveys, consumer behaviour analysis.

    • Finance: Portfolio risk analysis, stock price movements.

    • Production: Quality control, forecasting demand.

    • HR: Wage analysis, performance evaluation.

    • Operations: Scheduling, process optimization.


    2. Data and Its Types

    A. Based on Source

    • Primary Data: Collected first-hand for a specific study (surveys, interviews).

    • Secondary Data: Collected earlier for another purpose (reports, journals, databases).

    B. Based on Nature

    • Qualitative (Attribute): Categorical (e.g., gender, brand preference).

    • Quantitative (Variable): Numeric (e.g., income, profit).

    C. Based on Measurement Scale

    Scale Meaning Example
    Nominal Classification only Gender, religion
    Ordinal Rank order Satisfaction level
    Interval Equal intervals, no true zero Temperature (°C)
    Ratio True zero and intervals Sales, weight

    🟩 3. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY

    Central tendency expresses the “typical” or “representative” value of a dataset.


    A. Arithmetic Mean

    Xˉ=XN

    For grouped data:

    Xˉ=fXf

    Merits: Simple, algebraically tractable.
    Limitations: Affected by extreme values.


    B. Median

    The middle value when data are arranged in order.

    Median=L+(N2CF)f×h

    • Less affected by outliers.

    • Appropriate for skewed data.


    C. Mode

    Most frequent value.
    For grouped data:

    Mode=L+(f1f0)(2f1f0f2)×h

    Used for qualitative data like brand or color preference.


    D. Relationship among Mean, Median, and Mode

    Mode=3(Median)2(Mean)

    Useful for estimating one measure from the other two.


    🟩 4. MEASURES OF DISPERSION

    Dispersion measures how values deviate from the average — indicating consistency or risk.


    Measure Formula Interpretation
    Range Max − Min Simple measure of spread
    Quartile Deviation (Q.D.) (Q₃ − Q₁) / 2 Dispersion of middle 50%
    Mean Deviation (M.D.) (\frac{\sum X – \bar{X}
    Variance (σ²) (XXˉ)2N
    Fundamental for inferential statistics
    Standard Deviation (σ) √Variance Most widely used measure
    Coefficient of Variation (CV) σXˉ×100 Compare variability between datasets

    Example:
    Dataset A: Mean = 50, SD = 10 → CV = 20%
    Dataset B: Mean = 80, SD = 16 → CV = 20%
    → Both have equal relative variability.


    🟩 5. PROBABILITY AND PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTIONS


    A. Concept of Probability

    Probability quantifies the likelihood of occurrence of an event.

    P(A)=Favourable outcomesTotal outcomes

    Range: 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

    • P(A) = 1: Certain event

    • P(A) = 0: Impossible event


    B. Rules of Probability

    1. Addition Rule:
      If A and B are mutually exclusive,

      P(AB)=P(A)+P(B)

    2. Multiplication Rule:
      For independent events,

      P(AB)=P(A)×P(B)

    3. Conditional Probability:

      P(AB)=P(AB)P(B)


    C. Probability Distributions

    (1) Binomial Distribution

    Discrete distribution used for number of successes in n independent trials.

    P(X=x)=(nx)px(1p)nx

    • Mean = np

    • Variance = np(1−p)

    Example: Probability of 3 defective bulbs out of 10 when defect rate = 0.1.


    (2) Poisson Distribution

    For rare events (e.g., accidents per day).

    P(X=x)=emmxx!

    • Mean = Variance = m

    Used when n → large, p → small, and np = constant.


    (3) Normal Distribution

    Continuous, bell-shaped curve.

    f(x)=1σ2πe(xμ)22σ2

    Properties:

    • Symmetrical about mean.

    • 68.26% within ±1σ, 95.45% within ±2σ, 99.73% within ±3σ.
      Used in hypothesis testing and control charts.


    (4) Exponential Distribution

    Used to model time between events (e.g., waiting time).

    f(x)=λeλx,x0

    Mean = 1/λ
    Variance = 1/λ²


    🟩 6. DATA COLLECTION AND QUESTIONNAIRE DESIGN


    Data Collection

    • Primary: Through direct observation, survey, or experimentation.

    • Secondary: Government reports, journals, internet sources.

    Questionnaire Design

    1. Define objectives

    2. Select information to collect

    3. Choose question type:

      • Open-ended (qualitative insights)

      • Closed-ended (quantitative analysis)

    4. Logical sequencing (easy → complex)

    5. Pilot testing and revision

    Common Mistakes: Ambiguous wording, double-barreled questions, poor scaling.


    🟩 7. SAMPLING THEORY


    A. Basic Concepts

    • Population (Universe): Entire group under study

    • Sample: Representative subset

    • Sampling Unit: Element from which data is collected

    B. Steps in Sampling Process

    1. Define population

    2. Select sampling frame

    3. Decide sample size

    4. Choose technique

    5. Collect and analyze


    C. Probability Sampling Techniques

    Method Description When to Use
    Simple Random Equal chance for each unit

    Small, homogeneous population

    Systematic Every kth item selected Sequential data
    Stratified

    Population divided into strata, then random sample

    Heterogeneous population
    Cluster

    Dividing into clusters, sampling entire cluster

    Wide geographical dispersion

    D. Non-Probability Sampling Techniques

    Method Description
    Convenience Easy to reach sample (quick but biased)
    Judgmental

    Based on researcher’s expertise

    Quota

    Fixed proportion from categories

    Snowball Existing respondents recruit new ones

    🟩 8. HYPOTHESIS TESTING


    A. Key Definitions

    • Parameter: Numerical summary of population (μ, σ²).

    • Statistic: Calculated from sample (x̄, s²).

    Goal: Use sample data to infer about population.


    B. Hypothesis Types

    • Null Hypothesis (H₀): No significant difference.

    • Alternative Hypothesis (H₁): Significant difference exists.

    Errors:

    • Type I (α): Rejecting true H₀

    • Type II (β): Accepting false H₀


    C. Testing Steps

    1. Formulate H₀ and H₁

    2. Choose significance level (α = 0.05 or 0.01)

    3. Choose appropriate test statistic (Z, t, F, χ²)

    4. Compute test statistic

    5. Compare with critical value

    6. Draw conclusion


    D. Parametric Tests

    Test Application Condition
    Z-Test Large samples, known σ n > 30
    t-Test Small samples, unknown σ n < 30
    F-Test Compare variances Ratio test
    Paired t-Test Before–after comparison Related samples

    E. Non-Parametric Test

    Chi-Square (χ²) Test:

    χ2=(OE)2E

    Used for testing independence or goodness of fit.

    Example: Relationship between gender and brand preference.


    🟩 9. CORRELATION AND REGRESSION


    A. Correlation

    Measures strength and direction of linear relationship.

    Karl Pearson’s Coefficient (r):

    r=Σ(XXˉ)(YYˉ)Σ(XXˉ)2Σ(YYˉ)2

    Range: -1 to +1
    r = +1 → Perfect positive
    r = -1 → Perfect negative


    B. Rank Correlation (Spearman’s ρ)

    ρ=16ΣD2n(n21)

    Used when data are ordinal (ranks).


    C. Regression Analysis

    Used to predict value of dependent variable (Y) from independent variable (X).

    Simple Linear Regression:

    Y=a+bX

    where
    b=Σ(XXˉ)(YYˉ)Σ(XXˉ)2

    Multiple Regression:
    Y=a+b1X1+b2X2+...+bnXn


    🟩 10. OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT


    A. Concept

    Operations Management deals with conversion of inputs (materials, labour, capital, information) into outputs (goods/services) efficiently.


    B. Functions

    • Product design & process selection

    • Plant layout and facility location

    • Capacity planning

    • Scheduling and inventory control

    • Maintenance and quality management


    C. Objectives

    1. Improve productivity

    2. Optimize resources

    3. Ensure quality and timely delivery

    4. Minimize cost


    🟩 11. FACILITY LOCATION AND LAYOUT


    Facility Location

    The strategic decision of choosing where to situate production or service facilities.

    Quantitative Methods:

    • Centre of Gravity Method: minimizes transport cost

    • Break-even Analysis: compares fixed and variable cost by site


    Plant Layout

    Arrangement of machines, departments, or work areas.

    Type Features Example
    Product Layout Line flow, high volume Automobile plant
    Process Layout Functional grouping Hospitals
    Fixed Position

    Product remains stationary

    Shipbuilding
    Cellular Layout Hybrid for efficiency Electronics plant

    🟩 12. ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP)


    A. Concept

    ERP integrates core business functions through a central database.

    ERP Modules:

    1. Finance

    2. HR

    3. Production

    4. SCM

    5. CRM


    B. ERP Implementation Steps

    1. Project planning

    2. Requirement analysis

    3. System design & customization

    4. Data migration

    5. Training

    6. Testing & Go-live

    Benefits: Integration, transparency, faster reporting.
    Challenges: High cost, change resistance, data migration errors.


    🟩 13. PRODUCTION SCHEDULING AND CONTROL


    A. Loading: Assigning jobs to machines.

    B. Scheduling: Determining when and in what sequence jobs are processed.

    C. Sequencing: Prioritizing jobs (rules: FCFS, SPT, EDD).

    D. Monitoring: Tracking progress, revising schedules.


    🟩 14. QUALITY MANAGEMENT


    A. Quality Concepts

    Quality = fitness for purpose.
    Quality management ensures that output meets customer expectations.


    B. Statistical Quality Control (SQC)

    Uses control charts (mean, range, p-chart, c-chart) to monitor process variation.


    C. Total Quality Management (TQM)

    An organization-wide philosophy emphasizing continuous improvement and customer satisfaction.

    Principles:

    1. Customer orientation

    2. Continuous improvement (Kaizen)

    3. Employee involvement

    4. Scientific decision-making


    D. Quality Tools

    • Control Charts

    • Fishbone Diagram (Ishikawa)

    • Pareto Analysis (80/20 Rule)

    • Check Sheets, Histograms, Scatter Diagrams


    E. Kaizen

    Continuous small improvements involving all employees.

    F. Benchmarking

    Comparing performance with best-in-class organizations.

    G. Six Sigma

    A disciplined methodology targeting defect reduction to 3.4 defects per million opportunities (DPMO).
    Focuses on DMAIC cycle – Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control.

    H. ISO 9000 Series

    Global quality management system standards (documentation, process control, auditing).


    🟩 15. OPERATIONS RESEARCH (OR)


    Definition

    Operations Research applies scientific and mathematical models to managerial decision-making for optimization of limited resources.


    Applications:

    • Production scheduling

    • Inventory control

    • Transportation and distribution

    • Network planning

    • Queuing and service design


    A. Transportation Problem

    Objective: Minimize total cost of shipping goods.

    Z=i=1mj=1nCijXij

    Methods:

    1. Initial solution → North-West Corner, Least Cost, Vogel’s Approximation (VAM).

    2. Optimality test → MODI method.


    B. Queuing Theory

    Studies waiting line systems.

    Parameters:
    λ = Arrival rate, μ = Service rate
    System utilization: ρ = λ / μ
    Objective → minimize waiting cost + service cost.


    C. Decision Theory

    Used when decisions must be made under risk or uncertainty.

    Criteria:

    • Maximax (optimistic)

    • Maximin (pessimistic)

    • Minimax regret (Savage)

    • Expected monetary value (probabilistic)


    D. PERT / CPM (Project Scheduling)

    Technique Time Estimate Nature
    PERT Probabilistic (a, m, b) Uncertain projects
    CPM Deterministic Routine projects

    PERT Expected Time:

    te=a+4m+b6

    Variance =(ba6)2

    Critical Path: Longest path through network; determines project duration.
    Slack Time: LSTEST → available delay time.

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-7 MCQs

    Consumer Behaviour, Branding, SCM, CRM, Services, Retail & Emerging Marketing


    🔹 SECTION A – CONSUMER BEHAVIOUR: THEORIES & MODELS

    1. Consumer behaviour studies:
    A. How consumers decide to buy and use products
    B. Production efficiency
    C. Pricing strategies
    D. Government policy
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Consumer behaviour explores the decision-making process behind need recognition, purchase, and consumption.*


    2. The Engel–Kollat–Blackwell (EKB) model includes:
    A. Problem recognition → Information search → Evaluation → Purchase → Post-purchase
    B. Awareness → Interest → Desire → Action
    C. Production → Marketing → Sales → Feedback
    D. None
    Answer: A


    3. According to Freud’s Psychoanalytic Theory, consumer choices are:
    A. Based on rational logic
    B. Driven by unconscious motives
    C. Influenced by laws
    D. Fully predictable
    Answer: B


    4. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs suggests motivation begins with:
    A. Self-actualization
    B. Safety
    C. Physiological needs
    D. Esteem
    Answer: C


    5. Which theory explains behaviour as learned through experience?
    A. Learning theory
    B. Economic theory
    C. Psychoanalytic theory
    D. Social class theory
    Answer: A


    6. The “Howard–Sheth” model explains:
    A. Industrial buying process
    B. Learning-based consumer decision model
    C. Post-purchase dissonance
    D. None
    Answer: B


    7. The “Nicosia Model” emphasizes:
    A. Firm–consumer communication
    B. Product design
    C. Market segmentation
    D. Price elasticity
    Answer: A


    8. The most comprehensive model of consumer decision-making is:
    A. EKB model
    B. Howard–Sheth model
    C. Pavlov model
    D. Freud model
    Answer: B


    9. “Cognitive dissonance” occurs when:
    A. Consumer experiences conflict after purchase
    B. Product performs well
    C. Consumer is loyal
    D. None
    Answer: A


    10. Derived demand applies to:
    A. Industrial buyers
    B. Final consumers
    C. Retailers
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Industrial demand is derived from consumer demand for finished goods.*


    🔹 SECTION B – FACTORS & TYPES OF BUYING BEHAVIOUR

    11. Which is not a factor affecting consumer behaviour?
    A. Cultural
    B. Social
    C. Technological
    D. Astrological
    Answer: D


    12. Reference groups are part of:
    A. Social factors
    B. Cultural factors
    C. Psychological factors
    D. None
    Answer: A


    13. Industrial buying involves:
    A. Multiple participants
    B. Emotional motives
    C. Simple decisions
    D. None
    Answer: A


    14. The buygrid framework was given by:
    A. Webster and Wind
    B. Porter
    C. Kotler
    D. Sheth
    Answer: A


    15. Straight rebuy refers to:
    A. Routine purchase without modification
    B. New task buying
    C. Modified buying
    D. Emergency buying
    Answer: A


    16. Modified rebuy means:
    A. Purchase with minor changes
    B. Completely new product
    C. Buying same quantity
    D. Automatic reorder
    Answer: A


    17. The most complex buying situation is:
    A. New task buying
    B. Straight rebuy
    C. Routine response
    D. Impulse buying
    Answer: A


    18. Consumer personality traits affect:
    A. Perception and buying decisions
    B. Only price
    C. Supply chain
    D. None
    Answer: A


    19. Family life cycle influences:
    A. Purchase pattern
    B. Brand image
    C. Industrial logistics
    D. None
    Answer: A


    20. Learning in consumer behaviour refers to:
    A. Permanent change in behaviour from experience
    B. Advertising
    C. Instinctive acts
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION C – BRAND MANAGEMENT

    21. A brand is defined as per AMA as:
    A. A name, term, symbol or design identifying a seller
    B. Company trademark only
    C. Packaging design
    D. Logo design
    Answer: A


    22. Brand equity represents:
    A. The value added by brand to product
    B. Product cost
    C. Company revenue
    D. Advertising expense
    Answer: A


    23. Aaker’s model includes all except:
    A. Brand awareness
    B. Brand associations
    C. Production process
    D. Brand loyalty
    Answer: C


    24. Keller’s CBBE model focuses on:
    A. Building strong brand resonance
    B. Reducing cost
    C. Product line expansion
    D. None
    Answer: A


    25. Brand resonance in Keller’s model represents:
    A. Deep customer connection
    B. Initial awareness
    C. Advertising reach
    D. Packaging
    Answer: A


    26. Brand Asset Valuator (BAV) includes:
    A. Differentiation, relevance, esteem, knowledge
    B. Profit, cost, efficiency, loyalty
    C. Price, quality, durability, trust
    D. None
    Answer: A


    27. Brand extension refers to:
    A. Using existing brand name for new products
    B. Repackaging old products
    C. Price discounting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    28. Co-branding involves:
    A. Two brands joining for joint promotion
    B. Copying brands
    C. Multiple stores
    D. None
    Answer: A


    29. Brand loyalty is highest when:
    A. Customer refuses to switch despite alternatives
    B. Customer buys only on sale
    C. Product is new
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. Brand equity provides:
    A. Ability to charge price premium
    B. Lower costs only
    C. No benefit
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION D – SUPPLY CHAIN & LOGISTICS

    31. SCM integrates:
    A. Procurement to customer delivery
    B. Only transportation
    C. Only warehousing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    32. The main objective of SCM is:
    A. Delivering value at lowest total cost
    B. Reducing product quality
    C. Increasing stockouts
    D. None
    Answer: A


    33. Logistics focuses on:
    A. Physical movement and storage of goods
    B. Product pricing
    C. Advertising
    D. None
    Answer: A


    34. SCM driver not included below is:
    A. Facilities
    B. Inventory
    C. Transportation
    D. Advertising
    Answer: D


    35. Inbound logistics refers to:
    A. Movement of materials to the manufacturer
    B. Distribution to customers
    C. Reverse flow
    D. None
    Answer: A


    36. Outbound logistics involves:
    A. Delivering finished goods to market
    B. Importing components
    C. Storing raw material
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. Push system is based on:
    A. Forecasting demand
    B. Customer order first
    C. On-demand production
    D. None
    Answer: A


    38. Pull system starts production:
    A. After customer demand arises
    B. In advance
    C. Periodically
    D. None
    Answer: A


    39. The main benefit of SCM integration is:
    A. Reduced lead time and higher satisfaction
    B. Increased conflict
    C. Higher inventory
    D. None
    Answer: A


    40. Sales force management involves:
    A. Recruiting, training, motivating, compensating
    B. Advertising
    C. Accounting
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION E – SERVICE MARKETING

    41. Services are different from goods because they are:
    A. Intangible, inseparable, perishable, variable
    B. Tangible
    C. Durable
    D. None
    Answer: A


    42. The 7 Ps of service marketing include:
    A. Product, Price, Place, Promotion, People, Process, Physical Evidence
    B. Product, Price, Process only
    C. 4Ps only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    43. SERVQUAL model was developed by:
    A. Parasuraman, Zeithaml, Berry
    B. Porter
    C. Aaker
    D. Kotler
    Answer: A


    44. “Reliability” in SERVQUAL refers to:
    A. Consistency in performance
    B. Speed
    C. Tangibles
    D. None
    Answer: A


    45. Service perishability means:
    A. Can’t be stored for future
    B. Can be reused
    C. Easily repaired
    D. None
    Answer: A


    46. Service recovery means:
    A. Correcting service failure effectively
    B. Increasing price
    C. Increasing process time
    D. None
    Answer: A


    47. People element in service marketing refers to:
    A. Employees and customers involved in service delivery
    B. Advertising team only
    C. Government officials
    D. None
    Answer: A


    48. Tangibles in services refer to:
    A. Physical facilities, appearance
    B. Service process
    C. Brand logo
    D. None
    Answer: A


    49. The key challenge in service marketing is:
    A. Managing variability and quality consistency
    B. Tangible product issues
    C. Advertising frequency
    D. None
    Answer: A


    50. Service firms can differentiate through:
    A. People, process, physical evidence
    B. Price only
    C. Advertising only
    D. None
    Answer: A

    SECTION F – CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MARKETING (CRM)

    51. CRM stands for:
    A. Customer Relationship Management
    B. Consumer Revenue Management
    C. Client Retention Marketing
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: CRM focuses on creating and maintaining long-term profitable relationships with customers.*


    52. The main objective of CRM is to:
    A. Retain customers and increase loyalty
    B. Maximize short-term sales
    C. Reduce prices
    D. Limit communication
    Answer: A


    53. Operational CRM deals with:
    A. Automation of sales, marketing, and service operations
    B. Customer data analytics
    C. Strategic alliances
    D. None
    Answer: A


    54. Analytical CRM focuses on:
    A. Data analysis and customer insights
    B. Call center operations
    C. Recruitment
    D. None
    Answer: A


    55. Collaborative CRM means:
    A. Integrating all communication channels
    B. Social media marketing
    C. Outsourcing marketing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    56. The major benefit of CRM is:
    A. Enhanced customer satisfaction and retention
    B. Increased cost
    C. Reduced profit
    D. None
    Answer: A


    57. Customer Lifetime Value (CLV) represents:
    A. Net profit from a customer over entire relationship period
    B. One-time transaction
    C. Purchase per month
    D. None
    Answer: A


    58. Formula for CLV includes:
    A. Average purchase × Frequency × Lifespan − Acquisition cost
    B. Sales ÷ Costs
    C. Total profit × Tax rate
    D. None
    Answer: A


    59. Loyalty programs are part of:
    A. CRM retention strategy
    B. Pricing strategy
    C. Promotion
    D. None
    Answer: A


    60. The main tool for CRM implementation is:
    A. CRM software and database system
    B. Accounting books
    C. HR portal
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION G – RETAIL MARKETING

    61. Retailing means:
    A. Selling goods/services directly to final consumers
    B. Selling raw materials
    C. Wholesale trade
    D. None
    Answer: A


    62. The key function of retailing is:
    A. Breaking bulk and providing convenience
    B. Producing goods
    C. Advertising only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    63. A department store offers:
    A. Several product categories under one roof
    B. Only food items
    C. Only one brand
    D. None
    Answer: A


    64. A supermarket is characterized by:
    A. Self-service and low margins
    B. Luxury goods
    C. High price
    D. None
    Answer: A


    65. Specialty stores focus on:
    A. Narrow product range but deep assortment
    B. All product categories
    C. Cheap items
    D. None
    Answer: A


    66. Discount stores compete primarily on:
    A. Price
    B. Product innovation
    C. Quality
    D. Service differentiation
    Answer: A


    67. Convenience stores target:
    A. Routine, emergency, or impulse items
    B. Industrial products
    C. Luxury goods
    D. None
    Answer: A


    68. E-tailing refers to:
    A. Selling via internet or online platform
    B. Door-to-door selling
    C. Wholesale
    D. None
    Answer: A


    69. Example of a contractual retail format:
    A. Franchise (e.g., McDonald’s)
    B. Online portal
    C. Local kirana store
    D. None
    Answer: A


    70. Recent trend in Indian retail:
    A. Omni-channel integration (online + offline)
    B. Cash-only business
    C. Elimination of technology
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION H – EMERGING TRENDS: E-MARKETING, DIGITAL & GREEN MARKETING

    71. e-Marketing means:
    A. Using internet and digital tools for marketing
    B. Direct door-to-door selling
    C. Telemarketing only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    72. Direct marketing aims at:
    A. Generating immediate consumer response
    B. Brand awareness only
    C. Price reduction
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Digital marketing includes:
    A. SEO, SEM, social media, content marketing
    B. Only online ads
    C. Offline billboards
    D. None
    Answer: A


    74. Advantage of digital marketing:
    A. Measurable results and precise targeting
    B. Random reach
    C. High fixed cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. “SEO” in digital marketing stands for:
    A. Search Engine Optimization
    B. Sales Effectiveness Operations
    C. System Efficiency Optimization
    D. None
    Answer: A


    76. “SEM” stands for:
    A. Search Engine Marketing
    B. Social Engagement Metrics
    C. Sales and Earnings Management
    D. None
    Answer: A


    77. Green marketing refers to:
    A. Promoting environmentally friendly products
    B. Discount selling
    C. Digital-only advertising
    D. None
    Answer: A


    78. Example of green marketing practice:
    A. Using biodegradable packaging
    B. Plastic overuse
    C. Excess energy usage
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. The main objective of green marketing is:
    A. Environmental sustainability & ethical branding
    B. High profit only
    C. Short-term promotion
    D. None
    Answer: A


    80. The major challenge in e-marketing is:
    A. Data privacy and security
    B. Warehouse space
    C. Transportation
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION I – INTERNATIONAL MARKETING

    81. International marketing involves:
    A. Marketing goods/services beyond domestic borders
    B. Domestic sales
    C. Internal management
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. Major reason for international expansion:
    A. Market diversification and growth
    B. Reducing customers
    C. Limiting brand scope
    D. None
    Answer: A


    83. Exporting is suitable for:
    A. Firms beginning international operations
    B. Large MNCs only
    C. NGOs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    84. Licensing allows:
    A. Foreign company to use firm’s technology/brand for fee
    B. Joint ownership
    C. 100% subsidiary
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. Franchising involves:
    A. Replication of brand operations abroad under contract
    B. Simple exporting
    C. Buying raw material
    D. None
    Answer: A


    86. Joint venture means:
    A. Partnership between domestic and foreign firm
    B. 100% ownership
    C. Technology transfer
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. Wholly owned subsidiary implies:
    A. Full ownership by parent firm abroad
    B. Joint partnership
    C. Outsourcing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    88. Standardization in global marketing means:
    A. Using same marketing strategy across countries
    B. Customizing for each market
    C. Changing product for local tastes
    D. None
    Answer: A


    89. Adaptation strategy means:
    A. Modifying marketing mix to local conditions
    B. Using identical global products
    C. Reducing prices globally
    D. None
    Answer: A


    90. “Glocalization” refers to:
    A. Think global, act local
    B. Domestic only
    C. Product standardization only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION J – INTERNATIONAL MARKETING MIX & ENVIRONMENT

    91. International product strategy includes:
    A. Standardization vs. adaptation
    B. Branding only
    C. Packaging only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    92. International pricing must consider:
    A. Exchange rates, tariffs, local costs
    B. Only domestic taxes
    C. Production cost
    D. None
    Answer: A


    93. Place strategy in international marketing involves:
    A. Choosing distribution channels abroad
    B. Domestic retailing
    C. Online ads
    D. None
    Answer: A


    94. International promotion faces challenges of:
    A. Cultural and language differences
    B. Technology gap
    C. Cost reduction
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. A global brand is one that:
    A. Has consistent identity and presence worldwide
    B. Sells only locally
    C. Changes name by region
    D. None
    Answer: A


    96. Example of global standardization:
    A. Coca-Cola’s uniform brand image worldwide
    B. Local product name variation
    C. Domestic sales
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Political risk in international business refers to:
    A. Instability in host country affecting operations
    B. Advertising issues
    C. Product design
    D. None
    Answer: A


    98. Currency fluctuation affects:
    A. Export pricing and profitability
    B. HR policies
    C. Customer service
    D. None
    Answer: A


    99. Cultural sensitivity in global marketing requires:
    A. Understanding symbols, colors, and language of host country
    B. Using same ad everywhere
    C. Ignoring local customs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    100. The ultimate aim of international marketing is:
    A. Global brand presence with local acceptance
    B. Profit only
    C. Short-term expansion
    D. None
    Answer: A

     

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-7

    Consumer Behaviour, Branding, SCM, CRM, Services, Retail & Emerging Marketing

    1. CONSUMER AND INDUSTRIAL BUYING BEHAVIOUR

    🔸 Meaning

    Consumer behaviour is the study of how individuals or groups select, buy, use, and dispose of goods, services, experiences, or ideas to satisfy their needs and wants.

    It combines psychology, sociology, economics, and marketing to understand why people buy.


    🔸 Characteristics

    1. Dynamic process – changes with trends and technology

    2. Involves emotional and rational factors

    3. Influenced by cultural and social context

    4. Varies by product type and involvement


    🔸 Consumer Decision Process (EKB Model)

    Five Stages:

    1. Problem recognition – awareness of need.

    2. Information search – internal (memory) & external (advertising, reviews).

    3. Evaluation of alternatives – comparing products based on attributes.

    4. Purchase decision – choosing a specific brand/product.

    5. Post-purchase behaviour – satisfaction or cognitive dissonance.


    🔸 Theories of Consumer Behaviour

    Theory / Model Proponent Key Idea
    Economic Theory Classical economists Consumer aims to maximize utility with limited income.
    Psychoanalytic Theory Sigmund Freud

    Behaviour driven by subconscious motives (Id, Ego, Superego).

    Learning Theory

    Ivan Pavlov (classical conditioning), Skinner (operant)

    Behaviour learned through stimulus–response–reinforcement.
    Howard–Sheth Model John Howard & Jagdish Sheth

    Explains buying as learning over time, involving input, process, and output variables.

    Nicosia Model Francesco Nicosia

    Links marketing communication with consumer attitudes and purchase.

    Engel–Kollat–Blackwell (EKB) Model Engel, Kollat, Blackwell

    Five-step process emphasizing feedback and learning.

    Maslow’s Motivation Theory Abraham Maslow

    Needs arranged hierarchically: physiological → safety → social → esteem → self-actualization.


    🔸 Factors Influencing Consumer Behaviour

    A. Cultural: Culture, subculture, social class
    B. Social: Reference groups, family, role and status
    C. Personal: Age, lifestyle, occupation, economic status
    D. Psychological: Motivation, perception, learning, beliefs, attitudes


    🔸 Industrial (Organizational) Buying Behaviour

    Industrial buying is complex, formal, and multi-personal.
    Buyers purchase raw materials, equipment, or components for further production or resale.

    Participants in Buying Center (Buygrid Framework):

    1. Initiators – recognize need

    2. Users – actually use the product

    3. Influencers – provide specs

    4. Deciders – approve supplier

    5. Buyers – place the order

    6. Gatekeepers – control information flow

    Types of Buying Situations:

    • New Task – first-time purchase

    • Modified Rebuy – some changes

    • Straight Rebuy – routine re-order

    Industrial Buyer Motivations:

    • Economic factors (cost, efficiency, service)

    • Relationship quality (trust, reliability)


    🟩 2. BRAND MANAGEMENT

    🔸 Definition

    A brand is a distinct identity (name, symbol, logo, design, or combination) that identifies a product and differentiates it from competitors.
    (According to the AMA: “A name, term, design, symbol, or any feature that identifies one seller’s good or service.”)


    🔸 Roles of Brands

    • Identification: Distinguish products

    • Differentiation: Build positioning

    • Trust & Loyalty: Create repeat purchases

    • Emotional Appeal: Build relationships

    • Financial Asset: Adds monetary value (brand equity)


    🔸 Brand Equity

    The value added by the brand to the product.

    Key Dimensions:

    1. Brand Awareness – recognition & recall

    2. Brand Associations – mental connections

    3. Perceived Quality – customer’s perception of excellence

    4. Brand Loyalty – repeat buying

    5. Other Assets – patents, trademarks


    🔸 Models of Brand Equity

    Model Proponent Key Elements
    Aaker’s Model David A. Aaker Awareness, associations, loyalty, perceived quality.
    Keller’s CBBE Pyramid Kevin Lane Keller

    4 stages – Identity, Meaning, Response, Relationship (Salience → Performance → Judgments/Feelings → Resonance).

    Brand Asset Valuator (BAV) Young & Rubicam

    Differentiation, Relevance, Esteem, Knowledge.


    🔸 Branding Strategies

    1. Individual Brand Name – Tide, Ariel, Pampers (P&G)

    2. Family / Umbrella Brand – Sony, Samsung

    3. Co-Branding – Intel Inside + HP

    4. Brand Extension – Dabur Honey → Dabur Juice

    5. Private Label – Big Bazaar’s “Fresh & Pure”


    🔸 Brand Loyalty Types

    • Cognitive Loyalty: rational preference

    • Affective Loyalty: emotional liking

    • Conative Loyalty: commitment to buy again


    🔸 Brand Extension vs. Line Extension

    • Brand Extension: new category under same name (Amul Ice-cream → Amul Butter)

    • Line Extension: same category, new variant (Pepsi → Pepsi Max)


    🔸 Brand Positioning Statement

    Format:

    “To [target market], [brand] is the [frame of reference] that [point of difference] because [reason to believe].”


    🟩 3. LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT (SCM)

    🔸 Concept

    SCM is the integration of procurement, production, inventory, transportation, and distribution to deliver customer value efficiently.


    🔸 Components

    1. Inbound Logistics – raw material sourcing

    2. Operations – manufacturing

    3. Outbound Logistics – warehousing, transport, distribution


    🔸 SCM Drivers

    1. Facilities – location and capacity

    2. Inventory – stock levels

    3. Transportation – speed and cost trade-off

    4. Information – coordination, tracking

    5. Sourcing – vendor selection, contracts

    6. Pricing – impacts demand pattern


    🔸 Value Creation in SCM

    • Minimizes total cost

    • Enhances responsiveness

    • Reduces lead time

    • Improves customer satisfaction


    🔸 Supply Chain Design Decisions

    • Centralized vs. decentralized network

    • Outsourcing vs. in-house logistics

    • Push vs. Pull systems

    • Global sourcing and e-SCM (use of IT and automation)


    🔸 Sales Force & Personal Selling

    • Personal selling: face-to-face persuasion and relationship-building.

    • Sales Force Management: recruitment, training, motivation, compensation, performance evaluation.


    🟩 4. SERVICE MARKETING

    🔸 Characteristics of Services (IHIP Model):

    1. Intangibility – can’t be touched or stored

    2. Heterogeneity (Variability) – quality varies

    3. Inseparability – produced and consumed simultaneously

    4. Perishability – can’t be inventoried


    🔸 7 Ps of Service Marketing

    Product, Price, Place, Promotion, People, Process, Physical Evidence.


    🔸 Service Quality – SERVQUAL Model (Parasuraman, Zeithaml, Berry)

    Five Dimensions:

    1. Reliability – performing promised service dependably

    2. Responsiveness – prompt help to customers

    3. Assurance – trust and courtesy

    4. Empathy – caring and attention

    5. Tangibles – physical facilities and appearance


    🔸 Service Recovery

    Steps to handle service failure and regain trust:

    • Apologize

    • Offer compensation

    • Empower employees


    🔸 Service Brand Management

    Focus on consistent experience, trust, emotional appeal (e.g., Marriott, Indigo).


    🔸 Service Firm Strategies

    • Manage demand and capacity (pricing, reservations)

    • Differentiation through experience

    • Training and empowerment of staff

    • Customer relationship programs


    🟩 5. CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MARKETING (CRM)

    🔸 Concept

    CRM is an approach to identify, attract, retain, and enhance customer relationships for long-term profitability.


    🔸 CRM Types

    1. Operational CRM: automates sales, service, and marketing.

    2. Analytical CRM: data-driven analysis for insights.

    3. Collaborative CRM: integrates communication across channels.


    🔸 CRM Process

    1. Identify potential customers

    2. Collect and store data (using CRM software)

    3. Analyze and segment customers

    4. Customize communication

    5. Build loyalty (reward programs, follow-ups)


    🔸 Customer Lifetime Value (CLV):

    CLV=(Averagepurchasevalue×Purchasefrequency×Customerlifespan)Acquisitioncost

    Indicates the total profit a company can expect from a customer.


    🔸 Benefits

    • Enhanced retention and satisfaction

    • Reduced marketing costs

    • Better forecasting

    • Personalization


    🟩 6. RETAIL MARKETING

    🔸 Definition

    Retailing = Activities involved in selling goods/services directly to final consumers for personal use.


    🔸 Functions

    • Breaking bulk

    • Providing convenience

    • Information and after-sale service

    • Creating experience


    🔸 Types of Retail Formats

    Format Example Key Feature
    Department Store Shoppers Stop

    Several product categories

    Supermarket Big Bazaar

    Self-service, low margins

    Convenience Store 24×7, In&Out

    Small size, daily needs

    Discount Store D-Mart Low price, high turnover
    Specialty Store Titan, Tanishq

    Focus on single category

    E-tailing

    Amazon, Flipkart

    Online convenience
    Malls / Hypermarkets Reliance Smart One-stop destination

    🔸 Recent Trends in Indian Retail

    • Online–Offline integration (Omnichannel)

    • Mobile-based shopping apps

    • AI-driven personalization

    • Private labels growth

    • Experiential retailing

    • Sustainable retail (green stores)


    🟩 7. EMERGING TRENDS IN MARKETING

    🔸 e-Marketing

    Use of digital networks to promote products and services (email, web, apps).
    Tools: SEO, PPC, affiliate marketing, blogs.


    🔸 Direct Marketing

    Communicating directly with target consumers to obtain an immediate response.
    Tools: Telemarketing, catalogs, SMS/email campaigns, direct mail.


    🔸 Digital Marketing

    Encompasses all online channels:

    • Social media (Instagram, YouTube)

    • Content marketing

    • Influencer marketing

    • Video and mobile advertising

    • Analytics & AI personalization

    Advantages: Targeted reach, cost-effective, measurable results.


    🔸 Green Marketing

    Marketing eco-friendly and sustainable products.

    Examples:

    • Paperless billing, electric vehicles, organic products.
      Benefits: Improves brand image and meets ethical expectations.


    🟩 8. INTERNATIONAL MARKETING

    🔸 Concept

    Application of marketing principles in more than one country.
    Objective: exploit global opportunities and manage cross-border challenges.


    🔸 International Market Entry Modes

    Mode Ownership Risk & Control Example
    Exporting 0% Low risk, low control Selling abroad directly
    Licensing <100% Medium risk

    Pepsi → local bottlers

    Franchising Shared Medium McDonald’s
    Joint Venture 50% Medium–High

    Maruti–Suzuki

    Wholly Owned Subsidiary

    100% High Honda India

    🔸 International Marketing Mix Adjustments

    1. Product: Standardize or adapt to local tastes

    2. Price: Consider currency exchange, tariffs

    3. Place: Distribution networks and local partnerships

    4. Promotion: Language, culture, media differences


    🔸 Challenges in Global Marketing

    • Political instability

    • Cultural barriers (language, symbols)

    • Currency fluctuations

    • Legal regulations

    • Ethical and environmental issues


  • UGC NET MBA Unit-6 MCQs

    Strategic Management & Marketing Management

    All questions are conceptually accurate, section-wise, and formatted for easy copy–paste on your site (ProTeacher.in) or for making PDFs.


    🔹 SECTION A – STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT: CONCEPTS, PROCESS & TYPES

    1. Strategy refers to:
    A. Short-term plan of action
    B. Long-term plan to achieve objectives
    C. Daily operational decisions
    D. Random future plan
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Strategy is a long-term plan designed to achieve organizational goals.*


    2. Strategic management involves:
    A. Planning only
    B. Implementation only
    C. Formulation, implementation, and evaluation
    D. None
    Answer: C


    3. The father of modern strategic management is:
    A. Peter Drucker
    B. Alfred Chandler
    C. Michael Porter
    D. Henry Mintzberg
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Alfred Chandler gave one of the earliest formal definitions of strategy.*


    4. Mintzberg described strategy as:
    A. A plan
    B. A ploy
    C. A pattern
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Mintzberg’s 5 Ps of Strategy – Plan, Ploy, Pattern, Position, Perspective.*


    5. Corporate-level strategy deals with:
    A. Overall direction of organization
    B. Marketing mix
    C. Functional performance
    D. Employee morale
    Answer: A


    6. Business-level strategy focuses on:
    A. How to compete in the market
    B. Which business to enter
    C. HR decisions
    D. Financial control
    Answer: A


    7. Functional strategy deals with:
    A. Specific departmental goals
    B. Mergers
    C. Diversification
    D. Corporate growth
    Answer: A


    8. Strategic decisions are:
    A. Routine
    B. Long-term and complex
    C. Operational
    D. Day-to-day
    Answer: B


    9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of strategic management?
    A. Long-term perspective
    B. Involves uncertainty
    C. Short-term profitability
    D. Integration of functions
    Answer: C


    10. The key objective of strategic management is:
    A. Short-term profit
    B. Customer satisfaction only
    C. Competitive advantage and survival
    D. Legal compliance
    Answer: C


    🔹 SECTION B – STRATEGIC ANALYSIS (EXTERNAL & INTERNAL)

    11. PEST analysis evaluates:
    A. Internal factors
    B. External macro-environment
    C. Employee behavior
    D. Financial ratios
    Answer: B


    12. PEST stands for:
    A. Political, Economic, Social, Technological
    B. People, Ethics, Structure, Training
    C. Profit, Efficiency, Sales, Turnover
    D. Policy, Environment, Strategy, Tactics
    Answer: A


    13. Porter’s Five Forces framework analyzes:
    A. Industry attractiveness and competition
    B. Financial position
    C. Internal control
    D. Economic policies
    Answer: A


    14. According to Porter, threat of new entrants is higher when:
    A. Entry barriers are low
    B. Brand loyalty is strong
    C. Economies of scale exist
    D. Distribution channels are limited
    Answer: A


    15. Value chain analysis was developed by:
    A. Henry Mintzberg
    B. Peter Drucker
    C. Michael Porter
    D. Philip Kotler
    Answer: C


    16. In Porter’s value chain, “Human Resource Management” is a:
    A. Primary activity
    B. Support activity
    C. Core activity
    D. Strategic output
    Answer: B


    17. The Resource-Based View (RBV) focuses on:
    A. Internal resources and capabilities
    B. Industry competition
    C. Customer satisfaction
    D. Government policy
    Answer: A


    18. According to RBV, competitive advantage is achieved if resources are:
    A. Valuable, Rare, Inimitable, Organized (VRIO)
    B. Variable, Real, Innovative, Objective
    C. Tangible only
    D. Easily available
    Answer: A


    19. SWOT analysis stands for:
    A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
    B. Systems, Work, Objectives, Tactics
    C. Skills, Wisdom, Organization, Team
    D. None
    Answer: A


    20. Internal factors in SWOT include:
    A. Strengths and Weaknesses
    B. Opportunities and Threats
    C. Economic and Political
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION C – STRATEGY FORMULATION

    21. Corporate strategy deals with:
    A. Overall direction and scope
    B. Pricing
    C. HR planning
    D. Marketing mix
    Answer: A


    22. Growth strategy aims at:
    A. Expanding operations or market
    B. Maintaining existing position
    C. Cost reduction
    D. Retrenchment
    Answer: A


    23. Stability strategy is adopted when:
    A. Environment is stable
    B. Demand is uncertain
    C. Market is shrinking
    D. Diversification is needed
    Answer: A


    24. Retrenchment strategy means:
    A. Reducing scope of business
    B. Expanding business
    C. Merging with competitors
    D. Introducing new products
    Answer: A


    25. Diversification involves:
    A. Entry into new products or markets
    B. Concentration on one product
    C. Reducing investment
    D. None
    Answer: A


    26. Forward integration means:
    A. Moving towards customer end
    B. Acquiring suppliers
    C. Reducing costs
    D. Outsourcing
    Answer: A


    27. Backward integration means:
    A. Acquiring suppliers
    B. Acquiring distributors
    C. Merging with competitors
    D. None
    Answer: A


    28. BCG matrix uses which two dimensions?
    A. Market share and market growth
    B. Profitability and liquidity
    C. Demand and supply
    D. Cost and price
    Answer: A


    29. In BCG matrix, “Dogs” represent:
    A. Low share and low growth
    B. High share and high growth
    C. Low share and high growth
    D. None
    Answer: A


    30. GE Nine-Cell Model evaluates:
    A. Industry attractiveness and business strength
    B. Profit and loss
    C. Market share
    D. Product mix
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION D – STRATEGY IMPLEMENTATION

    31. The key challenge in strategy implementation is:
    A. Resistance to change
    B. Resource abundance
    C. Stability
    D. Expansion
    Answer: A


    32. McKinsey’s 7S framework includes:
    A. Strategy, Structure, Systems, Style, Staff, Skills, Shared Values
    B. Strength, Skill, Staff, Standards, Systems, Strategy, Schedule
    C. None
    Answer: A


    33. “Shared Values” in 7S framework act as:
    A. Central core element
    B. HR function
    C. External factor
    D. None
    Answer: A


    34. Strategy implementation requires:
    A. Coordination and communication
    B. Isolation of departments
    C. Ignoring resistance
    D. Reducing staff
    Answer: A


    35. Evaluation of strategy involves:
    A. Measuring performance and taking corrective action
    B. Planning
    C. Organizing
    D. Staffing
    Answer: A


    36. Strategy evaluation is important because:
    A. Environment changes constantly
    B. Plans are perfect
    C. Implementation is easy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    37. A company’s mission defines:
    A. Purpose of existence
    B. Future vision
    C. Marketing plan
    D. Policy statement
    Answer: A


    38. Vision statement represents:
    A. Future aspiration
    B. Current business scope
    C. Past performance
    D. None
    Answer: A


    39. Strategic control focuses on:
    A. Continuous monitoring of strategic activities
    B. Daily accounting
    C. HR training
    D. None
    Answer: A


    40. Long-term strategy is evaluated using:
    A. Balanced Scorecard
    B. Cash flow ratio
    C. Break-even analysis
    D. Job analysis
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION E – MARKETING: CONCEPTS & ORIENTATION

    41. Marketing is:
    A. The process of creating and delivering value to customers
    B. Selling goods only
    C. Advertising only
    D. None
    Answer: A


    42. “The aim of marketing is to make selling unnecessary.” — said by:
    A. Peter Drucker
    B. Philip Kotler
    C. Levitt
    D. Stanton
    Answer: A


    43. Which of the following is a marketing orientation?
    A. Production
    B. Selling
    C. Societal
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


    44. Societal marketing emphasizes:
    A. Customer welfare and sustainability
    B. Only profit
    C. Government policy
    D. None
    Answer: A


    45. Relationship marketing focuses on:
    A. Long-term customer relationships
    B. One-time sale
    C. Promotion
    D. Product features
    Answer: A


    46. Customer value =
    A. Benefits − Costs
    B. Costs + Benefits
    C. Benefits × Costs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    47. Customer satisfaction occurs when:
    A. Performance ≥ Expectations
    B. Performance < Expectations
    C. Price > Value
    D. Cost < Value
    Answer: A


    48. The modern marketing philosophy is:
    A. Customer-oriented
    B. Product-oriented
    C. Sales-oriented
    D. Production-oriented
    Answer: A


    49. Marketing myopia was introduced by:
    A. Theodore Levitt
    B. Philip Kotler
    C. Peter Drucker
    D. Porter
    Answer: A


    50. Marketing myopia refers to:
    A. Short-sighted focus on products instead of customer needs
    B. Over-diversification
    C. Long-term growth
    D. Over-promotion
    Answer: A

    SECTION F – MARKET SEGMENTATION, TARGETING & POSITIONING (STP)

    51. Market segmentation means:
    A. Dividing the market into homogeneous groups
    B. Selling the same product to everyone
    C. Focusing on a single customer
    D. None
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Segmentation divides the market based on common characteristics like age, income, lifestyle, etc.*


    52. Basis for segmentation does not include:
    A. Demographic
    B. Geographic
    C. Political
    D. Psychographic
    Answer: C


    53. Demographic segmentation includes:
    A. Age, gender, income
    B. Personality, lifestyle
    C. Loyalty
    D. Usage rate
    Answer: A


    54. Psychographic segmentation is based on:
    A. Lifestyle and personality
    B. Income and education
    C. Occupation
    D. Region
    Answer: A


    55. Target marketing means:
    A. Selecting the most suitable market segment to serve
    B. Dividing customers
    C. Mass selling
    D. Branding
    Answer: A


    56. Undifferentiated marketing means:
    A. One strategy for the whole market
    B. Many strategies for each segment
    C. Niche marketing
    D. Differentiation
    Answer: A


    57. Concentrated marketing focuses on:
    A. A single market segment
    B. Many segments
    C. All customers
    D. Large-scale production
    Answer: A


    58. Positioning is about:
    A. Creating a unique place in customers’ minds
    B. Setting prices
    C. Distribution
    D. Advertising frequency
    Answer: A


    59. The famous quote “Positioning is not what you do to the product, but what you do to the mind of the prospect” is by:
    A. Ries and Trout
    B. Kotler
    C. Drucker
    D. Porter
    Answer: A


    60. A successful positioning strategy should be:
    A. Clear, consistent, and credible
    B. Confusing
    C. Complex
    D. Temporary
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION G – PRODUCT DECISIONS

    61. Product mix refers to:
    A. All products offered by a company
    B. Only one product
    C. Packaging design
    D. Promotional activities
    Answer: A


    62. The dimensions of product mix include:
    A. Width, Depth, Length, Consistency
    B. Price, Place, Promotion, Product
    C. Demand, Supply
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A


    63. A product line is:
    A. Group of related products
    B. Single product
    C. Unrelated group
    D. None
    Answer: A


    64. Product Life Cycle (PLC) has how many stages?
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6
    Answer: B
    (Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline)


    65. The stage with the highest profit level in PLC is:
    A. Growth
    B. Maturity
    C. Introduction
    D. Decline
    Answer: A


    66. New Product Development (NPD) starts with:
    A. Idea generation
    B. Test marketing
    C. Commercialization
    D. Screening
    Answer: A


    67. Test marketing means:
    A. Testing product in limited market area
    B. Testing lab features
    C. Internal review
    D. None
    Answer: A


    68. At which PLC stage does advertising focus on brand loyalty?
    A. Maturity
    B. Growth
    C. Introduction
    D. Decline
    Answer: A


    69. At which PLC stage are prices usually high to recover development costs?
    A. Introduction
    B. Growth
    C. Decline
    D. Maturity
    Answer: A


    70. Product differentiation provides:
    A. Competitive advantage
    B. Increased cost
    C. Reduced quality
    D. Lower satisfaction
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION H – PRICING DECISIONS

    71. The main objective of pricing is:
    A. Profit maximization
    B. Cost reduction
    C. Tax saving
    D. Employee motivation
    Answer: A


    72. Cost-plus pricing =
    A. Cost + Desired profit margin
    B. Cost − Margin
    C. Cost × Demand
    D. None
    Answer: A


    73. Skimming pricing is used when:
    A. Product is new and innovative
    B. Market is highly competitive
    C. Price-sensitive customers
    D. Low-quality products
    Answer: A


    74. Penetration pricing means:
    A. Low initial price to capture market share
    B. High price to skim early profits
    C. Cost-based pricing
    D. None
    Answer: A


    75. Psychological pricing refers to:
    A. ₹99 instead of ₹100
    B. Cost-plus
    C. Penetration
    D. Premium pricing
    Answer: A


    76. Value-based pricing is determined by:
    A. Perceived customer value
    B. Cost of production
    C. Competition
    D. Government control
    Answer: A


    77. Price discrimination means:
    A. Charging different prices for same product
    B. Same price to all
    C. Selling below cost
    D. Selling only in one market
    Answer: A


    78. Predatory pricing aims to:
    A. Eliminate competitors
    B. Increase costs
    C. Reduce demand
    D. None
    Answer: A


    79. Dynamic pricing is used in:
    A. Online platforms (e.g., Uber, Amazon)
    B. Government markets
    C. Fixed shops
    D. Agriculture
    Answer: A


    80. “Everyday Low Pricing (EDLP)” is followed by:
    A. Walmart
    B. Apple
    C. Rolex
    D. Mercedes
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION I – PLACE (DISTRIBUTION) DECISIONS

    81. Marketing channel refers to:
    A. The route through which goods move from producer to consumer
    B. Advertising media
    C. Sales force
    D. None
    Answer: A


    82. Zero-level channel means:
    A. Direct marketing (Producer → Consumer)
    B. Producer → Retailer → Consumer
    C. Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer
    D. None
    Answer: A


    83. A wholesaler operates between:
    A. Producer and retailer
    B. Producer and consumer
    C. Retailer and consumer
    D. None
    Answer: A


    84. Vertical Marketing System (VMS) aims to:
    A. Coordinate all channel members
    B. Increase conflict
    C. Eliminate intermediaries
    D. None
    Answer: A


    85. Contractual VMS is seen in:
    A. Franchising systems like McDonald’s
    B. Producer-owned outlets
    C. Informal retailers
    D. None
    Answer: A


    86. Corporate VMS is:
    A. Single ownership across channel levels
    B. Contract-based
    C. Administered by price
    D. None
    Answer: A


    87. Value network includes:
    A. Suppliers, distributors, customers
    B. Only producers
    C. Competitors
    D. None
    Answer: A


    88. Physical distribution includes:
    A. Transportation, warehousing, inventory, order processing
    B. Advertising
    C. Branding
    D. Promotion
    Answer: A


    89. Channel conflict arises due to:
    A. Role ambiguity or pricing issues
    B. Cooperation
    C. Common goals
    D. None
    Answer: A


    90. Reverse logistics refers to:
    A. Movement of goods from consumers back to producers
    B. Forward delivery
    C. Storing inventory
    D. None
    Answer: A


    🔹 SECTION J – PROMOTION & INTEGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATION (IMC)

    91. Promotion mix includes:
    A. Advertising, Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, PR, Direct Marketing
    B. Only advertising
    C. Only sales promotion
    D. Only PR
    Answer: A


    92. Advertising is:
    A. Paid, non-personal form of communication
    B. Free publicity
    C. Personal communication
    D. Informal talk
    Answer: A


    93. Sales promotion offers:
    A. Short-term incentives to increase sales
    B. Long-term customer loyalty
    C. Employee training
    D. Branding
    Answer: A


    94. Personal selling involves:
    A. Direct face-to-face interaction
    B. Mass media
    C. Public relations
    D. None
    Answer: A


    95. Public Relations (PR) focuses on:
    A. Building goodwill and company image
    B. Selling products directly
    C. Internal control
    D. Pricing
    Answer: A


    96. Direct marketing includes:
    A. Email, SMS, social media marketing
    B. Retail selling
    C. Public speaking
    D. None
    Answer: A


    97. Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC) ensures:
    A. Consistent message across all channels
    B. Conflicting communication
    C. Limited exposure
    D. Unclear branding
    Answer: A


    98. The primary objective of advertising is:
    A. Inform, persuade, remind
    B. Reduce price
    C. Lower costs
    D. None
    Answer: A


    99. Push strategy focuses on:
    A. Channel members like retailers
    B. Directly on consumers
    C. Mass media
    D. Online sales
    Answer: A


    100. Pull strategy focuses on:
    A. Creating consumer demand through advertising and promotion
    B. Pushing inventory
    C. Reducing production
    D. None
    Answer: A

  • UGC NET MBA Unit-6

    Strategic Management and Marketing Management

    This unit covers both Strategic Management and Marketing, combining analytical frameworks, strategy formulation, implementation, and marketing decisions — all of which are frequently tested in UGC NET Management Paper II.


    🔹 PART A – STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT


    1. Concept of Strategy and Strategic Management

    Strategy:
    A long-term plan of action designed to achieve specific organizational goals by utilizing resources effectively.

    Definitions:

    • Chandler (1962): “Strategy is the determination of the basic long-term goals of an enterprise and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary for achieving these goals.”

    • Mintzberg: “Strategy is a pattern in a stream of decisions.”

    Strategic Management:
    The process of formulating, implementing, and evaluating strategies to achieve organizational objectives.


    2. Features of Strategic Management

    1. Long-term and future-oriented

    2. Integrates all functional areas

    3. Involves environmental analysis

    4. Continuous and dynamic process

    5. Focused on achieving competitive advantage


    3. Levels of Strategy

    Level Focus Area Example
    Corporate Level Overall scope and direction of organization Diversification, Mergers
    Business Level How to compete in the market

    Cost leadership, Differentiation

    Functional Level Implementation in each department

    HR, Marketing, Finance strategies


    4. Types of Strategic Decisions

    1. Planned – deliberate, rational decisions.

    2. Emergent – evolve over time.

    3. Adaptive – responding to environmental change.

    4. Crisis – quick response to unexpected events.


    🔹 5. Strategic Management Process

    Stages:

    1. Environmental Analysis

    2. Strategy Formulation

    3. Strategy Implementation

    4. Evaluation and Control


    Step 1: Environmental Analysis

    A. External Analysis (Macro & Industry Environment):
    Tools: PEST and Porter’s Five Forces

    PEST Analysis:

    Analyzes macro-environmental factors:

    • P – Political and Legal

    • E – Economic

    • S – Social and Cultural

    • T – Technological

    Porter’s Five Forces Model (Industry Analysis):

    1. Threat of New Entrants

    2. Bargaining Power of Suppliers

    3. Bargaining Power of Buyers

    4. Threat of Substitutes

    5. Competitive Rivalry


    B. Internal Analysis:
    Examines internal resources and capabilities.

    Tools:

    1. Resource-Based View (RBV):

      • Firm’s resources are source of sustainable competitive advantage.

      • VRIO Framework: Valuable, Rare, Inimitable, Organized.

    2. Value Chain Analysis (Michael Porter):
      Identifies value-adding activities to enhance efficiency.

      • Primary Activities: Inbound logistics, operations, marketing, sales, service.

      • Support Activities: HR, technology, infrastructure, procurement.


    Step 2: Strategy Formulation

    The process of choosing the most appropriate course of action to achieve goals.

    SWOT Analysis

    • S: Strengths

    • W: Weaknesses

    • O: Opportunities

    • T: Threats

    Helps match internal strengths with external opportunities.


    Corporate-Level Strategies

    Type Description
    Growth Expansion through new markets/products (e.g., diversification, mergers)
    Stability

    Maintain current position; used in mature industries

    Retrenchment

    Reducing scale due to losses (e.g., divestment, turnaround)

    Integration

    Expansion along supply chain – forward/backward/ horizontal

    Diversification

    Entering new markets or products (related/unrelated)


    Business Portfolio Analysis

    1️⃣ BCG Matrix (Boston Consulting Group):

    Category Market Share Market Growth Strategy
    Stars High High Invest
    Cash Cows High Low Maintain
    Question Marks Low High Selective investment
    Dogs Low Low Divest

    2️⃣ GE Business Model (General Electric):

    • Based on Industry Attractiveness and Business Strength.

    • Nine-cell matrix to decide investment priorities.


    3️⃣ Ansoff’s Product-Market Growth Matrix:

    Strategy Product Market Objective
    Market Penetration Existing Existing Increase share
    Market Development Existing New Enter new markets

    Product Development

    New Existing Introduce new products
    Diversification New New

    Expand into new business


    Step 3: Strategy Implementation

    Translating chosen strategy into action.

    Key Challenges:

    • Resistance to change

    • Resource allocation

    • Coordination between departments

    • Leadership and communication


    McKinsey 7S Framework

    Used to assess and align organizational elements for successful implementation.

    Hard S Soft S
    Strategy Shared Values
    Structure Skills
    Systems Style
    Staff

    All 7 factors must align for effective implementation.


    Step 4: Strategy Evaluation and Control

    Process of reviewing and measuring strategy performance.

    Steps:

    1. Setting performance standards

    2. Measuring actual performance

    3. Comparing and analyzing variances

    4. Taking corrective actions


    🔹 PART B – MARKETING MANAGEMENT


    1. Marketing: Concept and Orientation

    Marketing:
    A social and managerial process through which individuals and groups obtain what they need and want through creating, offering, and exchanging value.

    Marketing Orientations:

    1. Production Orientation – focus on efficiency.

    2. Product Orientation – quality improvement.

    3. Selling Orientation – aggressive promotion.

    4. Marketing Orientation – customer needs.

    5. Societal Marketing Orientation – customer welfare and sustainability.


    Modern Trends:

    • Relationship marketing

    • Digital and social media marketing

    • Green marketing

    • Experiential marketing


    2. Core Concepts of Marketing

    • Needs, Wants, and Demands

    • Value and Satisfaction

    • Exchange and Transaction

    • Markets and Segmentation

    • Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

    Customer Value:
    Difference between customer’s perceived benefits and costs.

    Customer Satisfaction:
    When performance meets or exceeds expectations.


    3. Market Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning (STP)

    Segmentation:
    Dividing the market into groups based on:

    • Geographic

    • Demographic

    • Psychographic

    • Behavioral

    Targeting:
    Selecting the most suitable segment(s) to serve.
    → Strategies: Undifferentiated, Differentiated, Concentrated.

    Positioning:
    Creating a distinct image in customers’ minds through branding, features, and communication.
    → “Positioning is not what you do to the product, but what you do to the mind of the prospect.” – Ries & Trout


    4. Product and Pricing Decisions

    A. Product Mix:
    Total range of products offered by a company.
    → Dimensions: Width, Depth, Length, Consistency.

    B. Product Life Cycle (PLC):

    1. Introduction – low sales, high cost.

    2. Growth – rising sales/profits.

    3. Maturity – peak sales, saturation.

    4. Decline – sales fall, product may be withdrawn.

    C. New Product Development (NPD):
    Steps:
    Idea generation → Screening → Concept testing → Business analysis → Development → Test marketing → Commercialization.


    5. Pricing Decisions

    Pricing Objectives: Profit, market share, survival, prestige.
    Pricing Methods:

    • Cost-plus pricing

    • Competition-based

    • Value-based

    • Penetration and Skimming pricing

    Pricing Strategies:

    • Penetration Pricing: Low initial price to gain market share.

    • Price Skimming: High initial price to recover costs quickly.

    • Psychological Pricing: ₹99 instead of ₹100.

    • Differential Pricing: Different prices for different markets.


    6. Place (Distribution) Decisions

    Marketing Channels:
    Path through which goods move from producer to consumer.

    Channel Levels:

    • Zero-level: Direct (Producer → Consumer)

    • One-level: Producer → Retailer → Consumer

    • Two-level: Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer


    Vertical Marketing Systems (VMS):

    • Corporate VMS: Ownership-based control.

    • Contractual VMS: Linked by contracts (franchising).

    • Administered VMS: One dominant player controls channel (e.g., HUL, P&G).

    Value Network:
    Entire supply chain that adds value at every stage.


    7. Promotion Decisions

    Promotion Mix Components:

    1. Advertising

    2. Sales Promotion

    3. Personal Selling

    4. Public Relations

    5. Direct and Digital Marketing

    Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC):
    → Coordination of all communication tools to deliver a consistent message.

    Advertising: Paid form of non-personal communication.
    Sales Promotion: Short-term incentives to boost sales (e.g., discounts, coupons).
    Personal Selling: Direct interaction between salesperson and buyer.
    Public Relations: Managing public image.
    Direct Marketing: Personalized communication (email, SMS, social media).