UGC NET Political Science Unit–10 Governance and Public Policy in India/MCQs

Part A: Governance and Good Governance (Q1–20)

Q1. The term “Governance” literally means:
(A) Government institutions
(B) Process of steering or directing society
(C) Political authority
(D) Judicial activism
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Derived from Greek kybernan meaning “to steer,” governance refers to how societies are directed and coordinated.

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Q2. The concept of “Good Governance” was first introduced by:
(A) United Nations
(B) World Bank
(C) IMF
(D) Commonwealth
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The World Bank Report (1989) introduced “Good Governance” emphasizing efficiency, accountability, and rule of law.

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Q3. Governance differs from government because it:
(A) Is limited to the state
(B) Includes non-state actors and processes
(C) Refers only to laws
(D) Focuses only on security
Answer: (B)

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Q4. According to UNDP (1997), good governance includes how many key features?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 5
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The eight features are participation, rule of law, transparency, responsiveness, consensus orientation, equity, effectiveness, and accountability.

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Q5. Democratic governance emphasizes:
(A) Centralization
(B) Authoritarianism
(C) Participation and equality
(D) Bureaucratic control
Answer: (C)

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Q6. The concept of “governance” gained global importance after:
(A) 1947
(B) 1989
(C) 1971
(D) 1999
Answer: (B)

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Q7. In good governance, the rule of law implies:
(A) Supremacy of individuals
(B) Supremacy of law and equality before law
(C) Government by force
(D) Administrative discretion
Answer: (B)

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Q8. Transparency in governance primarily ensures:
(A) Secrecy
(B) Access to information and openness
(C) Bureaucratic monopoly
(D) Political control
Answer: (B)

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Q9. Which of the following is not an element of good governance?
(A) Participation
(B) Accountability
(C) Inequality
(D) Transparency
Answer: (C)

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Q10. The democratic governance model views citizens as:
(A) Subjects
(B) Customers and partners
(C) Dependents
(D) Taxpayers only
Answer: (B)

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Q11. “Good governance is citizen-centric administration” — this statement was emphasized by:
(A) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) UPSC
(D) NITI Aayog
Answer: (A)

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Q12. The shift from government to governance implies:
(A) Bureaucratic centralization
(B) Inclusive and network-based administration
(C) Political dominance
(D) Hierarchical rigidity
Answer: (B)

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Q13. In democratic governance, civil society acts as:
(A) A watch-dog and pressure group
(B) Part of the legislature
(C) Economic regulator
(D) Judicial body
Answer: (A)

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Q14. In the governance model, “Accountability” refers to:
(A) Avoiding responsibility
(B) Answerability of officials for their actions
(C) Rule-breaking
(D) Administrative secrecy
Answer: (B)

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Q15. The World Bank defines governance as:
(A) The process of decision-making and implementation
(B) Rule of government only
(C) Legal system of state
(D) Political ideology
Answer: (A)

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Q16. The focus of “Good Governance” is on:
(A) Control and hierarchy
(B) Service delivery and citizen welfare
(C) Political campaigns
(D) Party politics
Answer: (B)

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Q17. “Governance without government” refers to:
(A) Civil society and market-based coordination
(B) Military rule
(C) Judicial activism
(D) Administrative hierarchy
Answer: (A)

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Q18. The 2nd ARC report titled “Right to Information – Master Key to Good Governance” was published in:
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2008
Answer: (C)

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Q19. Participatory governance means:
(A) Citizens have no role
(B) Decision-making with people’s involvement
(C) Political control
(D) Technocratic rule
Answer: (B)

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Q20. The most important outcome of good governance is:
(A) Stability and citizen trust
(B) Bureaucratic secrecy
(C) Legal rigidity
(D) Political monopoly
Answer: (A)

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🟢 Part B: Accountability and Control (Q21–40)

Q21. Accountability in public administration means:
(A) Blaming others
(B) Answerability for actions and decisions
(C) Avoiding responsibility
(D) Autonomy without control
Answer: (B)

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Q22. The principle of checks and balances aims to:
(A) Concentrate power
(B) Prevent abuse of power
(C) Strengthen bureaucracy
(D) Reduce participation
Answer: (B)

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Q23. Legislative control over the executive is exercised through:
(A) Judicial review
(B) Question Hour and motions
(C) Civil services
(D) Elections
Answer: (B)

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Q24. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines:
(A) Policy formulation
(B) CAG reports on government expenditure
(C) Criminal cases
(D) Judicial appointments
Answer: (B)

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Q25. The Estimates Committee ensures:
(A) Financial accountability and efficiency
(B) Criminal accountability
(C) Judicial independence
(D) Private investment
Answer: (A)

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Q26. Judicial review is a function of:
(A) Legislature
(B) Judiciary
(C) Executive
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (B)

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Q27. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) strengthens:
(A) Bureaucratic control
(B) Judicial accountability
(C) Citizen participation and justice
(D) Political monopoly
Answer: (C)

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Q28. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ensures:
(A) Legislative control
(B) Financial accountability of government
(C) Judicial review
(D) Administrative secrecy
Answer: (B)

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Q29. “Administrative culture” refers to:
(A) Rules and files only
(B) Shared values, attitudes, and ethics in bureaucracy
(C) Physical structure of offices
(D) Financial performance
Answer: (B)

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Q30. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was given statutory status in:
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (A)

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Q31. The first Lokpal of India (2019) was:
(A) Kiran Bedi
(B) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
(C) Prashant Bhushan
(D) Aruna Roy
Answer: (B)

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Q32. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in:
(A) 2005
(B) 2011
(C) 2013
(D) 2015
Answer: (C)

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Q33. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was enacted in:
(A) 2005
(B) 2010
(C) 2014
(D) 2016
Answer: (C)

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Q34. Budgetary control is exercised mainly by:
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (A)

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Q35. Judicial control over legislature ensures:
(A) Separation of powers
(B) Fusion of powers
(C) Legislative dominance
(D) Bureaucratic control
Answer: (A)

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Q36. Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was first established in:
(A) 1956
(B) 1966
(C) 1976
(D) 1986
Answer: (B)

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Q37. The 2nd ARC report “Ethics in Governance” emphasized:
(A) Political control
(B) Code of ethics, transparency, accountability
(C) Privatization
(D) Bureaucratic secrecy
Answer: (B)

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Q38. Corruption undermines governance by:
(A) Enhancing efficiency
(B) Reducing trust and fairness
(C) Promoting transparency
(D) Strengthening democracy
Answer: (B)

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Q39. The citizen’s right to information is linked to:
(A) Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Freedom of movement
(C) Right to property
(D) Directive Principles
Answer: (A)

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Q40. Control through parliamentary committees ensures:
(A) Secrecy
(B) Accountability and detailed scrutiny
(C) Elitism
(D) Speedy decision
Answer: (B)

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🟢 Part C: Institutions for Good Governance (Q41–60)

Q41. The RTI Act came into force in:
(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2008
(D) 2010
Answer: (B)

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Q42. Under RTI Act, information must be provided within:
(A) 7 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 60 days
Answer: (C)

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Q43. The Consumer Protection Act was revised in:
(A) 2018
(B) 2019
(C) 2020
(D) 2021
Answer: (B)

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Q44. The Citizen Charter initiative was launched in India in:
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2005
Answer: (B)

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Q45. Citizen Charter primarily aims at:
(A) Punishing officials
(B) Defining service standards and grievance redressal
(C) Reducing participation
(D) Increasing secrecy
Answer: (B)

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Q46. The Ombudsman concept originated in:
(A) USA
(B) Sweden
(C) India
(D) UK
Answer: (B)

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Q47. Lokayuktas function at the:
(A) Central level
(B) State level
(C) District level
(D) Panchayat level
Answer: (B)

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Q48. The first state to establish Lokayukta was:
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (D)

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Q49. The main purpose of Ombudsman is to:
(A) Punish politicians
(B) Investigate maladministration and corruption complaints
(C) Collect taxes
(D) Control media
Answer: (B)

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Q50. RTI Act promotes:
(A) Secrecy
(B) Transparency and citizen empowerment
(C) Centralization
(D) Judicial control
Answer: (B)

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Q51. The 2nd ARC recommended merging of Citizen Charter with:
(A) Lokpal
(B) RTI framework
(C) Ombudsman system
(D) Administrative reforms
Answer: (B)

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Q52. Which body audits implementation of Citizen Charters?
(A) CVC
(B) DARPG
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (B)

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Q53. Consumer courts are quasi-judicial bodies that:
(A) Form laws
(B) Resolve consumer disputes and compensate victims
(C) Collect fines
(D) Regulate markets
Answer: (B)

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Q54. The Lokpal and Lokayukta are examples of:
(A) Political bodies
(B) Independent grievance redress institutions
(C) Corporate bodies
(D) Judicial courts
Answer: (B)

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Q55. The Ombudsman is accountable to:
(A) Judiciary
(B) Legislature
(C) Executive
(D) CVC
Answer: (B)

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Q56. RTI Act applies to:
(A) Public authorities
(B) Private institutions
(C) NGOs only
(D) Foreign companies
Answer: (A)

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Q57. The main limitation of RTI Act is:
(A) Misuse and delay in appeals
(B) Too much transparency
(C) Judicial interference
(D) Excessive digitalization
Answer: (A)

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Q58. The Central Information Commission is appointed by:
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President on recommendation of committee
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)

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Q59. Lokpal can investigate:
(A) Only state officers
(B) Central public officials including PM (with restrictions)
(C) Private citizens
(D) Judges of SC
Answer: (B)

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Q60. CVC’s role in governance is mainly:
(A) Advisory and vigilance oversight
(B) Judicial enforcement
(C) Political campaign
(D) Electoral reform
Answer: (A)