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Tag: UGC NET Political Science Unit 6: India’s Foreign Policy MCQs

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 6 – Political Institutions in India – Top Questions

    Q1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    2. B. N. Rau

    3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

    4. Sardar Patel

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Ambedkar led the Drafting Committee and played a central role in shaping the Constitution.

    Q2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as—

    1. Federal and Republican

    2. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

    3. Federal, Democratic and Socialist

    4. Parliamentary Democratic Republican State

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: These values reflect India’s constitutional philosophy.

    Q3. The Basic Structure doctrine was propounded in which case?

    1. Golaknath case

    2. Keshavananda Bharati case

    3. S.R. Bommai case

    4. Minerva Mills case

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

    Q4. The Anti-Defection Law was inserted by—

    1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment

    2. 44th Constitutional Amendment

    3. 52nd Constitutional Amendment

    4. 73rd Constitutional Amendment

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Inserted Tenth Schedule in 1985 to curb political defections.

    Q5. Which Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj institutions as constitutional bodies?

    1. 42nd

    2. 72nd

    3. 73rd

    4. 44th

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: 73rd Amendment (1993) established 3-tier rural local government.

    Q6. The Finance Commission is appointed every—

    1. 3 years

    2. 5 years

    3. 6 years

    4. 10 years

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission every five years.

    Q7. Which body conducts elections in India?

    1. Supreme Court

    2. Election Commission

    3. Parliament

    4. Comptroller and Auditor General

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Independent constitutional authority to ensure free and fair elections.

    Q8. Who acts as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

    1. Chief Justice of India

    2. Vice President of India

    3. Lok Sabha Speaker

    4. Prime Minister

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Vice President presides over Rajya Sabha sessions.

    Q9. Judicial Review is a feature taken from—

    1. UK

    2. USA

    3. Canada

    4. France

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: American constitutional influence on Indian judicial review powers.

    Q10. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in—

    1. 2008

    2. 2010

    3. 2014

    4. 2015

    Answer: 4
    Explanation: Formed to promote cooperative federalism and strategic planning.

    Assertion – Reason

    Q11.

    Assertion (A): India has a parliamentary system of government.
    Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Parliamentary accountability distinguishes it from presidential systems.

    Q12.

    Assertion (A): The Constitution of India is federal in nature.
    Reason (R): It contains dual polity and division of powers but strong Union features.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: India is cooperative & quasi-federal.

    Match the Following

    Q13.

    List I List II
    A. 44th Amendment

    1. Restored civil liberties after Emergency
    B. 52nd Amendment

    2. Anti-defection law
    C. 73rd Amendment 3. Panchayati Raj
    D. 74th Amendment 4. Urban Local Government

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14.

    List I List II
    A. UPSC 1. Recruitment
    B. CAG 2. Audit
    C. NITI Aayog 3. Planning
    D. Finance Commission 4. Revenue-sharing

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Short Explanation Notes (Simple & Clear)

    1. Constitutionalism in India

    • Prevents arbitrary exercise of power

    • Based on rule of law, checks & balances, judicial review, basic structure

    2. Union–State Relations

    Type Description
    Legislative Union List, State List, Concurrent List
    Administrative

    All-India Services, directions to states
    Financial Finance Commission, GST Council

    3. Executive

    • President: constitutional head, acts on advice of PM

    • Prime Minister & Council of Ministers: real executive

    • Governor: dual role, controversy over central influence

    4. Judiciary

    • Single integrated system

    • Supreme Court, High Court, Subordinate Courts

    • Tools: Judicial Review, Judicial Activism, PIL

    5. Local Government

    73rd Amendment 74th Amendment
    Panchayats Municipal bodies
    3-tier structure

    Mayor & Municipal Corporation
    State Finance Commission Urban Local Planning

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-8 Political Processes in India-MCQs

    Part A: State, Economy and Development (1–15)

    Q1. The Indian State is best described as:
    (A) Capitalist
    (B) Socialist
    (C) Welfare and Developmental
    (D) Authoritarian
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The Indian State combines democracy and welfare, aiming at social justice and development.

    Q2. The Planning Commission of India was established in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1950
    (C) 1952
    (D) 1956
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Planning Commission was formed in 1950 under Jawaharlal Nehru to coordinate Five-Year Plans.

    Q3. The Nehru–Mahalanobis Model emphasized:
    (A) Agriculture
    (B) Heavy industries
    (C) Small-scale industries
    (D) Services
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) focused on rapid industrialization through heavy industries.

    Q4. The New Economic Policy (NEP) was introduced in:
    (A) 1980
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1991
    (D) 1995
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The NEP of 1991 introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).

    Q5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Liberalization?
    (A) De-licensing
    (B) Import liberalization
    (C) Privatization of PSUs
    (D) Increased state control
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Liberalization reduces government control, encouraging market freedom.

    Q6. Who replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog?
    (A) Manmohan Singh
    (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (C) Narendra Modi
    (D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: NITI Aayog was established in 2015 under Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

    Q7. The term “Human Development” was popularized by:
    (A) Amartya Sen
    (B) Mahbub-ul-Haq
    (C) Gunnar Myrdal
    (D) Adam Smith
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) concept for UNDP in 1990.

    Q8. The focus of Amartya Sen’s theory is on:
    (A) Capital accumulation
    (B) Income distribution
    (C) Human capabilities and freedoms
    (D) Industrial growth
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Sen’s “Capability Approach” emphasizes expanding human choices and freedoms.

    Q9. The Indian economy after 1991 is described as:
    (A) Closed economy
    (B) Mixed economy
    (C) Market-oriented economy
    (D) Command economy
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: NEP reforms shifted India towards a market-oriented economic model.

    Q10. The Green Revolution in India was introduced in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1952
    (C) 1965
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Green Revolution began in 1965 under Lal Bahadur Shastri focusing on food grain self-sufficiency.

    Q11. Who coined the term “License Raj”?
    (A) Indira Gandhi
    (B) Rajiv Gandhi
    (C) C. Rajagopalachari
    (D) Manmohan Singh
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari criticized the excessive bureaucracy of state control as “License Raj”.

    Q12. NITI Aayog’s approach is based on:
    (A) Centralized planning
    (B) Cooperative federalism
    (C) Command economy
    (D) Socialist economy
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: NITI Aayog promotes coordination between the Centre and States through cooperative federalism.

    Q13. The first Five-Year Plan in India emphasized:
    (A) Industry
    (B) Agriculture and irrigation
    (C) Trade
    (D) Services
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The first plan (1951–56) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and rural development.

    Q14. Economic inequality in India increased mainly after:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) LPG reforms
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Land reforms
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 1991 LPG reforms led to growth but widened the gap between rich and poor.

    Q15. Human Development Index (HDI) measures:
    (A) Income and wealth only
    (B) Education, health, income
    (C) Population growth
    (D) Industrial growth
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: HDI combines life expectancy, education, and per capita income.

    🟢 Part B: Globalisation (16–25)

    Q16. Globalisation means:
    (A) National isolation
    (B) Integration of national economies
    (C) Expansion of state control
    (D) De-industrialization
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Globalisation integrates economies and societies through trade, capital, and technology.

    Q17. Globalisation in India began after:
    (A) 1980 reforms
    (B) 1991 reforms
    (C) 2001 WTO entry
    (D) 2014 digital policy
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 1991 NEP initiated the process of integrating India into the global economy.

    Q18. One major consequence of globalisation is:
    (A) Decline in inequality
    (B) Decline in FDI
    (C) Job insecurity and inequality
    (D) State expansion
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Globalisation increased growth but created job insecurity and income inequality.

    Q19. The WTO was established in:
    (A) 1945
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1995
    (D) 2001
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995 replacing GATT.

    Q20. A key social impact of globalisation is:
    (A) Strengthening of local traditions
    (B) Cultural homogenisation
    (C) Isolationism
    (D) Reduction in communication
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Globalisation leads to the spread of global culture, reducing diversity in some cases.

    Q21. India’s integration with the global economy was accelerated by:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) New Economic Policy 1991
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Swadeshi movement
    Answer: (B)

    Q22. Which sector benefited the most from globalisation in India?
    (A) Agriculture
    (B) Manufacturing
    (C) Services
    (D) Mining
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: IT and service sectors saw rapid growth due to liberalized policies and global demand.

    Q23. One major political effect of globalisation is:
    (A) Decline of regional parties
    (B) Rise of corporate influence
    (C) Strengthening of socialism
    (D) State control over economy
    Answer: (B)

    Q24. The slogan “Think globally, act locally” refers to:
    (A) Environmentalism and globalisation
    (B) Nationalism
    (C) Federalism
    (D) Communalism
    Answer: (A)

    Q25. The process of globalisation increased the importance of:
    (A) Local economies
    (B) Non-state actors and MNCs
    (C) Central government
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part C: Identity Politics (26–40)

    Q26. Identity politics in India is mainly based on:
    (A) Economic class
    (B) Caste, religion, region, language
    (C) Race
    (D) Urban–rural division
    Answer: (B)

    Q27. The Mandal Commission dealt with:
    (A) Religious minorities
    (B) OBC reservation
    (C) Scheduled Tribes
    (D) Women’s rights
    Answer: (B)

    Q28. The Mandal Commission report was implemented in:
    (A) 1979
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1990
    (D) 1995
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: V.P. Singh implemented the Mandal recommendations in 1990.

    Q29. Dalit politics is associated with:
    (A) Marxism
    (B) Ambedkarite ideology
    (C) Gandhian philosophy
    (D) Liberalism
    Answer: (B)

    Q30. The term “Bahujan” refers to:
    (A) Minorities
    (B) Upper castes
    (C) Majority of oppressed classes
    (D) Industrial workers
    Answer: (C)

    Q31. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) draws ideological inspiration from:
    (A) Liberalism
    (B) Marxism
    (C) Hindutva
    (D) Gandhism
    Answer: (C)

    Q32. The Sachar Committee dealt with the conditions of:
    (A) SCs
    (B) STs
    (C) Muslims
    (D) OBCs
    Answer: (C)

    Q33. Tribal movements in India mainly demand:
    (A) Urbanization
    (B) Autonomy and land rights
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Privatization
    Answer: (B)

    Q34. Linguistic reorganisation of states was based on the report of:
    (A) Sarkaria Commission
    (B) Fazl Ali Commission
    (C) Punchhi Commission
    (D) Mandal Commission
    Answer: (B)

    Q35. The Dravidian movement originated in:
    (A) Maharashtra
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Assam
    (D) Bihar
    Answer: (B)

    Q36. The term “communalism” refers to:
    (A) Cooperation between religions
    (B) Political use of religion
    (C) Atheism
    (D) Cultural assimilation
    Answer: (B)

    Q37. The concept of “politics of presence” is associated with:
    (A) Caste system
    (B) Gender representation
    (C) Regionalism
    (D) Religion
    Answer: (B)

    Q38. OBCs were granted constitutional recognition through:
    (A) Article 341
    (B) Article 342
    (C) Mandal Commission
    (D) Constitution (First Amendment)
    Answer: (C)

    Q39. The rise of regional parties in India is mainly due to:
    (A) Class conflict
    (B) Regional disparities
    (C) Bureaucratic control
    (D) Decline of coalition politics
    Answer: (B)

    Q40. Identity politics became prominent in India during:
    (A) Nehru era
    (B) Post-1970s
    (C) Pre-independence
    (D) 1940s
    Answer: (B)

    Part D: Social Movements (41–55)

    Q41. Social movements are best defined as:
    (A) Political parties contesting elections
    (B) Collective efforts for social or political change
    (C) Bureaucratic organizations
    (D) Governmental policies
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Social movements are organized collective actions aimed at social transformation.

    Q42. The Dalit movement primarily aims at:
    (A) Religious reform
    (B) Caste-based equality and dignity
    (C) Women’s rights
    (D) Economic liberalization
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Dalit movement, led by Ambedkar, seeks equality, social justice, and the end of untouchability.

    Q43. The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded by:
    (A) B.R. Ambedkar
    (B) Kanshi Ram
    (C) Mayawati
    (D) Jagjivan Ram
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Kanshi Ram founded BSP in 1984 to represent the Bahujans — Dalits, OBCs, and minorities.

    Q44. The Chipko Movement was primarily concerned with:
    (A) Labour rights
    (B) Forest conservation
    (C) Tribal autonomy
    (D) Political representation
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Chipko Movement (1970s, Uttarakhand) aimed to protect forests from commercial exploitation.

    Q45. Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
    (A) Medha Patkar
    (B) Arundhati Roy
    (C) Anna Hazare
    (D) Vandana Shiva
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Medha Patkar led this movement against large dams and displacement of people.

    Q46. The Tebhaga Movement was related to:
    (A) Factory workers
    (B) Farmers and sharecroppers
    (C) Industrial labourers
    (D) Women’s rights
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Tebhaga (1946–47, Bengal) demanded two-thirds share of crops for sharecroppers.

    Q47. Which movement is associated with “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan”?
    (A) Women’s movement
    (B) Peasant movement
    (C) Labour movement
    (D) Environmental movement
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan during food crisis to motivate farmers and soldiers.

    Q48. The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded in:
    (A) 1920
    (B) 1947
    (C) 1950
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: AITUC (1920) was India’s first national trade union, affiliated with communist ideology.

    Q49. The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) was founded by:
    (A) Ela Bhatt
    (B) Medha Patkar
    (C) Vandana Shiva
    (D) Aruna Roy
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Ela Bhatt founded SEWA (1972) to empower self-employed women workers.

    Q50. The anti-corruption movement (2011) led to the formation of:
    (A) NITI Aayog
    (B) Janata Party
    (C) Aam Aadmi Party
    (D) National Front
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Anna Hazare’s 2011 movement inspired Arvind Kejriwal to form AAP in 2012.

    Q51. The slogan “Garibi Hatao” was first given by:
    (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (B) Indira Gandhi
    (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    (D) Rajiv Gandhi
    Answer: (B)

    Q52. The Naxalite movement started in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1952
    (C) 1967
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: It began in 1967 in Naxalbari, West Bengal, as a peasant armed rebellion.

    Q53. The women’s movement in India gained momentum during:
    (A) 1920s
    (B) 1940s
    (C) 1970s
    (D) 1990s
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The post-1970 period saw rise in feminist and rights-based movements.

    Q54. The Right to Information (RTI) movement was initiated by:
    (A) SEWA
    (B) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
    (C) Greenpeace India
    (D) AITUC
    Answer: (B)

    Q55. Which movement combined gender and environmental issues?
    (A) Naxalite
    (B) Chipko
    (C) Tebhaga
    (D) Telangana
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part E: Civil Society (56–65)

    Q56. Civil society refers to:
    (A) Political parties
    (B) Military organizations
    (C) Non-state voluntary associations
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Civil society is the sphere between state and family where citizens organize voluntarily.

    Q57. NGOs in India mainly work for:
    (A) Political campaigns
    (B) Public welfare and development
    (C) Foreign diplomacy
    (D) Profit-making
    Answer: (B)

    Q58. The RTI Act was passed in:
    (A) 2002
    (B) 2005
    (C) 2008
    (D) 2010
    Answer: (B)

    Q59. Which organization is known for working on child rights in India?
    (A) CRY
    (B) NASSCOM
    (C) WWF
    (D) FICCI
    Answer: (A)

    Q60. Non-party political formations refer to:
    (A) Electoral coalitions
    (B) Movements outside party politics
    (C) Political alliances
    (D) Bureaucratic groups
    Answer: (B)

    Q61. The concept of “participatory democracy” is strengthened by:
    (A) Bureaucracy
    (B) Civil society and NGOs
    (C) Political centralization
    (D) Media monopoly
    Answer: (B)

    Q62. Aruna Roy is associated with:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) RTI and rural empowerment
    (C) Women’s reservation
    (D) Nationalization
    Answer: (B)

    Q63. The term “third sector” is often used for:
    (A) Private corporations
    (B) Civil society organizations
    (C) Political parties
    (D) Bureaucrats
    Answer: (B)

    Q64. Social Action Groups mainly work for:
    (A) Profits
    (B) Social justice and human rights
    (C) Political campaigns
    (D) Economic liberalization
    Answer: (B)

    Q65. Civil society acts as a ______ between citizens and the state.
    (A) Barrier
    (B) Bridge
    (C) Substitute
    (D) Controller
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part F: Regionalisation of Indian Politics (66–78)

    Q66. The linguistic reorganisation of states took place in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1956
    (C) 1962
    (D) 1971
    Answer: (B)

    Q67. The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was headed by:
    (A) K.M. Munshi
    (B) Fazl Ali
    (C) G.B. Pant
    (D) Nehru
    Answer: (B)

    Q68. The first linguistic state of India was:
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Maharashtra
    (D) Kerala
    Answer: (A)

    Q69. Telangana was created as the ____ state of India.
    (A) 28th
    (B) 29th
    (C) 30th
    (D) 31st
    Answer: (B)

    Q70. The creation of new states in 2000 included:
    (A) Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
    (B) Goa, Mizoram, Meghalaya
    (C) Tripura, Manipur, Sikkim
    (D) Haryana, Punjab, Delhi
    Answer: (A)

    Q71. Regionalism often arises due to:
    (A) Economic equality
    (B) Regional disparities
    (C) Cultural homogeneity
    (D) Centralization of power
    Answer: (B)

    Q72. The term “sons of the soil” relates to:
    (A) Caste movements
    (B) Regional movements
    (C) Environmentalism
    (D) Labour movements
    Answer: (B)

    Q73. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) emerged in:
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Karnataka
    (D) Kerala
    Answer: (B)

    Q74. The Bodo movement is associated with:
    (A) Assam
    (B) Bihar
    (C) Odisha
    (D) West Bengal
    Answer: (A)

    Q75. The demand for Vidarbha state is from:
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Maharashtra
    (C) Madhya Pradesh
    (D) Karnataka
    Answer: (B)

    Q76. Regional parties primarily represent:
    (A) National ideology
    (B) Local and regional interests
    (C) Bureaucracy
    (D) Elite classes
    Answer: (B)

    Q77. Regionalisation of politics has led to:
    (A) One-party dominance
    (B) Coalition governments
    (C) Central dictatorship
    (D) Military rule
    Answer: (B)

    Q78. The movement for Gorkhaland is centered in:
    (A) Assam
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) West Bengal
    (D) Sikkim
    Answer: (C)

    🟢 Part G: Gender and Politics (79–87)

    Q79. The 73rd and 74th Amendments provide:
    (A) Women’s 33% reservation in local bodies
    (B) Reservation in Parliament
    (C) Reservation for minorities
    (D) Job quotas for women
    Answer: (A)

    Q80. The Women’s Reservation Bill (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) was passed in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2010
    (C) 2023
    (D) 2024
    Answer: (C)

    Q81. Representation of women in Lok Sabha (2024) is around:
    (A) 5%
    (B) 10%
    (C) 15%
    (D) 25%
    Answer: (C)

    Q82. The concept of “politics of presence” was given by:
    (A) Iris Marion Young
    (B) Amartya Sen
    (C) Mahbub-ul-Haq
    (D) Simone de Beauvoir
    Answer: (A)

    Q83. The “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” scheme focuses on:
    (A) Employment
    (B) Health and education of girls
    (C) Urban development
    (D) Rural roads
    Answer: (B)

    Q84. The first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state was:
    (A) Sucheta Kriplani
    (B) Indira Gandhi
    (C) Jayalalithaa
    (D) Sheila Dikshit
    Answer: (A)

    Q85. Which article ensures equality before law in India?
    (A) Article 12
    (B) Article 14
    (C) Article 19
    (D) Article 32
    Answer: (B)

    Q86. The first all-women political party in India was:
    (A) Mahila Congress
    (B) National Women’s Party
    (C) Women Power Party
    (D) Stree Shakti Party
    Answer: (B)

    Q87. Women’s participation in politics strengthens:
    (A) Authoritarianism
    (B) Democracy and inclusion
    (C) Elitism
    (D) Populism
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part H: Ideology & Political Parties (88–94)

    Q88. The Indian National Congress follows:
    (A) Right-wing ideology
    (B) Centrist ideology
    (C) Communist ideology
    (D) Monarchical ideology
    Answer: (B)

    Q89. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) believes in:
    (A) Capitalism
    (B) Liberalism
    (C) Socialism and Marxism
    (D) Gandhian economics
    Answer: (C)

    Q90. The BJP’s ideological mentor is:
    (A) RSS
    (B) CPI
    (C) INC
    (D) BSP
    Answer: (A)

    Q91. The Bahujan Samaj Party’s ideology is based on:
    (A) Marxism
    (B) Ambedkarism and social justice
    (C) Liberalism
    (D) Feminism
    Answer: (B)

    Q92. The Aam Aadmi Party’s focus is on:
    (A) Religious politics
    (B) Governance and anti-corruption
    (C) Socialist revolution
    (D) Agrarian reform
    Answer: (B)

    Q93. National parties must be recognized in at least:
    (A) One state
    (B) Two states
    (C) Four states
    (D) Five states
    Answer: (D)

    Q94. Regional parties represent:
    (A) All-India interests
    (B) Local cultural or economic identities
    (C) Central government interests
    (D) Judiciary
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part I: Electoral Politics (95–100)

    Q95. The Election Commission of India is established under:
    (A) Article 324
    (B) Article 356
    (C) Article 370
    (D) Article 14
    Answer: (A)

    Q96. Universal adult franchise in India is given to citizens aged:
    (A) 18 and above
    (B) 21 and above
    (C) 25 and above
    (D) 16 and above
    Answer: (A)

    Q97. Model Code of Conduct is enforced by:
    (A) Parliament
    (B) Election Commission
    (C) Supreme Court
    (D) Political parties
    Answer: (B)

    Q98. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) was introduced in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2010
    (C) 2013
    (D) 2015
    Answer: (C)

    Q99. Coalition politics in India became prominent after:
    (A) 1967
    (B) 1977
    (C) 1989
    (D) 1999
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: After 1989, no single party got a majority, leading to coalition governments.

    Q100. The NOTA option was introduced in Indian elections in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2013
    (C) 2015
    (D) 2018
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to introduce NOTA in 2013.

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-6 India’s Foreign Policy MCQs

    Section 1: Perspectives on India’s Foreign Policy (1–15)

    1. The basic objective of India’s foreign policy after independence was:
    A. Joining Western alliances
    B. Gaining colonial territories
    C. Preserving independence and promoting peace
    D. Expanding military bases
    ✅ Answer: C
    Explanation: India aimed for peace, sovereignty, and non-alignment after centuries of colonial rule.*

    2. India’s foreign policy after 1947 was deeply shaped by:
    A. Its colonial experience
    B. Its monarchy
    C. Its military power
    D. Its population
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s postcolonial identity influenced its emphasis on sovereignty, equality, and anti-imperialism.*

    3. “Strategic Autonomy” in India’s foreign policy means:
    A. Isolation from global affairs
    B. Dependence on superpowers
    C. Independent decision-making without bloc politics
    D. Permanent alignment with USA
    ✅ Answer: C

    4. India’s focus on economic diplomacy after 1991 is due to:
    A. Industrial stagnation
    B. Economic liberalization and globalization
    C. Military defeat
    D. Colonial rule
    ✅ Answer: B

    5. India’s foreign policy combines idealism with:
    A. Realism and pragmatism
    B. Isolationism
    C. Militarism
    D. Religious diplomacy
    ✅ Answer: A

    6. The term “postcolonial foreign policy” refers to:
    A. Relations after World War II
    B. Foreign policy of newly decolonized states
    C. Colonial diplomacy
    D. Pre-war negotiations
    ✅ Answer: B

    7. India’s identity as a “rising power” is reflected in:
    A. NAM only
    B. Active participation in BRICS, G-20, and SCO
    C. Isolationist policies
    D. Dependence on aid
    ✅ Answer: B

    8. South–South Cooperation refers to:
    A. North–South dialogue
    B. Cooperation among developing nations
    C. Cold War alliances
    D. UN reforms
    ✅ Answer: B

    9. India’s approach to global issues since 1990s can best be described as:
    A. Defensive
    B. Pragmatic multilateralism
    C. Isolationism
    D. Military expansionism
    ✅ Answer: B

    10. India’s post-1991 foreign policy increasingly linked diplomacy with:
    A. Spiritual goals
    B. Economic interests and market access
    C. Cultural revival
    D. Population control
    ✅ Answer: B

    11. The concept of “Vishwa Guru” in India’s diplomacy highlights:
    A. Cultural dominance
    B. India’s global moral and spiritual leadership
    C. Military leadership
    D. Technological superiority
    ✅ Answer: B

    12. India’s foreign policy after independence was largely formulated by:
    A. Mahatma Gandhi
    B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    C. Sardar Patel
    D. Rajendra Prasad
    ✅ Answer: B

    13. Economic reforms of 1991 led to:
    A. Isolation from global economy
    B. Stronger global engagement and foreign investment
    C. Military alliances
    D. Withdrawal from WTO
    ✅ Answer: B

    14. India’s postcolonial diplomacy emphasized:
    A. Anti-imperialism and peaceful coexistence
    B. Colonial expansion
    C. Arms race
    D. Regional dominance
    ✅ Answer: A

    15. India’s participation in UN peacekeeping operations reflects:
    A. Expansionism
    B. Commitment to collective security and peace
    C. Alliance-building
    D. Nationalistic isolation
    ✅ Answer: B

    ☮️ Section 2: Principles, Determinants & NAM (16–25)

    16. The “Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence” are known as:
    A. Panchsheel
    B. NAM principles
    C. Gandhian Diplomacy
    D. Global Charter
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: Formulated in 1954 by Nehru and Zhou Enlai.*

    17. Which of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel?
    A. Mutual respect for sovereignty
    B. Peaceful coexistence
    C. Mutual non-aggression
    D. Economic dependence
    ✅ Answer: D

    18. India’s Non-Aligned policy was aimed at:
    A. Isolation
    B. Avoiding Cold War blocs while promoting peace
    C. Joining NATO
    D. Supporting USSR
    ✅ Answer: B

    19. The first NAM Summit was held in:
    A. New Delhi
    B. Belgrade
    C. Cairo
    D. Jakarta
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: 1961 Belgrade Summit; leaders: Nehru, Tito, Nasser.*

    20. “Non-Alignment does not mean neutrality” — this was stated by:
    A. Nehru
    B. Krishna Menon
    C. Indira Gandhi
    D. Rajiv Gandhi
    ✅ Answer: A

    21. The historical context for NAM was:
    A. End of colonialism and rise of Cold War
    B. World War II alliances
    C. European integration
    D. Economic liberalization
    ✅ Answer: A

    22. Relevance of NAM today lies in:
    A. Supporting bipolar world
    B. Promoting multipolar, cooperative order
    C. Cold War ideology
    D. Political isolation
    ✅ Answer: B

    23. “Non-Alignment 2.0” (2012 report) emphasized:
    A. Complete neutrality
    B. India’s role as a responsible power balancing autonomy and engagement
    C. Withdrawal from global institutions
    D. Military alliance with Russia
    ✅ Answer: B

    24. Determinants of India’s foreign policy include all except:
    A. Geography
    B. Leadership
    C. Astrology
    D. Economy
    ✅ Answer: C

    25. The architect of India’s foreign policy was:
    A. Indira Gandhi
    B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    C. Rajiv Gandhi
    D. Vallabhbhai Patel
    ✅ Answer: B

    ☢️ Section 3: Nuclear Policy & Strategic Issues (26–35)

    26. India’s first nuclear test was conducted in:
    A. 1964
    B. 1974
    C. 1998
    D. 2001
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: Pokhran-I (1974) under Indira Gandhi, termed “Peaceful Nuclear Explosion.”*

    27. Pokhran-II nuclear tests were conducted under:
    A. Indira Gandhi
    B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    C. Rajiv Gandhi
    D. Manmohan Singh
    ✅ Answer: B

    28. India’s nuclear doctrine is based on:
    A. First-use policy
    B. No-First-Use and Credible Minimum Deterrence
    C. Total disarmament
    D. Aggressive expansionism
    ✅ Answer: B

    29. India refused to sign the NPT because:
    A. It was discriminatory between nuclear and non-nuclear states
    B. It restricted civil nuclear energy
    C. It banned exports
    D. It was against NAM
    ✅ Answer: A

    30. India’s civil nuclear deal with the USA was signed in:
    A. 2000
    B. 2005
    C. 2008
    D. 2010
    ✅ Answer: C

    31. Which agreement established Panchsheel between India and China?
    A. 1954 Trade Agreement on Tibet
    B. 1962 Peace Pact
    C. 1971 Friendship Treaty
    D. 1988 Summit
    ✅ Answer: A

    32. “Nuclear India” became official in:
    A. 1962
    B. 1974
    C. 1998
    D. 2005
    ✅ Answer: C

    33. India’s “No First Use” policy implies:
    A. First strike on enemy
    B. Use only in retaliation to nuclear attack
    C. Disarmament
    D. None
    ✅ Answer: B

    34. Which Indian Prime Minister described nuclear weapons as “weapons of peace”?
    A. Nehru
    B. Indira Gandhi
    C. Vajpayee
    D. Manmohan Singh
    ✅ Answer: C

    35. India’s “credible minimum deterrence” means:
    A. Maximum stockpile
    B. Minimum number of nuclear weapons sufficient for deterrence
    C. No deterrence
    D. Use of chemical weapons
    ✅ Answer: B

    🌏 Section 4: Relations with Major Powers & Multipolar World (36–50)

    36. The Indo–Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was signed in:
    A. 1965
    B. 1971
    C. 1975
    D. 1980
    ✅ Answer: B

    37. During the 1971 Bangladesh War, which country supported India?
    A. USA
    B. USSR
    C. China
    D. UK
    ✅ Answer: B

    38. India’s Act East Policy aims primarily at:
    A. Africa
    B. Southeast Asia and Indo-Pacific
    C. Europe
    D. Latin America
    ✅ Answer: B

    39. India’s “Look East Policy” was launched by:
    A. Nehru
    B. Indira Gandhi
    C. P. V. Narasimha Rao
    D. Vajpayee
    ✅ Answer: C

    40. The “Gujral Doctrine” is based on:
    A. Nuclear cooperation
    B. Unilateral goodwill towards neighbours
    C. Strategic autonomy
    D. Military alliances
    ✅ Answer: B

    41. SAARC was established in:
    A. 1965
    B. 1971
    C. 1985
    D. 1991
    ✅ Answer: C

    42. Which country is not a member of SAARC?
    A. Myanmar
    B. Bhutan
    C. Nepal
    D. Maldives
    ✅ Answer: A

    43. The main obstacle in SAARC’s functioning has been:
    A. India–Pakistan conflict
    B. Economic disparities
    C. Geographical distance
    D. Cultural differences
    ✅ Answer: A

    44. BRICS represents:
    A. Developed economies
    B. Emerging economies
    C. Military bloc
    D. Trade union
    ✅ Answer: B

    45. SCO was founded to promote:
    A. Security and anti-terrorism cooperation in Eurasia
    B. Climate control
    C. Education exchange
    D. Tourism
    ✅ Answer: A

    46. India joined SCO in:
    A. 2000
    B. 2010
    C. 2017
    D. 2020
    ✅ Answer: C

    47. India’s partnership with the USA has strengthened through:
    A. Nuclear deal, QUAD, defense cooperation
    B. Cold War alliance
    C. Isolationism
    D. Disarmament
    ✅ Answer: A

    48. India–Russia cooperation includes:
    A. BrahMos missile project
    B. SAARC security pact
    C. Arctic treaty
    D. Climate finance
    ✅ Answer: A

    49. The EU is India’s:
    A. Smallest trade partner
    B. Largest regional trading partner
    C. Political rival
    D. Aid donor
    ✅ Answer: B

    50. India’s ties with GCC focus on:
    A. Defense manufacturing
    B. Energy security and diaspora welfare
    C. Political expansion
    D. Technology export
    ✅ Answer: B

    🏛️ Section 5: India in International Regimes (51–60)

    51. India advocates reform of:
    A. UN Security Council
    B. UNESCO
    C. ILO
    D. WHO
    ✅ Answer: A

    52. India is part of the G-4 group with:
    A. Japan, Germany, Brazil
    B. China, USA, Russia
    C. South Africa, France, UK
    D. Mexico, Canada, Australia
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: G4 supports mutual candidatures for permanent UNSC membership.*

    53. India’s negotiation strategy in WTO focuses on:
    A. Free trade for all
    B. Protecting farmers and food security
    C. Supporting Western trade rules
    D. Eliminating subsidies
    ✅ Answer: B

    54. In IMF, India demands:
    A. Reduction in voting rights
    B. Greater representation for developing countries
    C. Withdrawal from membership
    D. More aid from US
    ✅ Answer: B

    55. India’s stance in climate negotiations emphasizes:
    A. Equal responsibility for all nations
    B. Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR)
    C. Exemption from obligations
    D. No cooperation
    ✅ Answer: B

    56. The Paris Agreement (2015) India committed to:
    A. Zero emissions by 2030
    B. Reducing carbon intensity and promoting renewables
    C. Complete withdrawal
    D. Coal-only policy
    ✅ Answer: B

    57. India’s International Solar Alliance (ISA) promotes:
    A. Nuclear power
    B. Solar energy cooperation among tropical countries
    C. Wind energy
    D. Coal export
    ✅ Answer: B

    58. India’s major role in UN peacekeeping reflects its:
    A. Colonial legacy
    B. Commitment to global peace
    C. Expansionist policy
    D. Regional dominance
    ✅ Answer: B

    59. India’s WTO position represents:
    A. Developed nations’ interest
    B. Developing nations and food security
    C. Isolationism
    D. Western trade blocs
    ✅ Answer: B

    60. India’s approach to global institutions is best described as:
    A. Reformist and cooperative
    B. Revolutionary
    C. Isolationist
    D. Passive
    ✅ Answer: A

     Section 6: Contemporary Challenges (61–70)

    61. India’s “SAGAR” initiative stands for:
    A. South Asian Growth and Research
    B. Security and Growth for All in the Region
    C. Sea and Global Alliance for Reform
    D. South Asia Green Action Report
    ✅ Answer: B

    62. “Blue Economy” in India’s diplomacy refers to:
    A. Space exploration
    B. Sustainable ocean resource use
    C. Tourism
    D. Water pollution
    ✅ Answer: B

    63. India’s major source of crude oil imports is:
    A. Europe
    B. Middle East (Gulf)
    C. East Asia
    D. North America
    ✅ Answer: B

    64. Cyber security is vital because:
    A. India’s economy depends on digital infrastructure
    B. It reduces taxes
    C. It controls pollution
    D. It replaces diplomacy
    ✅ Answer: A

    65. India’s main concern in Indian Ocean is:
    A. Piracy and Chinese naval presence
    B. Earthquakes
    C. Tourism
    D. Fishing zones
    ✅ Answer: A

    66. India’s refugee policy is guided by:
    A. UN conventions only
    B. Humanitarian traditions and ad hoc decisions
    C. NATO directives
    D. Constitutional obligation
    ✅ Answer: B

    67. Indus Water Treaty (1960) was signed between:
    A. India and Bangladesh
    B. India and Pakistan
    C. India and China
    D. India and Nepal
    ✅ Answer: B

    68. India’s counterterrorism diplomacy focuses on:
    A. Bilateralism
    B. UN Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT)
    C. Sanctions
    D. Non-interference
    ✅ Answer: B

    69. Energy security is vital for India because:
    A. India imports over 80% of crude oil
    B. India exports oil
    C. India is fully renewable
    D. Oil prices are fixed
    ✅ Answer: A

    70. India’s growing participation in QUAD, G20, and BRICS signifies:
    A. Shift from non-alignment to multialignment
    B. Isolation
    C. Colonial dependence
    D. Neutrality
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s foreign policy today is “issue-based multialignment,” balancing multiple partners.*