Part A: State, Economy and Development (1–15)
Q1. The Indian State is best described as:
(A) Capitalist
(B) Socialist
(C) Welfare and Developmental
(D) Authoritarian
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian State combines democracy and welfare, aiming at social justice and development.
Q2. The Planning Commission of India was established in:
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1952
(D) 1956
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Planning Commission was formed in 1950 under Jawaharlal Nehru to coordinate Five-Year Plans.
Q3. The Nehru–Mahalanobis Model emphasized:
(A) Agriculture
(B) Heavy industries
(C) Small-scale industries
(D) Services
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) focused on rapid industrialization through heavy industries.
Q4. The New Economic Policy (NEP) was introduced in:
(A) 1980
(B) 1985
(C) 1991
(D) 1995
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The NEP of 1991 introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Liberalization?
(A) De-licensing
(B) Import liberalization
(C) Privatization of PSUs
(D) Increased state control
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Liberalization reduces government control, encouraging market freedom.
Q6. Who replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog?
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) Narendra Modi
(D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer: (C)
Explanation: NITI Aayog was established in 2015 under Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Q7. The term “Human Development” was popularized by:
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Mahbub-ul-Haq
(C) Gunnar Myrdal
(D) Adam Smith
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) concept for UNDP in 1990.
Q8. The focus of Amartya Sen’s theory is on:
(A) Capital accumulation
(B) Income distribution
(C) Human capabilities and freedoms
(D) Industrial growth
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Sen’s “Capability Approach” emphasizes expanding human choices and freedoms.
Q9. The Indian economy after 1991 is described as:
(A) Closed economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Market-oriented economy
(D) Command economy
Answer: (C)
Explanation: NEP reforms shifted India towards a market-oriented economic model.
Q10. The Green Revolution in India was introduced in:
(A) 1947
(B) 1952
(C) 1965
(D) 1975
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Green Revolution began in 1965 under Lal Bahadur Shastri focusing on food grain self-sufficiency.
Q11. Who coined the term “License Raj”?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Manmohan Singh
Answer: (C)
Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari criticized the excessive bureaucracy of state control as “License Raj”.
Q12. NITI Aayog’s approach is based on:
(A) Centralized planning
(B) Cooperative federalism
(C) Command economy
(D) Socialist economy
Answer: (B)
Explanation: NITI Aayog promotes coordination between the Centre and States through cooperative federalism.
Q13. The first Five-Year Plan in India emphasized:
(A) Industry
(B) Agriculture and irrigation
(C) Trade
(D) Services
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The first plan (1951–56) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and rural development.
Q14. Economic inequality in India increased mainly after:
(A) Green Revolution
(B) LPG reforms
(C) Nationalization
(D) Land reforms
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 1991 LPG reforms led to growth but widened the gap between rich and poor.
Q15. Human Development Index (HDI) measures:
(A) Income and wealth only
(B) Education, health, income
(C) Population growth
(D) Industrial growth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: HDI combines life expectancy, education, and per capita income.
🟢 Part B: Globalisation (16–25)
Q16. Globalisation means:
(A) National isolation
(B) Integration of national economies
(C) Expansion of state control
(D) De-industrialization
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Globalisation integrates economies and societies through trade, capital, and technology.
Q17. Globalisation in India began after:
(A) 1980 reforms
(B) 1991 reforms
(C) 2001 WTO entry
(D) 2014 digital policy
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 1991 NEP initiated the process of integrating India into the global economy.
Q18. One major consequence of globalisation is:
(A) Decline in inequality
(B) Decline in FDI
(C) Job insecurity and inequality
(D) State expansion
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Globalisation increased growth but created job insecurity and income inequality.
Q19. The WTO was established in:
(A) 1945
(B) 1985
(C) 1995
(D) 2001
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995 replacing GATT.
Q20. A key social impact of globalisation is:
(A) Strengthening of local traditions
(B) Cultural homogenisation
(C) Isolationism
(D) Reduction in communication
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Globalisation leads to the spread of global culture, reducing diversity in some cases.
Q21. India’s integration with the global economy was accelerated by:
(A) Green Revolution
(B) New Economic Policy 1991
(C) Nationalization
(D) Swadeshi movement
Answer: (B)
Q22. Which sector benefited the most from globalisation in India?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Services
(D) Mining
Answer: (C)
Explanation: IT and service sectors saw rapid growth due to liberalized policies and global demand.
Q23. One major political effect of globalisation is:
(A) Decline of regional parties
(B) Rise of corporate influence
(C) Strengthening of socialism
(D) State control over economy
Answer: (B)
Q24. The slogan “Think globally, act locally” refers to:
(A) Environmentalism and globalisation
(B) Nationalism
(C) Federalism
(D) Communalism
Answer: (A)
Q25. The process of globalisation increased the importance of:
(A) Local economies
(B) Non-state actors and MNCs
(C) Central government
(D) Bureaucracy
Answer: (B)
🟢 Part C: Identity Politics (26–40)
Q26. Identity politics in India is mainly based on:
(A) Economic class
(B) Caste, religion, region, language
(C) Race
(D) Urban–rural division
Answer: (B)
Q27. The Mandal Commission dealt with:
(A) Religious minorities
(B) OBC reservation
(C) Scheduled Tribes
(D) Women’s rights
Answer: (B)
Q28. The Mandal Commission report was implemented in:
(A) 1979
(B) 1985
(C) 1990
(D) 1995
Answer: (C)
Explanation: V.P. Singh implemented the Mandal recommendations in 1990.
Q29. Dalit politics is associated with:
(A) Marxism
(B) Ambedkarite ideology
(C) Gandhian philosophy
(D) Liberalism
Answer: (B)
Q30. The term “Bahujan” refers to:
(A) Minorities
(B) Upper castes
(C) Majority of oppressed classes
(D) Industrial workers
Answer: (C)
Q31. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) draws ideological inspiration from:
(A) Liberalism
(B) Marxism
(C) Hindutva
(D) Gandhism
Answer: (C)
Q32. The Sachar Committee dealt with the conditions of:
(A) SCs
(B) STs
(C) Muslims
(D) OBCs
Answer: (C)
Q33. Tribal movements in India mainly demand:
(A) Urbanization
(B) Autonomy and land rights
(C) Nationalization
(D) Privatization
Answer: (B)
Q34. Linguistic reorganisation of states was based on the report of:
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Fazl Ali Commission
(C) Punchhi Commission
(D) Mandal Commission
Answer: (B)
Q35. The Dravidian movement originated in:
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Assam
(D) Bihar
Answer: (B)
Q36. The term “communalism” refers to:
(A) Cooperation between religions
(B) Political use of religion
(C) Atheism
(D) Cultural assimilation
Answer: (B)
Q37. The concept of “politics of presence” is associated with:
(A) Caste system
(B) Gender representation
(C) Regionalism
(D) Religion
Answer: (B)
Q38. OBCs were granted constitutional recognition through:
(A) Article 341
(B) Article 342
(C) Mandal Commission
(D) Constitution (First Amendment)
Answer: (C)
Q39. The rise of regional parties in India is mainly due to:
(A) Class conflict
(B) Regional disparities
(C) Bureaucratic control
(D) Decline of coalition politics
Answer: (B)
Q40. Identity politics became prominent in India during:
(A) Nehru era
(B) Post-1970s
(C) Pre-independence
(D) 1940s
Answer: (B)
Part D: Social Movements (41–55)
Q41. Social movements are best defined as:
(A) Political parties contesting elections
(B) Collective efforts for social or political change
(C) Bureaucratic organizations
(D) Governmental policies
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Social movements are organized collective actions aimed at social transformation.
Q42. The Dalit movement primarily aims at:
(A) Religious reform
(B) Caste-based equality and dignity
(C) Women’s rights
(D) Economic liberalization
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Dalit movement, led by Ambedkar, seeks equality, social justice, and the end of untouchability.
Q43. The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded by:
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Kanshi Ram
(C) Mayawati
(D) Jagjivan Ram
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Kanshi Ram founded BSP in 1984 to represent the Bahujans — Dalits, OBCs, and minorities.
Q44. The Chipko Movement was primarily concerned with:
(A) Labour rights
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Tribal autonomy
(D) Political representation
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Chipko Movement (1970s, Uttarakhand) aimed to protect forests from commercial exploitation.
Q45. Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
(A) Medha Patkar
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Anna Hazare
(D) Vandana Shiva
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Medha Patkar led this movement against large dams and displacement of people.
Q46. The Tebhaga Movement was related to:
(A) Factory workers
(B) Farmers and sharecroppers
(C) Industrial labourers
(D) Women’s rights
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Tebhaga (1946–47, Bengal) demanded two-thirds share of crops for sharecroppers.
Q47. Which movement is associated with “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan”?
(A) Women’s movement
(B) Peasant movement
(C) Labour movement
(D) Environmental movement
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan during food crisis to motivate farmers and soldiers.
Q48. The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded in:
(A) 1920
(B) 1947
(C) 1950
(D) 1975
Answer: (A)
Explanation: AITUC (1920) was India’s first national trade union, affiliated with communist ideology.
Q49. The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) was founded by:
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Medha Patkar
(C) Vandana Shiva
(D) Aruna Roy
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ela Bhatt founded SEWA (1972) to empower self-employed women workers.
Q50. The anti-corruption movement (2011) led to the formation of:
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Janata Party
(C) Aam Aadmi Party
(D) National Front
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Anna Hazare’s 2011 movement inspired Arvind Kejriwal to form AAP in 2012.
Q51. The slogan “Garibi Hatao” was first given by:
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer: (B)
Q52. The Naxalite movement started in:
(A) 1947
(B) 1952
(C) 1967
(D) 1975
Answer: (C)
Explanation: It began in 1967 in Naxalbari, West Bengal, as a peasant armed rebellion.
Q53. The women’s movement in India gained momentum during:
(A) 1920s
(B) 1940s
(C) 1970s
(D) 1990s
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The post-1970 period saw rise in feminist and rights-based movements.
Q54. The Right to Information (RTI) movement was initiated by:
(A) SEWA
(B) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
(C) Greenpeace India
(D) AITUC
Answer: (B)
Q55. Which movement combined gender and environmental issues?
(A) Naxalite
(B) Chipko
(C) Tebhaga
(D) Telangana
Answer: (B)
🟢 Part E: Civil Society (56–65)
Q56. Civil society refers to:
(A) Political parties
(B) Military organizations
(C) Non-state voluntary associations
(D) Bureaucracy
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Civil society is the sphere between state and family where citizens organize voluntarily.
Q57. NGOs in India mainly work for:
(A) Political campaigns
(B) Public welfare and development
(C) Foreign diplomacy
(D) Profit-making
Answer: (B)
Q58. The RTI Act was passed in:
(A) 2002
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (B)
Q59. Which organization is known for working on child rights in India?
(A) CRY
(B) NASSCOM
(C) WWF
(D) FICCI
Answer: (A)
Q60. Non-party political formations refer to:
(A) Electoral coalitions
(B) Movements outside party politics
(C) Political alliances
(D) Bureaucratic groups
Answer: (B)
Q61. The concept of “participatory democracy” is strengthened by:
(A) Bureaucracy
(B) Civil society and NGOs
(C) Political centralization
(D) Media monopoly
Answer: (B)
Q62. Aruna Roy is associated with:
(A) Green Revolution
(B) RTI and rural empowerment
(C) Women’s reservation
(D) Nationalization
Answer: (B)
Q63. The term “third sector” is often used for:
(A) Private corporations
(B) Civil society organizations
(C) Political parties
(D) Bureaucrats
Answer: (B)
Q64. Social Action Groups mainly work for:
(A) Profits
(B) Social justice and human rights
(C) Political campaigns
(D) Economic liberalization
Answer: (B)
Q65. Civil society acts as a ______ between citizens and the state.
(A) Barrier
(B) Bridge
(C) Substitute
(D) Controller
Answer: (B)
🟢 Part F: Regionalisation of Indian Politics (66–78)
Q66. The linguistic reorganisation of states took place in:
(A) 1947
(B) 1956
(C) 1962
(D) 1971
Answer: (B)
Q67. The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was headed by:
(A) K.M. Munshi
(B) Fazl Ali
(C) G.B. Pant
(D) Nehru
Answer: (B)
Q68. The first linguistic state of India was:
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
Answer: (A)
Q69. Telangana was created as the ____ state of India.
(A) 28th
(B) 29th
(C) 30th
(D) 31st
Answer: (B)
Q70. The creation of new states in 2000 included:
(A) Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(B) Goa, Mizoram, Meghalaya
(C) Tripura, Manipur, Sikkim
(D) Haryana, Punjab, Delhi
Answer: (A)
Q71. Regionalism often arises due to:
(A) Economic equality
(B) Regional disparities
(C) Cultural homogeneity
(D) Centralization of power
Answer: (B)
Q72. The term “sons of the soil” relates to:
(A) Caste movements
(B) Regional movements
(C) Environmentalism
(D) Labour movements
Answer: (B)
Q73. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) emerged in:
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer: (B)
Q74. The Bodo movement is associated with:
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Odisha
(D) West Bengal
Answer: (A)
Q75. The demand for Vidarbha state is from:
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (B)
Q76. Regional parties primarily represent:
(A) National ideology
(B) Local and regional interests
(C) Bureaucracy
(D) Elite classes
Answer: (B)
Q77. Regionalisation of politics has led to:
(A) One-party dominance
(B) Coalition governments
(C) Central dictatorship
(D) Military rule
Answer: (B)
Q78. The movement for Gorkhaland is centered in:
(A) Assam
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Sikkim
Answer: (C)
🟢 Part G: Gender and Politics (79–87)
Q79. The 73rd and 74th Amendments provide:
(A) Women’s 33% reservation in local bodies
(B) Reservation in Parliament
(C) Reservation for minorities
(D) Job quotas for women
Answer: (A)
Q80. The Women’s Reservation Bill (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) was passed in:
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2023
(D) 2024
Answer: (C)
Q81. Representation of women in Lok Sabha (2024) is around:
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 25%
Answer: (C)
Q82. The concept of “politics of presence” was given by:
(A) Iris Marion Young
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Mahbub-ul-Haq
(D) Simone de Beauvoir
Answer: (A)
Q83. The “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” scheme focuses on:
(A) Employment
(B) Health and education of girls
(C) Urban development
(D) Rural roads
Answer: (B)
Q84. The first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state was:
(A) Sucheta Kriplani
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Jayalalithaa
(D) Sheila Dikshit
Answer: (A)
Q85. Which article ensures equality before law in India?
(A) Article 12
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 32
Answer: (B)
Q86. The first all-women political party in India was:
(A) Mahila Congress
(B) National Women’s Party
(C) Women Power Party
(D) Stree Shakti Party
Answer: (B)
Q87. Women’s participation in politics strengthens:
(A) Authoritarianism
(B) Democracy and inclusion
(C) Elitism
(D) Populism
Answer: (B)
🟢 Part H: Ideology & Political Parties (88–94)
Q88. The Indian National Congress follows:
(A) Right-wing ideology
(B) Centrist ideology
(C) Communist ideology
(D) Monarchical ideology
Answer: (B)
Q89. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) believes in:
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Socialism and Marxism
(D) Gandhian economics
Answer: (C)
Q90. The BJP’s ideological mentor is:
(A) RSS
(B) CPI
(C) INC
(D) BSP
Answer: (A)
Q91. The Bahujan Samaj Party’s ideology is based on:
(A) Marxism
(B) Ambedkarism and social justice
(C) Liberalism
(D) Feminism
Answer: (B)
Q92. The Aam Aadmi Party’s focus is on:
(A) Religious politics
(B) Governance and anti-corruption
(C) Socialist revolution
(D) Agrarian reform
Answer: (B)
Q93. National parties must be recognized in at least:
(A) One state
(B) Two states
(C) Four states
(D) Five states
Answer: (D)
Q94. Regional parties represent:
(A) All-India interests
(B) Local cultural or economic identities
(C) Central government interests
(D) Judiciary
Answer: (B)
🟢 Part I: Electoral Politics (95–100)
Q95. The Election Commission of India is established under:
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 14
Answer: (A)
Q96. Universal adult franchise in India is given to citizens aged:
(A) 18 and above
(B) 21 and above
(C) 25 and above
(D) 16 and above
Answer: (A)
Q97. Model Code of Conduct is enforced by:
(A) Parliament
(B) Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Political parties
Answer: (B)
Q98. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) was introduced in:
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2013
(D) 2015
Answer: (C)
Q99. Coalition politics in India became prominent after:
(A) 1967
(B) 1977
(C) 1989
(D) 1999
Answer: (C)
Explanation: After 1989, no single party got a majority, leading to coalition governments.
Q100. The NOTA option was introduced in Indian elections in:
(A) 2009
(B) 2013
(C) 2015
(D) 2018
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to introduce NOTA in 2013.