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  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-10 India’s Foreign Policy – Top Questions

     

     

    Q1. Non-Aligned Movement was formally founded at—

    1. Bandung, 1955

    2. Belgrade, 1961

    3. Cairo, 1964

    4. Havana, 1979

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: NAM emerged during the Cold War to protect autonomy from military blocs.

    Q2. Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and—

    1. USA

    2. USSR

    3. China

    4. Sri Lanka

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence were signed by Nehru & Zhou Enlai in 1954.

    Q3. Which country is NOT a member of SAARC?

    1. India

    2. China

    3. Nepal

    4. Bangladesh

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: China is not a member; SAARC includes 8 South Asian countries.

    Q4. Look East Policy (later Act East Policy) was initiated to strengthen ties with—

    1. European Union

    2. ASEAN and East Asia

    3. Middle East

    4. South America

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Enhances connectivity, trade & strategic partnerships with Asian economies.

    Q5. India conducted its first nuclear test in—

    1. 1964

    2. 1974

    3. 1991

    4. 1998

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Pokhran-I, codename Smiling Buddha.

    Q6. India’s second nuclear test series (Pokhran-II) was conducted in—

    1. 1984

    2. 1991

    3. 1998

    4. 2000

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Tested nuclear capability for strategic deterrence.

    Q7. Which principle is NOT a part of Panchsheel?

    1. Peaceful co-existence

    2. Mutual respect for territorial integrity

    3. Non-interference in internal affairs

    4. Collective security

    Answer: 4
    Explanation: Collective security is related to the UN system and military alliances.

    Q8. India’s nuclear doctrine is based on—

    1. First Strike

    2. Massive retaliation without warning

    3. No First Use

    4. Limited strike capability only

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: India maintains NFU with credible minimum deterrence.

    Q9. Which of the following organizations includes India, Brazil, Russia, China & South Africa?

    1. SCO

    2. BRICS

    3. QUAD

    4. ASEAN

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: BRICS is a major platform for South–South cooperation.

    Q10. The QUAD grouping consists of—

    1. India, China, Japan, USA

    2. India, Russia, Japan, USA

    3. India, USA, Japan, Australia

    4. India, UK, USA, Japan

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: QUAD focuses on Indo-Pacific strategic cooperation.

    Assertion – Reason

    Q11

    Assertion (A): Non-Alignment allowed India to preserve strategic autonomy during the Cold War.
    Reason (R): India refused to join military alliances like NATO & SEATO.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A

    Q12

    Assertion (A): India’s foreign policy increasingly focuses on economic diplomacy.
    Reason (R): Globalization has linked economic growth to international partnerships.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A

    Match the Following

    Q13

    List I List II
    A. Nehru 1. Non-Alignment
    B. Manmohan Singh 2. Economic diplomacy
    C. Modi

     

    3. Act East & Neighbourhood First
    D. Vajpayee 4. Nuclear Tests – 1998

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14

    List I (Organization) List II
    A. BIMSTEC 1. Bay of Bengal cooperation
    B. SCO

     

    2. Eurasian security cooperation
    C. Quad 3. Indo-Pacific coalition
    D. BRICS 4. Emerging economies

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Short Notes 

    1. Determinants of India’s Foreign Policy

    • Geography — Himalayas, Indian Ocean region

    • History — colonial experience

    • Leadership — Nehru, Indira, Vajpayee, Modi etc.

    • Economic priorities

    • Security concerns — China, Pakistan, terrorism

    2. Key Principles

    Principle Description
    Non-alignment Autonomy from power blocs
    Panchsheel

     

    Peaceful coexistence
    Peace & diplomacy Dialogue over conflict
    Strategic autonomy

     

    Independent decision-making

    3. Major Foreign Policy Doctrines

    • Indira Doctrine

    • Gujral Doctrine

    • Act East

    • Neighbourhood First

    • Indian Ocean Strategy & SAGAR vision

    4. India & Major Powers

    Country Nature of Relations
    USA Strategic & technological partner
    Russia

     

    Defence cooperation
    China

     

    Cooperation + rivalry
    Japan Economic & Indo-Pacific partner

    5. India & Regional Cooperation

    • BRICS, SCO, QUAD, BIMSTEC, SAARC, ASEAN

    • Promotes multipolarity & regional stability

    6. Soft Power

    • Culture, Yoga, Bollywood, Diaspora diplomacy

  • UGC NET Political ScienceUnit 9 — International Political Economy – Top Questions

    Q1. Which approach to International Political Economy considers the state as the primary actor and emphasizes national interest and protectionism?

    1. Structuralism

    2. Mercantilism

    3. Liberalism

    4. Constructivism

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Mercantilism focuses on state power, national wealth and trade protection.

    Q2. The Bretton Woods Conference was held in—

    1. 1930

    2. 1944

    3. 1947

    4. 1950

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Created IMF, World Bank & established a system of fixed exchange rates.

    Q3. Which theory argues that global capitalism perpetuates inequality between rich and poor countries?

    1. Liberalism

    2. Socialist theory

    3. Dependency theory

    4. Behaviouralism

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Dependency theorists say underdevelopment is created through exploitative trade and production relations.

    Q4. WTO was established in—

    1. 1985

    2. 1991

    3. 1995

    4. 2000

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Replaced GATT and regulates global trade liberalization.

    Q5. FDI refers to—

    1. Private international loans

    2. Investment by a company in another country

    3. Government-to-government grants

    4. Remittances by migrants

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: FDI includes capital investment, technology transfer and market expansion.

    Q6. The term “Washington Consensus” refers to—

    1. Socialist planning

    2. Neo-liberal economic reforms

    3. Protectionist trade model

    4. Marxist development strategy

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Refers to IMF–World Bank policy package promoting deregulation, privatization & free markets.

    Q7. The main purpose of the IMF is—

    1. Promote world peace

    2. Monitor exchange rates and lend to countries in crisis

    3. Regulate trade disputes

    4. Provide humanitarian relief

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: IMF stabilizes international monetary system and provides financial support.

    Q8. MNCs are criticized for—

    1. Increasing employment

    2. Enhancing technology

    3. Exploiting resources & labour in developing countries

    4. Increasing exports

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Critics say MNCs extract maximum profit with minimal concern for welfare.

    Q9. Which of the following is an example of a regional economic bloc?

    1. NAM

    2. EU

    3. SAARC Cultural Forum

    4. G-77

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: EU is a regional economic & political union.

    Q10. Sustainable Development emphasizes—

    1. Unlimited industrial growth

    2. Development without environmental harm

    3. Military expansion

    4. Privatization of resources

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: SD balances economic growth, social equity & environment protection.

    Assertion – Reason Questions

    Q11

    Assertion (A): Globalization has increased economic interdependence among states.
    Reason (R): There has been rapid growth of trade, investment and technology flows.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A

    Q12

    Assertion (A): WTO supports free trade policies.
    Reason (R): WTO promotes tariff reduction and removal of trade barriers.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A

    Match the Following

    Q13

    List I List II
    A. IMF 1. Crisis lending & monetary supervision
    B. World Bank 2. Development finance
    C. WTO 3. Trade regulation
    D. UNCTAD 4. Global South development issues

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14

    List I (Theory) List II
    A. Mercantilism 1. Protectionism
    B. Liberalism 2. Free markets
    C. Dependency 3. Exploitation by core/periphery
    D. Structuralism 4. State intervention

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Short Notes (Simple & Concise)

    1. Approaches to IPE

    Approach Key Idea
    Mercantilism State power, protectionism, trade surplus
    Liberalism Free trade, markets regulate economy
    Structuralism/Dependency Inequality rooted in capitalist exploitation

    2. Globalization

    • Economic, technological, cultural integration

    • Free flow of goods, capital & information

    • Criticism: inequality, cultural homogenization, environmental harm

    3. Bretton Woods Institutions

    • IMF: financial stability, lending during crises

    • World Bank: long-term development projects

    • WTO: global trade rules & dispute resolution

    4. MNCs

    • Private corporations operating in multiple countries

    • Pros: capital, jobs, technology

    • Cons: resource extraction, tax avoidance, labour exploitation

    5. North–South & South–South cooperation

    • Address developmental inequality

    • G-77, BRICS, IBSA promote multi-polar world

    6. Sustainable Development

    • Development meeting present needs without harming future needs

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 8 — Public Administration – Top Questions

    Q1. Who is regarded as the Father of Public Administration?

    1. Max Weber

    2. Herbert Simon

    3. Woodrow Wilson

    4. Gulick

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Wilson’s 1887 essay The Study of Administration established Public Administration as a separate discipline.

    Q2. Who gave the Scientific Management Theory?

    1. Elton Mayo

    2. Fayol

    3. F.W. Taylor

    4. L.D. White

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Taylor emphasized efficiency through time study, motion study and standardization.

    Q3. POSDCORB was introduced by—

    1. Fayol

    2. Luther Gulick

    3. Max Weber

    4. Elton Mayo

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: POSDCORB = Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting.

    Q4. Who propounded the Bureaucratic Model of administration?

    1. Weber

    2. Simon

    3. Taylor

    4. Gulick

    Answer: 1
    Explanation: Weber’s ideal bureaucracy consists of hierarchy, rules, merit system, specialization and impersonality.

    Q5. The Human Relations Theory was developed by—

    1. Elton Mayo

    2. Taylor

    3. Weber

    4. Follett

    Answer: 1
    Explanation: Based on Hawthorne experiments, emphasizing morale, motivation & informal groups.

    Q6. The concept of Development Administration was popularised by—

    1. Herbert Simon

    2. Edward Weidner

    3. Riggs

    4. Waldo

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Weidner defined administration focused on socio-economic development & nation-building.

    Q7. The New Public Administration emphasizes—

    1. Value-neutrality

    2. Efficiency only

    3. Relevance, equity & change

    4. Bureaucratic hierarchy

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: NPA calls for social justice, citizen-orientation and change-oriented administration.

    Q8. Bounded Rationality is associated with—

    1. Weber

    2. Simon

    3. Taylor

    4. Gulick

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Simon argued decision-makers operate under limited information and constraints.

    Q9. Comparative Public Administration focuses on—

    1. Only Western systems

    2. Cross-cultural comparison of administrative systems

    3. Study of rules and regulations

    4. Judicial procedures

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: CPA compares administrative systems to identify differences and patterns.

    Q10. New Public Management emphasizes—

    1. State monopoly

    2. Market orientation, privatization & efficiency

    3. Excessive hierarchy

    4. Political control

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: NPM introduces private-sector managerial practices into public sector administration.

    Assertion – Reason Questions

    Q11

    Assertion (A): Weberian bureaucracy is based on rational-legal authority.
    Reason (R): It emphasizes written rules, hierarchy and merit-based recruitment.

    Answer: Both A and R true, R explains A

    Q12

    Assertion (A): NPM seeks to transform public administration into more efficient systems.
    Reason (R): It promotes decentralization and customer-oriented service delivery.

    Answer: Both A and R are true & R explains A

    Match the Following

    Q13

    List I List II
    A. Weber 1. Ideal bureaucracy
    B. Simon 2. Decision-making theory
    C. Riggs 3. Prismatic model
    D. Taylor 4. Scientific management

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14

    List I List II
    A. Elton Mayo 1. Human relations
    B. Gulick 2. POSDCORB
    C. Weidner 3. Development Administration
    D. Wilson 4. Study of Public Administration (1887)

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Short Explanation Notes (Simple & Clear)

    1. Evolution of Public Administration

    Phase Features
    Classical Efficiency, hierarchy, rules
    Neo-classical Human factors & informality
    Modern

    Decision-making & systems theory
    NPA Equity, values & change
    NPM

    Privatization, competition & result orientation

    2. Key Approaches

    Approach Key Focus
    Scientific management Productivity
    Bureaucratic Rational structure
    Human relations Motivation
    Behavioural Decision-making
    Systems approach Input–Output interactions
    Ecological (Riggs)

    Society–administration relationship

    3. Development Administration

    • Administrative systems promoting development goals

    • Features: planning, participation, administrative reform, nation building

    4. New Public Management

    • Privatization, performance measurement, PPP, decentralization, e-governance

    • Citizens treated as customers

    5. Comparative Public Administration

    • Studies administrative systems in cross-cultural context

    • Uses ecological and structural–functional models

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 7 — Political Processes in India – Top Questions

    Q1. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?

    1. 8th Schedule

    2. 9th Schedule

    3. 10th Schedule

    4. 12th Schedule

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Added through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment (1985) to prevent political defections.

    Q2. Who described the Indian party system as a “Congress system”?

    1. Rajni Kothari

    2. Yogendra Yadav

    3. Rudolph & Rudolph

    4. Morris Jones

    Answer: 1
    Explanation: Kothari said Congress acted as the dominant system integrating diverse interests.

    Q3. The Model Code of Conduct is issued by—

    1. Supreme Court

    2. Election Commission of India

    3. Home Ministry

    4. Parliament

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: The ECI enforces rules for political parties to conduct free and fair elections.

    Q4. Which social movement is associated with forest conservation?

    1. Narmada Bachao Movement

    2. Chipko Movement

    3. Tebhaga Movement

    4. Bhoodan Movement

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Began in Uttarakhand where villagers hugged trees to prevent deforestation.

    Q5. LPG reforms in India were formally launched in—

    1. 1969

    2. 1976

    3. 1991

    4. 2000

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Introduced by PM P.V. Narasimha Rao and FM Dr. Manmohan Singh.

    Q6. The Panchayati Raj system became a constitutional system through—

    1. 42nd Amendment

    2. 52nd Amendment

    3. 73rd Amendment

    4. 44th Amendment

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Introduced three-tier PRI structure and reservation for women and SC/ST.

    Q7. Which of the following terms refers to politics based on caste and religious identity mobilization?

    1. Coalition politics

    2. Elite politics

    3. Vote-Bank politics

    4. Interest politics

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Political parties mobilize specific groups for assured electoral support.

    Q8. Regionalism is strongest where—

    1. Development is balanced

    2. Cultural differences are absent

    3. Economic disparities exist

    4. Party competition is weak

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Uneven development creates regional inequalities and demands autonomy.

    Q9. Which of these is NOT a pressure group?

    1. Trade unions

    2. Business associations

    3. Student groups

    4. Election Commission

    Answer: 4
    Explanation: Pressure groups influence policies, but ECI is a constitutional authority.

    Q10. Coalition politics became major in India after—

    1. 1977

    2. 1984

    3. 1989

    4. 1999

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Decline of one-party dominance led to coalitions from 1989 onward.

    Assertion – Reason

    Q11

    Assertion (A): Identity politics plays a major role in Indian elections.
    Reason (R): Caste, religion and region continue to shape voter behaviour.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Identity factors influence mobilization, representation and party strategies.

    Q12

    Assertion (A): Liberalization transformed party competition in India.
    Reason (R): Economic reforms created new middle-class interests and regional aspirations.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Post-1991 politics shifted from ideological to developmental and regional agendas.

    Match the Following

    Q13

    List I (Movement) List II (Leader / Issue)
    A. Chipko 1. Forest Protection
    B. Narmada Bachao 2. Medha Patkar
    C. Bhoodan 3. Vinoba Bhave
    D. RTI Movement 4. Aruna Roy

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14

    List I List II
    A. Pressure Groups 1. Interest articulation
    B. Political Parties 2. Interest aggregation
    C. Social Movements 3. Mass mobilization
    D. Election Commission 4. Electoral regulation

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 6 – Political Institutions in India – Top Questions

    Q1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    2. B. N. Rau

    3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

    4. Sardar Patel

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Ambedkar led the Drafting Committee and played a central role in shaping the Constitution.

    Q2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as—

    1. Federal and Republican

    2. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

    3. Federal, Democratic and Socialist

    4. Parliamentary Democratic Republican State

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: These values reflect India’s constitutional philosophy.

    Q3. The Basic Structure doctrine was propounded in which case?

    1. Golaknath case

    2. Keshavananda Bharati case

    3. S.R. Bommai case

    4. Minerva Mills case

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

    Q4. The Anti-Defection Law was inserted by—

    1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment

    2. 44th Constitutional Amendment

    3. 52nd Constitutional Amendment

    4. 73rd Constitutional Amendment

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Inserted Tenth Schedule in 1985 to curb political defections.

    Q5. Which Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj institutions as constitutional bodies?

    1. 42nd

    2. 72nd

    3. 73rd

    4. 44th

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: 73rd Amendment (1993) established 3-tier rural local government.

    Q6. The Finance Commission is appointed every—

    1. 3 years

    2. 5 years

    3. 6 years

    4. 10 years

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission every five years.

    Q7. Which body conducts elections in India?

    1. Supreme Court

    2. Election Commission

    3. Parliament

    4. Comptroller and Auditor General

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Independent constitutional authority to ensure free and fair elections.

    Q8. Who acts as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

    1. Chief Justice of India

    2. Vice President of India

    3. Lok Sabha Speaker

    4. Prime Minister

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Vice President presides over Rajya Sabha sessions.

    Q9. Judicial Review is a feature taken from—

    1. UK

    2. USA

    3. Canada

    4. France

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: American constitutional influence on Indian judicial review powers.

    Q10. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in—

    1. 2008

    2. 2010

    3. 2014

    4. 2015

    Answer: 4
    Explanation: Formed to promote cooperative federalism and strategic planning.

    Assertion – Reason

    Q11.

    Assertion (A): India has a parliamentary system of government.
    Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Parliamentary accountability distinguishes it from presidential systems.

    Q12.

    Assertion (A): The Constitution of India is federal in nature.
    Reason (R): It contains dual polity and division of powers but strong Union features.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: India is cooperative & quasi-federal.

    Match the Following

    Q13.

    List I List II
    A. 44th Amendment

    1. Restored civil liberties after Emergency
    B. 52nd Amendment

    2. Anti-defection law
    C. 73rd Amendment 3. Panchayati Raj
    D. 74th Amendment 4. Urban Local Government

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14.

    List I List II
    A. UPSC 1. Recruitment
    B. CAG 2. Audit
    C. NITI Aayog 3. Planning
    D. Finance Commission 4. Revenue-sharing

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Short Explanation Notes (Simple & Clear)

    1. Constitutionalism in India

    • Prevents arbitrary exercise of power

    • Based on rule of law, checks & balances, judicial review, basic structure

    2. Union–State Relations

    Type Description
    Legislative Union List, State List, Concurrent List
    Administrative

    All-India Services, directions to states
    Financial Finance Commission, GST Council

    3. Executive

    • President: constitutional head, acts on advice of PM

    • Prime Minister & Council of Ministers: real executive

    • Governor: dual role, controversy over central influence

    4. Judiciary

    • Single integrated system

    • Supreme Court, High Court, Subordinate Courts

    • Tools: Judicial Review, Judicial Activism, PIL

    5. Local Government

    73rd Amendment 74th Amendment
    Panchayats Municipal bodies
    3-tier structure

    Mayor & Municipal Corporation
    State Finance Commission Urban Local Planning

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 5 — International Relations – Top Questions

    Q1. Who is regarded as the father of Classical Realism in International Relations?

    1. Kenneth Waltz

    2. Hans J. Morgenthau

    3. Hedley Bull

    4. Robert Keohane

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Morgenthau’s Politics Among Nations established classical realism focusing on power, national interest and conflict.

    Q2. Who developed Neo-Realism (Structural Realism)?

    1. Thucydides

    2. Morgenthau

    3. Kenneth Waltz

    4. Kissinger

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Waltz emphasised the structure of the international system (anarchy, distribution of capabilities) rather than human nature.

    Q3. Which theory argues that international cooperation is possible through institutions and interdependence?

    1. Realism

    2. Neo-Realism

    3. Neoliberalism

    4. Marxism

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Neoliberal institutionalists (Keohane, Nye) highlight cooperation through international regimes & organizations.

    Q4. The concept of Soft Power was introduced by—

    1. Waltz

    2. Nye

    3. Huntington

    4. Morgenthau

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Soft power means influence through culture, diplomacy & values rather than coercion.

    Q5. The United Nations was founded in—

    1. 1919

    2. 1939

    3. 1945

    4. 1950

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: UN was created after World War II to maintain peace and prevent conflicts.

    Q6. SAARC was established in—

    1. 1975

    2. 1985

    3. 1995

    4. 2000

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: SAARC was formed to promote regional cooperation among South Asian nations.

    Q7. Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the United Nations?

    1. Trusteeship Council

    2. Security Council

    3. International Red Cross

    4. General Assembly

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Red Cross is an independent humanitarian institution, not part of UN organs.

    Q8. Which theory argues that the world economy is divided into core, semi-periphery and periphery regions?

    1. Dependency Theory

    2. World Systems Theory

    3. Modernization Theory

    4. Behavioural Theory

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Immanuel Wallerstein’s world systems theory explains global inequality within capitalist world economy.

    Q9. Which country is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

    1. USA

    2. Russia

    3. Japan

    4. France

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Only five permanent members have veto power—USA, UK, France, Russia, China.

    Q10. Non-Aligned Movement was formally established at—

    1. Bandung (1955)

    2. Belgrade (1961)

    3. Cairo (1964)

    4. Havana (1979)

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: NAM emerged during the Cold War to avoid alignment with power blocs.

    🅑 Assertion – Reason Questions

    Q11.

    Assertion (A): Realists believe international politics is a struggle for power.
    Reason (R): They argue that anarchy forces states to compete for survival.

    • A & R both true, R explains A

    Answer: Correct
    Explanation: Realists see no central authority; security competition is natural.

    Q12.

    Assertion (A): Liberal institutionalism promotes international cooperation.
    Reason (R): International organizations reduce uncertainty and transaction costs.

    • A & R both true, R explains A

    Answer: Correct
    Explanation: Institutions provide information, rules, monitoring & mediation.

    🅒 Match the Following

    Q13. Match List I with List II

    List I List II
    A. Keohane & Nye

    1. Complex Interdependence
    B. Waltz 2. Structural Realism
    C. Wallerstein 3. World-Systems Theory
    D. Nye 4. Soft Power

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14. Match List I with List II

    List I List II
    A. Liberalism

    1. Cooperation through institutions
    B. Marxism

    2. Class struggle and exploitation
    C. Realism 3. National interest & power
    D. Constructivism 4. Ideas, identity & norms

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    🅓 Topic-Wise Explanation Notes (Short & Simple)

    1. Major Approaches in International Relations

    Approach Key Ideas
    Realism State, power, conflict, anarchy
    Liberalism / Neoliberalism

    Cooperation, institutions, interdependence
    Marxism Exploitation and global capitalism
    Constructivism

    Ideas, norms and identities shape behaviour
    Feminism Gendered nature of security and policy

    2. Key Concepts

    Concept Meaning
    Sovereignty Supreme authority of a state
    National Interest Goals pursued by nations
    Security

    Traditional (military) + Non-traditional (human, climate, cyber)
    Balance of Power Prevent dominance of one power

    3. Conflict & Peace

    • Deterrence: threat to prevent war

    • Arms control: limitation of weapons

    • Collective security: attack on one is attack on all

    • Peacekeeping: UN monitoring and mediation

    4. Major International Institutions

    Name Purpose
    UN peace, security & cooperation
    IMF & World Bank

    financial stability & development
    WTO global trade rules
    SAARC / ASEAN regional cooperation

    5. Post-Cold War Themes

    • Unipolarity vs multipolarity

    • Globalization

    • Rise of China / US competition

    • Identity-based conflicts

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 4 — Comparative Political Analysis – Top Questions

    Q1. Who developed the Structural–Functional approach in Comparative Politics?

    1. Easton

    2. Almond & Coleman

    3. Lasswell

    4. Weber

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Almond and Coleman used universal functional categories to compare political systems beyond Western focus.

    Q2. The concept of Political Culture was popularized by—

    1. Lasswell

    2. Almond & Verba

    3. Parsons

    4. Lipset

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Almond and Verba’s The Civic Culture introduced the idea of orientations of citizens towards politics.

    Q3. Which theory criticizes modernization theory for reproducing global inequality?

    1. Political Development Theory

    2. Elite Theory

    3. Dependency Theory

    4. Democratic Elitism

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Dependency theorists argue development in developed nations causes underdevelopment in poorer nations.

    Q4. Who defined power as the ability to carry out one’s will despite resistance?

    1. Lasswell

    2. Dahl

    3. Weber

    4. Easton

    Answer: 3
    Explanation: Weber’s definition emphasizes domination and authority relations.

    Q5. The Iron Law of Oligarchy was proposed by—

    1. Mosca

    2. Michels

    3. Pareto

    4. Mills

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Michels states all organizations, including democratic parties, become controlled by elites.

    Q6. The term “Political Modernization” is associated with—

    1. Huntington

    2. Pye

    3. Lipset

    4. Wallerstein

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Pye described modernization as institutional adaptation, secularization and mass participation.

    Q7. World Systems Theory was propounded by—

    1. Andre Gunder Frank

    2. Dos Santos

    3. Cardoso

    4. Wallerstein

    Answer: 4
    Explanation: Wallerstein explains global capitalism in terms of core, semi-periphery & periphery.

    Q8. Which thinker gave the theory of “Clash of Civilizations”?

    1. Fukuyama

    2. Huntington

    3. Morgenthau

    4. Bull

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Huntington argued future conflicts will be cultural rather than ideological.

    Q9. “End of History” thesis was given by—

    1. Marx

    2. Fukuyama

    3. Huntington

    4. Mills

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Fukuyama predicted triumph of liberal democracy after the Cold War.

    Q10. Which regime type emphasizes centralized personal rule and loyalty networks?

    1. Liberal Democracy

    2. Patrimonialism

    3. Majoritarian Democracy

    4. Participatory Democracy

    Answer: 2
    Explanation: Patrimonial regimes rely on personal authority rather than institutions and rules.

    🅑 Assertion – Reason Questions

    Q11.

    Assertion (A): Modernization theory links democracy with economic development.
    Reason (R): Economic growth expands middle class participation and demands for political rights.

    • A & R both true, R explains A

    • A & R both true, R does not explain A

    • A true, R false

    • A false, R true

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Lipset argued that wealth, education and urbanization support democracy.

    Q12.

    Assertion (A): Elite rule is inevitable in modern society.
    Reason (R): Mass participation is too disorganized, hence leadership is necessary.

    Answer: A & R both true, R explains A
    Explanation: Elite theorists like Pareto and Mosca argue power concentrates within minorities.

    🅒 Match the Following

    Q13. Match List I with List II

    List I List II
    A. Lasswell 1. Politics is who gets what, when and how
    B. Easton

    2. Politics is authoritative allocation of values
    C. Almond & Verba

    3. Political Culture
    D. Mills 4. Power Elite

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Q14. Match the theory with the scholar

    List I List II
    A. Dependency Theory 1. Frank
    B. World Systems Theory 2. Wallerstein
    C. Modernization Theory 3. Pye
    D. Democratic Elitism 4. Schumpeter

    Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit 3: Indian Political Thought- Top Questions

    (Ancient, Medieval, and Modern Indian thinkers — from Kautilya to Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.)

    Q1. Who among the following is known as the author of Arthashastra?

    (A) Manu  (B) Kautilya  (C) Megasthenes  (D) Kalidasa

    ✅ Answer: (B) Kautilya
    🧠 Explanation:
    Arthashastra by Kautilya (Chanakya) is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economics, and military strategy. It outlines duties of kings and principles of administration based on realism.

    Q2. Kautilya’s philosophy in Arthashastra is considered —

    (A) Idealist  (B) Realist  (C) Spiritualist  (D) Romantic

    ✅ Answer: (B) Realist
    🧠 Explanation:
    Kautilya viewed politics as the science of power and survival, similar to Machiavelli. He emphasized diplomacy, espionage, and pragmatic governance — reflecting early realism in political thought.

    Q3. The concept of Swaraj as self-rule was most prominently advocated by —

    (A) Nehru  (B) Gandhi  (C) Tilak  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
    🧠 Explanation:
    For Gandhi, Swaraj meant not just political independence but moral self-control and community autonomy, achievable through non-violence and truth.

    Q4. Who propounded the idea of Satyagraha?

    (A) Tilak  (B) Gandhi  (C) Nehru  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
    🧠 Explanation:
    Satyagraha means truth-force — Gandhi’s method of non-violent resistance against injustice, rooted in moral courage and self-suffering rather than coercion.

    Q5. Who started the Sarvodaya Movement?

    (A) Nehru  (B) Vinoba Bhave  (C) Patel  (D) Jayaprakash Narayan

    ✅ Answer: (B) Vinoba Bhave
    🧠 Explanation:
    Vinoba Bhave launched the Sarvodaya (Welfare of All) and Bhoodan (land-gift) movements, emphasizing Gandhian ideals of self-reliance and equality through peaceful social reform.

    Q6. Who propounded the philosophy of Integral Humanism?

    (A) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya  (B) Lohia  (C) Gandhi  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (A) Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
    🧠 Explanation:
    Integral Humanism advocates harmony between body, mind, intellect, and soul, balancing material progress with moral and spiritual well-being — central to Indian philosophy.

    Q7. Who said “Means and ends are convertible terms in my philosophy”?

    (A) Gandhi  (B) Nehru  (C) Aurobindo  (D) Lohia

    ✅ Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
    🧠 Explanation:
    For Gandhi, moral means are inseparable from the desired end; unjust means cannot achieve a just goal. This underpins his ethical politics of non-violence.

    Q8. Who among the following emphasized spiritual nationalism?

    (A) Vivekananda  (B) Gandhi  (C) Tilak  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (A) Swami Vivekananda
    🧠 Explanation:
    Vivekananda’s idea of spiritual nationalism saw India’s strength in its spiritual unity and moral regeneration, not in material or territorial power.

    Q9. Who propounded the concept of Total Revolution?

    (A) Vinoba Bhave  (B) Gandhi  (C) Jayaprakash Narayan  (D) Nehru

    ✅ Answer: (C) Jayaprakash Narayan
    🧠 Explanation:
    JP Narayan’s Sampoorna Kranti (Total Revolution) called for comprehensive social, political, economic, and ethical transformation through peaceful change.

    Q10. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the key to social democracy lies in —

    (A) Economic planning
    (B) Liberty, equality, and fraternity
    (C) Political decentralization
    (D) Caste organization

    ✅ Answer: (B) Liberty, equality, and fraternity
    🧠 Explanation:
    Ambedkar emphasized these three ideals from the French Revolution as essential for social justice and true democracy in India.

    Q11. Who wrote “Annihilation of Caste”?

    (A) Gandhi  (B) Ambedkar  (C) Nehru  (D) Lohia

    ✅ Answer: (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    🧠 Explanation:
    In Annihilation of Caste (1936), Ambedkar critiqued the Hindu caste hierarchy and urged for social reform based on equality and human dignity.

    Q12. Who among the following said that Religion is for man and not man for religion?

    (A) Ambedkar  (B) Gandhi  (C) Vivekananda  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (A) Ambedkar
    🧠 Explanation:
    Ambedkar held that religion should serve human welfare, not enslave individuals — supporting rationalism, equality, and liberty as the basis for faith.

    Q13. Who among the following said “The State is not the master but the servant of the people”?

    (A) Gandhi  (B) Nehru  (C) Ambedkar  (D) Lohia

    ✅ Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
    🧠 Explanation:
    Gandhi envisioned a decentralized state (Swaraj) where power flows from below, making the government a trustee of people’s welfare.

    Q14. Who emphasized Decentralization of power and Panchayati Raj?

    (A) Gandhi  (B) Nehru  (C) Patel  (D) Vinoba Bhave

    ✅ Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
    🧠 Explanation:
    Gandhi advocated for Gram Swaraj, where each village acts as an independent self-governing unit — a model for participatory democracy.

    Q15. Who gave the concept of “Practical Vedanta”?

    (A) Gandhi  (B) Vivekananda  (C) Tilak  (D) Aurobindo

    ✅ Answer: (B) Swami Vivekananda
    🧠 Explanation:
    Vivekananda’s Practical Vedanta encouraged individuals to apply spiritual values in everyday life, linking religion with social service and nation-building.

  • UGC NET PS Unit 2: Western Political Thoughts (Plato to Marx)- Top Questions

    Q1. Who is the author of “Republic”?

    (A) Plato  (B) Aristotle  (C) Socrates  (D) Cicero

    ✅ Answer: (A) Plato
    🧠 Explanation:
    Plato’s Republic presents his vision of the ideal state, where justice prevails through the rule of philosopher-kings. It remains one of the earliest systematic works of political philosophy.

    Q2. Who said “Man is by nature a political animal”?

    (A) Socrates  (B) Plato  (C) Aristotle  (D) Cicero

    ✅ Answer: (C) Aristotle
    🧠 Explanation:
    Aristotle in Politics wrote that humans are naturally social beings who can fulfill their potential only within a polis (community) — hence “political animals.”

    Q3. According to Aristotle, the best practicable form of government is —

    (A) Monarchy  (B) Aristocracy  (C) Polity  (D) Democracy

    ✅ Answer: (C) Polity
    🧠 Explanation:
    Aristotle’s Polity is a mixed form of government combining democracy and oligarchy. It is stable, moderate, and serves the common interest.

    Q4. Who wrote “Leviathan”?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Rousseau  (D) Montesquieu

    ✅ Answer: (A) Thomas Hobbes
    🧠 Explanation:
    In Leviathan (1651), Hobbes explained his social contract theory, arguing for an absolute sovereign to ensure peace in a chaotic human state of nature.

    Q5. Who propounded the theory of Separation of Powers?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Rousseau  (D) Montesquieu

    ✅ Answer: (D) Montesquieu
    🧠 Explanation:
    Montesquieu’s The Spirit of Laws (1748) introduced the separation of powers among the legislative, executive, and judiciary to prevent tyranny and protect liberty.

    Q6. Who said “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains”?

    (A) Locke  (B) Rousseau  (C) Hobbes  (D) Hegel

    ✅ Answer: (B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
    🧠 Explanation:
    Opening line of The Social Contract (1762) — Rousseau argued that social institutions corrupt natural freedom and called for a government based on the General Will.

    Q7. Who propounded the theory of Surplus Value?

    (A) Marx  (B) Engels  (C) Lenin  (D) Stalin

    ✅ Answer: (A) Karl Marx
    🧠 Explanation:
    Marx’s Das Kapital explains that surplus value is the difference between workers’ wages and the value they produce — the basis of capitalist exploitation.

    Q8. The statement “From each according to his ability, to each according to his needs” is associated with —

    (A) Lenin  (B) Engels  (C) Marx  (D) Mao

    ✅ Answer: (C) Karl Marx
    🧠 Explanation:
    This principle from Marx’s Critique of the Gotha Programme describes the ideal communist society, where production and distribution are based on human need.

    Q9. Who said “Power tends to corrupt, and absolute power corrupts absolutely”?

    (A) Machiavelli  (B) Lord Acton  (C) Locke  (D) Hobbes

    ✅ Answer: (B) Lord Acton
    🧠 Explanation:
    Lord Acton’s famous remark warns that unchecked authority leads to moral decay and tyranny. It supports constitutional limits on power.

    Q10. The book “The Prince” was written by —

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Machiavelli  (D) Hegel

    ✅ Answer: (C) Niccolò Machiavelli
    🧠 Explanation:
    The Prince (1513) offers practical advice to rulers. Machiavelli separated politics from ethics, focusing on power, realism, and statecraft.

    Q11. Who propounded the Command Theory of Law?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Austin  (C) Bentham  (D) Locke

    ✅ Answer: (B) John Austin
    🧠 Explanation:
    Austin’s legal positivism defines law as a command of the sovereign backed by sanctions, distinct from morality or divine law.

    Q12. Who wrote “Two Treatises of Government”?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Rousseau  (D) Montesquieu

    ✅ Answer: (B) John Locke
    🧠 Explanation:
    Locke argued that individuals have natural rights to life, liberty, and property, and that government exists only by the consent of the governed.

    Q13. Who said “The State is the march of God on Earth”?

    (A) Hegel  (B) Marx  (C) Rousseau  (D) Machiavelli

    ✅ Answer: (A) G.W.F. Hegel
    🧠 Explanation:
    Hegel viewed the state as the embodiment of ethical spirit — a rational realization of divine will on earth, expressing human freedom.

    Q14. Who said “Law is the command of the sovereign”?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Austin  (D) Bentham

    ✅ Answer: (C) John Austin
    🧠 Explanation:
    Austin’s positivism sees laws as sovereign commands enforced by penalties, separating jurisprudence from ethics.

    Q15. The concept of General Will is given by —

    (A) Rousseau  (B) Hobbes  (C) Locke  (D) Bentham

    ✅ Answer: (A) Rousseau
    🧠 Explanation:
    The General Will represents the collective moral will of citizens aimed at the common good, central to Rousseau’s theory of popular sovereignty.

    Q16. According to Karl Marx, the state is —

    (A) A moral institution
    (B) An instrument of class rule
    (C) A neutral institution
    (D) A social contract

    ✅ Answer: (B) An instrument of class rule
    🧠 Explanation:
    Marx considered the state as a tool used by the ruling class (bourgeoisie) to preserve its dominance over the working class (proletariat).

    Q17. Who is regarded as the father of modern political philosophy?

    (A) Plato  (B) Aristotle  (C) Hobbes  (D) Machiavelli

    ✅ Answer: (D) Niccolò Machiavelli
    🧠 Explanation:
    Machiavelli laid the foundation of modern political realism, emphasizing power and pragmatic governance over moral ideals.

    Q18. Who said “In the absence of justice, what is sovereignty but organized robbery?”

    (A) St. Augustine  (B) Machiavelli  (C) Marx  (D) Hobbes

    ✅ Answer: (A) St. Augustine
    🧠 Explanation:
    Augustine believed justice is the essence of the state; without it, governments are merely instruments of organized oppression.

    Q19. Who said “End of the State is not power, but good life”?

    (A) Plato  (B) Aristotle  (C) Machiavelli  (D) Hobbes

    ✅ Answer: (B) Aristotle
    🧠 Explanation:
    Aristotle viewed the state as an ethical community whose purpose is to promote virtue and enable citizens to live the good life.

    Q20. Who is associated with the idea of Laissez-faire?

    (A) Marx  (B) Bentham  (C) Adam Smith  (D) Keynes

    ✅ Answer: (C) Adam Smith
    🧠 Explanation:
    Smith advocated minimal government intervention in the economy — the market, guided by the “invisible hand,” leads to efficiency and prosperity.

  • UGC NET PS Unit 1: Political Theory – Meaning and Approach – Top Questions

    Q1. Who said “Liberty means absence of restraints”?

    (A) Green  (B) Hobbes  (C) Locke  (D) Laski

    ✅ Answer: (B) Hobbes
    Explanation:
    Hobbes viewed liberty as the absence of external impediments. For him, freedom is a negative concept — people are free as long as nothing physically stops them from acting according to their will.

    Q2. Who said “The greatest happiness of the greatest number”?

    (A) Mill  (B) Bentham  (C) Locke  (D) Hobbes

    ✅ Answer: (B) Jeremy Bentham
    Explanation:
    Bentham’s Utilitarian principle says that every action should aim at maximizing happiness for the greatest number. This formed the moral basis of liberal and welfare legislation.

    Q3. Who introduced the concept of Positive Liberty?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Locke  (C) Green  (D) Mill

    ✅ Answer: (C) T.H. Green
    Explanation:
    T.H. Green redefined liberty as positive power — not just freedom from restraint, but the capacity to do what is morally good and socially beneficial.

    Q4. According to political theory, sovereignty was first defined by —

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Bodin  (C) Austin  (D) Locke

    ✅ Answer: (B) Jean Bodin
    Explanation:
    Jean Bodin (16th century) was the first to formally define sovereignty as “absolute and perpetual power of the state.” His idea became the foundation for modern state theory.

    Q5. “End of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” Who said this?

    (A) Hobbes  (B) Rousseau  (C) Locke  (D) Hegel

    ✅ Answer: (C) John Locke
    Explanation:
    Locke argued that laws are instruments to protect liberty, not to suppress it. By providing security and justice, laws help individuals enjoy their natural rights more freely.

    Q6. Political Obligation means —

    (A) Duty of rulers to the ruled
    (B) Freedom from political authority
    (C) Obedience to the laws of the state
    (D) Limitation of government

    ✅ Answer: (C) Obedience to the laws of the state
    Explanation:
    Political obligation refers to the moral duty of citizens to obey the laws and support the authority of the state for maintaining order and justice.

    Q7. Who said “Liberty consists in obedience to the general will”?

    (A) Rousseau  (B) Hobbes  (C) Locke  (D) Bentham

    ✅ Answer: (A) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
    Explanation:
    Rousseau defined liberty as participation in the collective will of society. True freedom means obeying laws we prescribe for ourselves through the General Will.

    Q8. The concept of justice in political theory deals with —

    (A) Law and order
    (B) Social equality and fairness
    (C) Economic growth
    (D) Security

    ✅ Answer: (B) Social equality and fairness
    Explanation:
    Justice is a moral and political ideal ensuring fair distribution of rights, opportunities, and resources among all individuals in a society.

    Q9. Who defined political science as “the study of the state and government”?

    (A) Aristotle  (B) Garner  (C) Machiavelli  (D) Easton

    ✅ Answer: (B) J.W. Garner
    Explanation:
    Garner gave a traditional definition, viewing political science as the study of the state, its organs, and their functions, focusing on institutions rather than behavior.

    Q10. According to David Easton, politics is —

    (A) Struggle for power
    (B) Study of the state
    (C) Authoritative allocation of values
    (D) Distribution of power

    ✅ Answer: (C) Authoritative allocation of values
    Explanation:
    Easton defined politics as the process by which values are authoritatively allocated for a society — linking individuals, institutions, and authority into a dynamic system.

    Q11. The behavioural approach in political science emphasizes —

    (A) Institutions and laws
    (B) Political ideas
    (C) Human behaviour and empirical methods
    (D) Historical evolution

    ✅ Answer: (C) Human behaviour and empirical methods
    Explanation:
    The behavioural approach studies how individuals actually behave in politics, using scientific and quantitative methods rather than pure theory.

    Q12. The post-behavioural approach emphasizes —

    (A) Value-free study
    (B) Political philosophy
    (C) Relevance and social change
    (D) Legal analysis

    ✅ Answer: (C) Relevance and social change
    Explanation:
    Post-behaviouralism (David Easton) reacted against value-neutrality, insisting that political science should address real-world issues and social transformation.

    Q13. “Politics is who gets what, when, and how.” Who said this?

    (A) Easton  (B) Lasswell  (C) Almond  (D) Simon

    ✅ Answer: (B) Harold Lasswell
    Explanation:
    Lasswell defined politics in terms of power and distribution, emphasizing that political processes determine how scarce resources are allocated.

    Q14. Who developed the structural-functional approach?

    (A) Almond and Coleman  (B) Easton  (C) Parsons  (D) Lasswell

    ✅ Answer: (A) Gabriel Almond and James Coleman
    Explanation:
    This approach studies political systems by examining structures (institutions) and functions (roles) they perform — useful for comparative political analysis.

    Q15. The concept of Political Culture was developed by —

    (A) Easton  (B) Almond and Verba  (C) Lasswell  (D) Lipset

    ✅ Answer: (B) Almond and Verba
    Explanation:
    In The Civic Culture (1963), Almond and Verba introduced the concept of political culture — citizens’ orientations and attitudes toward political objects and processes.

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit–10 Governance and Public Policy in India/MCQs

    Part A: Governance and Good Governance (Q1–20)

    Q1. The term “Governance” literally means:
    (A) Government institutions
    (B) Process of steering or directing society
    (C) Political authority
    (D) Judicial activism
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Derived from Greek kybernan meaning “to steer,” governance refers to how societies are directed and coordinated.

    Q2. The concept of “Good Governance” was first introduced by:
    (A) United Nations
    (B) World Bank
    (C) IMF
    (D) Commonwealth
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The World Bank Report (1989) introduced “Good Governance” emphasizing efficiency, accountability, and rule of law.

    Q3. Governance differs from government because it:
    (A) Is limited to the state
    (B) Includes non-state actors and processes
    (C) Refers only to laws
    (D) Focuses only on security
    Answer: (B)

    Q4. According to UNDP (1997), good governance includes how many key features?
    (A) 6
    (B) 8
    (C) 10
    (D) 5
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The eight features are participation, rule of law, transparency, responsiveness, consensus orientation, equity, effectiveness, and accountability.

    Q5. Democratic governance emphasizes:
    (A) Centralization
    (B) Authoritarianism
    (C) Participation and equality
    (D) Bureaucratic control
    Answer: (C)

    Q6. The concept of “governance” gained global importance after:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1989
    (C) 1971
    (D) 1999
    Answer: (B)

    Q7. In good governance, the rule of law implies:
    (A) Supremacy of individuals
    (B) Supremacy of law and equality before law
    (C) Government by force
    (D) Administrative discretion
    Answer: (B)

    Q8. Transparency in governance primarily ensures:
    (A) Secrecy
    (B) Access to information and openness
    (C) Bureaucratic monopoly
    (D) Political control
    Answer: (B)

    Q9. Which of the following is not an element of good governance?
    (A) Participation
    (B) Accountability
    (C) Inequality
    (D) Transparency
    Answer: (C)

    Q10. The democratic governance model views citizens as:
    (A) Subjects
    (B) Customers and partners
    (C) Dependents
    (D) Taxpayers only
    Answer: (B)

    Q11. “Good governance is citizen-centric administration” — this statement was emphasized by:
    (A) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission
    (B) Planning Commission
    (C) UPSC
    (D) NITI Aayog
    Answer: (A)

    Q12. The shift from government to governance implies:
    (A) Bureaucratic centralization
    (B) Inclusive and network-based administration
    (C) Political dominance
    (D) Hierarchical rigidity
    Answer: (B)

    Q13. In democratic governance, civil society acts as:
    (A) A watch-dog and pressure group
    (B) Part of the legislature
    (C) Economic regulator
    (D) Judicial body
    Answer: (A)

    Q14. In the governance model, “Accountability” refers to:
    (A) Avoiding responsibility
    (B) Answerability of officials for their actions
    (C) Rule-breaking
    (D) Administrative secrecy
    Answer: (B)

    Q15. The World Bank defines governance as:
    (A) The process of decision-making and implementation
    (B) Rule of government only
    (C) Legal system of state
    (D) Political ideology
    Answer: (A)

    Q16. The focus of “Good Governance” is on:
    (A) Control and hierarchy
    (B) Service delivery and citizen welfare
    (C) Political campaigns
    (D) Party politics
    Answer: (B)

    Q17. “Governance without government” refers to:
    (A) Civil society and market-based coordination
    (B) Military rule
    (C) Judicial activism
    (D) Administrative hierarchy
    Answer: (A)

    Q18. The 2nd ARC report titled “Right to Information – Master Key to Good Governance” was published in:
    (A) 2003
    (B) 2005
    (C) 2006
    (D) 2008
    Answer: (C)

    Q19. Participatory governance means:
    (A) Citizens have no role
    (B) Decision-making with people’s involvement
    (C) Political control
    (D) Technocratic rule
    Answer: (B)

    Q20. The most important outcome of good governance is:
    (A) Stability and citizen trust
    (B) Bureaucratic secrecy
    (C) Legal rigidity
    (D) Political monopoly
    Answer: (A)

    🟢 Part B: Accountability and Control (Q21–40)

    Q21. Accountability in public administration means:
    (A) Blaming others
    (B) Answerability for actions and decisions
    (C) Avoiding responsibility
    (D) Autonomy without control
    Answer: (B)

    Q22. The principle of checks and balances aims to:
    (A) Concentrate power
    (B) Prevent abuse of power
    (C) Strengthen bureaucracy
    (D) Reduce participation
    Answer: (B)

    Q23. Legislative control over the executive is exercised through:
    (A) Judicial review
    (B) Question Hour and motions
    (C) Civil services
    (D) Elections
    Answer: (B)

    Q24. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines:
    (A) Policy formulation
    (B) CAG reports on government expenditure
    (C) Criminal cases
    (D) Judicial appointments
    Answer: (B)

    Q25. The Estimates Committee ensures:
    (A) Financial accountability and efficiency
    (B) Criminal accountability
    (C) Judicial independence
    (D) Private investment
    Answer: (A)

    Q26. Judicial review is a function of:
    (A) Legislature
    (B) Judiciary
    (C) Executive
    (D) Election Commission
    Answer: (B)

    Q27. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) strengthens:
    (A) Bureaucratic control
    (B) Judicial accountability
    (C) Citizen participation and justice
    (D) Political monopoly
    Answer: (C)

    Q28. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ensures:
    (A) Legislative control
    (B) Financial accountability of government
    (C) Judicial review
    (D) Administrative secrecy
    Answer: (B)

    Q29. “Administrative culture” refers to:
    (A) Rules and files only
    (B) Shared values, attitudes, and ethics in bureaucracy
    (C) Physical structure of offices
    (D) Financial performance
    Answer: (B)

    Q30. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was given statutory status in:
    (A) 2003
    (B) 2005
    (C) 2008
    (D) 2010
    Answer: (A)

    Q31. The first Lokpal of India (2019) was:
    (A) Kiran Bedi
    (B) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
    (C) Prashant Bhushan
    (D) Aruna Roy
    Answer: (B)

    Q32. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in:
    (A) 2005
    (B) 2011
    (C) 2013
    (D) 2015
    Answer: (C)

    Q33. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was enacted in:
    (A) 2005
    (B) 2010
    (C) 2014
    (D) 2016
    Answer: (C)

    Q34. Budgetary control is exercised mainly by:
    (A) Parliament
    (B) Judiciary
    (C) NITI Aayog
    (D) Election Commission
    Answer: (A)

    Q35. Judicial control over legislature ensures:
    (A) Separation of powers
    (B) Fusion of powers
    (C) Legislative dominance
    (D) Bureaucratic control
    Answer: (A)

    Q36. Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was first established in:
    (A) 1956
    (B) 1966
    (C) 1976
    (D) 1986
    Answer: (B)

    Q37. The 2nd ARC report “Ethics in Governance” emphasized:
    (A) Political control
    (B) Code of ethics, transparency, accountability
    (C) Privatization
    (D) Bureaucratic secrecy
    Answer: (B)

    Q38. Corruption undermines governance by:
    (A) Enhancing efficiency
    (B) Reducing trust and fairness
    (C) Promoting transparency
    (D) Strengthening democracy
    Answer: (B)

    Q39. The citizen’s right to information is linked to:
    (A) Freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)
    (B) Freedom of movement
    (C) Right to property
    (D) Directive Principles
    Answer: (A)

    Q40. Control through parliamentary committees ensures:
    (A) Secrecy
    (B) Accountability and detailed scrutiny
    (C) Elitism
    (D) Speedy decision
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part C: Institutions for Good Governance (Q41–60)

    Q41. The RTI Act came into force in:
    (A) 2003
    (B) 2005
    (C) 2008
    (D) 2010
    Answer: (B)

    Q42. Under RTI Act, information must be provided within:
    (A) 7 days
    (B) 15 days
    (C) 30 days
    (D) 60 days
    Answer: (C)

    Q43. The Consumer Protection Act was revised in:
    (A) 2018
    (B) 2019
    (C) 2020
    (D) 2021
    Answer: (B)

    Q44. The Citizen Charter initiative was launched in India in:
    (A) 1992
    (B) 1997
    (C) 2000
    (D) 2005
    Answer: (B)

    Q45. Citizen Charter primarily aims at:
    (A) Punishing officials
    (B) Defining service standards and grievance redressal
    (C) Reducing participation
    (D) Increasing secrecy
    Answer: (B)

    Q46. The Ombudsman concept originated in:
    (A) USA
    (B) Sweden
    (C) India
    (D) UK
    Answer: (B)

    Q47. Lokayuktas function at the:
    (A) Central level
    (B) State level
    (C) District level
    (D) Panchayat level
    Answer: (B)

    Q48. The first state to establish Lokayukta was:
    (A) Maharashtra
    (B) Bihar
    (C) Kerala
    (D) Karnataka
    Answer: (D)

    Q49. The main purpose of Ombudsman is to:
    (A) Punish politicians
    (B) Investigate maladministration and corruption complaints
    (C) Collect taxes
    (D) Control media
    Answer: (B)

    Q50. RTI Act promotes:
    (A) Secrecy
    (B) Transparency and citizen empowerment
    (C) Centralization
    (D) Judicial control
    Answer: (B)

    Q51. The 2nd ARC recommended merging of Citizen Charter with:
    (A) Lokpal
    (B) RTI framework
    (C) Ombudsman system
    (D) Administrative reforms
    Answer: (B)

    Q52. Which body audits implementation of Citizen Charters?
    (A) CVC
    (B) DARPG
    (C) NITI Aayog
    (D) Planning Commission
    Answer: (B)

    Q53. Consumer courts are quasi-judicial bodies that:
    (A) Form laws
    (B) Resolve consumer disputes and compensate victims
    (C) Collect fines
    (D) Regulate markets
    Answer: (B)

    Q54. The Lokpal and Lokayukta are examples of:
    (A) Political bodies
    (B) Independent grievance redress institutions
    (C) Corporate bodies
    (D) Judicial courts
    Answer: (B)

    Q55. The Ombudsman is accountable to:
    (A) Judiciary
    (B) Legislature
    (C) Executive
    (D) CVC
    Answer: (B)

    Q56. RTI Act applies to:
    (A) Public authorities
    (B) Private institutions
    (C) NGOs only
    (D) Foreign companies
    Answer: (A)

    Q57. The main limitation of RTI Act is:
    (A) Misuse and delay in appeals
    (B) Too much transparency
    (C) Judicial interference
    (D) Excessive digitalization
    Answer: (A)

    Q58. The Central Information Commission is appointed by:
    (A) Prime Minister
    (B) President on recommendation of committee
    (C) Supreme Court
    (D) Parliament
    Answer: (B)

    Q59. Lokpal can investigate:
    (A) Only state officers
    (B) Central public officials including PM (with restrictions)
    (C) Private citizens
    (D) Judges of SC
    Answer: (B)

    Q60. CVC’s role in governance is mainly:
    (A) Advisory and vigilance oversight
    (B) Judicial enforcement
    (C) Political campaign
    (D) Electoral reform
    Answer: (A)

    Part D: Grassroots Governance (Q61–75)

    Q61. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) deals with:
    (A) Urban Local Bodies
    (B) Panchayati Raj Institutions
    (C) Cooperative Societies
    (D) Political Parties
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 73rd Amendment institutionalized Panchayati Raj and decentralized governance in rural India.

    Q62. Panchayati Raj Institutions derive their powers from:
    (A) Constitution
    (B) Executive order
    (C) Parliament resolution
    (D) Planning Commission
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: PRIs were constitutionally recognized under Part IX of the Indian Constitution (Articles 243–243O).

    Q63. The 73rd Amendment added which Schedule to the Constitution?
    (A) 10th Schedule
    (B) 11th Schedule
    (C) 12th Schedule
    (D) 8th Schedule
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 11th Schedule lists 29 subjects under PRIs’ jurisdiction.

    Q64. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) pertains to:
    (A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
    (B) Urban Local Bodies
    (C) District Planning Committees
    (D) Cooperative Societies
    Answer: (B)

    Q65. The 11th Schedule relates to:
    (A) Subjects of Panchayats
    (B) State List
    (C) Union List
    (D) Concurrent List
    Answer: (A)

    Q66. The 12th Schedule relates to:
    (A) Panchayats
    (B) Municipalities
    (C) Parliament powers
    (D) Judiciary
    Answer: (B)

    Q67. The minimum number of tiers in the Panchayati Raj system is:
    (A) One
    (B) Two
    (C) Three
    (D) Four
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (block), Zila Parishad (district).

    Q68. The Gram Sabha consists of:
    (A) All adult voters of the village
    (B) Elected representatives only
    (C) District officials
    (D) Block officers
    Answer: (A)

    Q69. Reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions is:
    (A) 25%
    (B) 33%
    (C) 40%
    (D) 50%
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Constitution mandates 33% reservation; many states have increased it to 50%.

    Q70. State Finance Commissions are constituted every:
    (A) 3 years
    (B) 4 years
    (C) 5 years
    (D) 10 years
    Answer: (C)

    Q71. The first state to implement Panchayati Raj was:
    (A) Bihar
    (B) Rajasthan
    (C) Kerala
    (D) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Rajasthan inaugurated the system at Nagaur in 1959.

    Q72. District Planning Committees (DPCs) integrate:
    (A) State and Union budgets
    (B) Rural and urban development plans
    (C) Political manifestos
    (D) Bureaucratic rules
    Answer: (B)

    Q73. Urban local governance includes:
    (A) Gram Panchayat
    (B) Municipalities and Municipal Corporations
    (C) Panchayat Samiti
    (D) Zila Parishad
    Answer: (B)

    Q74. Decentralised governance ensures:
    (A) Centralization of authority
    (B) Local participation and accountability
    (C) Bureaucratic control
    (D) Judicial dominance
    Answer: (B)

    Q75. Gram Sabha represents:
    (A) Indirect democracy
    (B) Direct democracy at grassroots level
    (C) Bureaucratic governance
    (D) Administrative hierarchy
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part E: Planning, Development, and E-Governance (Q76–88)

    Q76. The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in:
    (A) 2014
    (B) 2015
    (C) 2016
    (D) 2017
    Answer: (B)

    Q77. The full form of NITI Aayog is:
    (A) National Institution for Transforming India
    (B) National Institute for Technology of India
    (C) National Innovation and Training Institute
    (D) None of the above
    Answer: (A)

    Q78. NITI Aayog promotes which principle of federalism?
    (A) Dual federalism
    (B) Cooperative and Competitive federalism
    (C) Centralized federalism
    (D) Fiscal federalism only
    Answer: (B)

    Q79. Decentralised planning is based on the principle of:
    (A) Central control
    (B) People’s participation in planning
    (C) Market monopoly
    (D) Bureaucratic secrecy
    Answer: (B)

    Q80. Participatory development means:
    (A) Public involvement in identifying and implementing projects
    (B) Government-only decision-making
    (C) Corporate investment
    (D) Judicial activism
    Answer: (A)

    Q81. Sustainable development balances:
    (A) Economic, social, and environmental goals
    (B) Political and military power
    (C) Bureaucratic and judicial powers
    (D) Legal and financial interests
    Answer: (A)

    Q82. The Brundtland Commission report (1987) introduced the idea of:
    (A) Good governance
    (B) Sustainable development
    (C) Green revolution
    (D) Inclusive growth
    Answer: (B)

    Q83. E-governance means:
    (A) Use of ICT in government processes
    (B) Digital voting
    (C) Only online shopping
    (D) Judiciary automation
    Answer: (A)

    Q84. “Digital India” programme was launched in:
    (A) 2014
    (B) 2015
    (C) 2016
    (D) 2018
    Answer: (B)

    Q85. Key pillars of e-governance are:
    (A) Efficiency, transparency, accountability, and accessibility
    (B) Centralization and control
    (C) Bureaucracy and secrecy
    (D) Hierarchy and power
    Answer: (A)

    Q86. Examples of e-governance initiatives in India include:
    (A) UMANG, DigiLocker, MyGov
    (B) PM CARES Fund
    (C) GST only
    (D) Parliament TV
    Answer: (A)

    Q87. “Smart governance” refers to:
    (A) Technology-driven participatory governance
    (B) Military governance
    (C) Artificial intelligence control of state
    (D) Bureaucratic expansion
    Answer: (A)

    Q88. E-governance improves service delivery by:
    (A) Reducing intermediaries and corruption
    (B) Increasing paperwork
    (C) Delaying services
    (D) Limiting citizen participation
    Answer: (A)

    🟢 Part F: Public Policy as Instrument of Socio-Economic Development (Q89–96)

    Q89. Public policy refers to:
    (A) Private decision-making
    (B) Government’s purposive course of action
    (C) Judiciary’s role
    (D) Bureaucratic orders
    Answer: (B)

    Q90. The stages of public policy include:
    (A) Agenda setting, formulation, implementation, evaluation
    (B) Enactment only
    (C) Execution only
    (D) Judicial interpretation
    Answer: (A)

    Q91. MNREGA guarantees:
    (A) 50 days of rural employment
    (B) 100 days of rural employment
    (C) Urban employment
    (D) Education for children
    Answer: (B)

    Q92. The National Food Security Act was passed in:
    (A) 2011
    (B) 2012
    (C) 2013
    (D) 2014
    Answer: (C)

    Q93. The RTE Act (Right to Education) guarantees education to:
    (A) Children aged 0–6
    (B) Children aged 6–14
    (C) All adults
    (D) Only girls
    Answer: (B)

    Q94. The National Health Mission (NHM) aims to provide:
    (A) Universal access to healthcare services
    (B) Urban housing
    (C) Agricultural subsidies
    (D) Defense services
    Answer: (A)

    Q95. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) aims at:
    (A) Universal sanitation
    (B) Housing for all by 2024
    (C) Employment generation
    (D) Pension for poor
    Answer: (B)

    Q96. Swachh Bharat Mission primarily focuses on:
    (A) Financial inclusion
    (B) Sanitation and cleanliness
    (C) Women’s safety
    (D) Education
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part G: Monitoring, Evaluation, and Accountability Mechanisms (Q97–100)

    Q97. Social Audit refers to:
    (A) Financial inspection by CAG
    (B) Community-based evaluation of public schemes
    (C) Judicial review
    (D) Bureaucratic audit
    Answer: (B)

    Q98. Jan Sunwai (Public Hearing) is a mechanism for:
    (A) Public participation in governance
    (B) Judicial proceedings
    (C) Election campaign
    (D) Media debate
    Answer: (A)

    Q99. Monitoring focuses on:
    (A) Continuous tracking of implementation progress
    (B) One-time evaluation only
    (C) Political campaigning
    (D) Judicial review
    Answer: (A)

    Q100. The ultimate goal of governance and public policy is:
    (A) Public welfare through transparency, participation, and accountability
    (B) Bureaucratic control
    (C) Political dominance
    (D) Administrative secrecy
    Answer: (A)

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit–10 Governance and Public Policy in India

    1. Concept of Governance

    Meaning and Evolution

    • The term “Governance” means the process of decision-making and the process by which decisions are implemented (or not implemented).

    • It goes beyond “government” — involving institutions, citizens, civil society, markets, and networks that interact to manage a nation’s economic, social, and political affairs.

    Etymology:
    Derived from the Greek word kybernan (to steer or pilot a ship), indicating direction and coordination.

    Difference Between Government and Governance

    Aspect Government Governance
    Meaning Institutional framework of the state Process and quality of rule
    Nature Static, structural Dynamic, process-oriented
    Focus Law and authority Accountability and performance
    Actors State (bureaucracy, legislature, judiciary) State, civil society, private sector, citizens
    Goal Control and order Participation, transparency, and efficiency

    Evolution of the Concept

    1. Traditional Public Administration (Before 1980s):

      • Focused on rules, hierarchy, and procedures.

      • Citizen viewed as a passive recipient.

    2. New Public Management (1980s–1990s):

      • Introduced efficiency, performance measurement, and market mechanisms.

      • Citizens viewed as “customers.”

    3. Good Governance (1990s onward):

      • Promoted by the World Bank (1989) and UNDP (1997).

      • Focused on transparency, accountability, participation, and human rights.

    4. Democratic and E-Governance (2000s–Present):

      • Citizens are “partners” in policy formulation.

      • Technology enables open, citizen-centric governance.

    🟢 2. Good Governance and Democratic Governance

    Good Governance

    Definition:

    According to the World Bank (1989), good governance is “the manner in which power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development.”

    UNDP’s Eight Principles of Good Governance:

    1. Participation – citizen involvement in decision-making.

    2. Rule of Law – fair legal frameworks and enforcement.

    3. Transparency – availability of information and open decision-making.

    4. Responsiveness – timely and appropriate action by institutions.

    5. Consensus Orientation – mediation of differing interests.

    6. Equity and Inclusiveness – opportunities for all.

    7. Effectiveness and Efficiency – optimal use of resources.

    8. Accountability – answerability of officials and institutions.

    Democratic Governance

    • Democratic governance links democracy and governance, emphasizing citizen empowerment, equality, freedom, and participation.

    • It integrates civil rights, representation, and decentralized decision-making.

    • Supported by institutions like Parliament, Judiciary, Election Commission, and local self-governments.

    Core Features:

    • Free and fair elections

    • Separation of powers

    • Rule of law and judicial review

    • Human rights and social justice

    • Inclusive public policy

    Role of Key Actors in Governance

    Actor Role
    State Lawmaking, policy formulation, regulation, and service delivery
    Civil Society Advocacy, mobilization, and watchdog functions
    Private Sector Public–Private Partnerships (PPP), CSR, and investment in development
    Media Public opinion formation and accountability mechanism
    Citizens Participation through elections, RTI, social audits, and civic engagement

    🟢 3. Accountability and Control Mechanisms

    Meaning

    Accountability is the obligation of public officials to explain and justify their actions to the public and relevant institutions.
    It ensures checks and balances in democratic governance.

    Types of Accountability

    Type Example
    Political Accountability Ministers responsible to the legislature
    Administrative Accountability Civil servants accountable to superiors, rules, and law
    Financial Accountability CAG, Parliamentary Committees
    Judicial Accountability Rule of law and judicial review
    Social Accountability RTI, social audit, civil society activism

    Institutional Mechanisms for Checks and Balances

    (a) Legislative Control over Executive

    • Instruments:

      • Question Hour, Zero Hour, Adjournment Motions, Censure Motions, Cut Motions.

      • Parliamentary Committees such as:

        • Public Accounts Committee (PAC) – examines CAG reports.

        • Estimates Committee – ensures economy in expenditure.

        • Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) – oversees PSUs.

    • Budgetary Control: Parliament votes on Demands for Grants and scrutinizes expenditure.

    (b) Judicial Control

    • Judiciary exercises control over executive and legislature through:

      • Judicial Review (declaring laws unconstitutional).

      • Public Interest Litigation (PIL) for citizen grievances.

      • Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32).

    Example:

    • Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1997) – strengthened independence of CBI and CVC.

    (c) Administrative and Budgetary Control

    • Internal mechanisms: hierarchy, supervision, inspections, performance appraisal.

    • External mechanisms: CAG audits, Vigilance Commission, Lokpal/Lokayukta.

    (d) Control through Civil Society and Media

    • Media exposes corruption and ensures transparency (e.g., 2G, Commonwealth Games).

    • Civil society movements like India Against Corruption (2011) increased pressure for institutional reform.

    Administrative Culture

    • Refers to the values, attitudes, and behavioral norms that shape the functioning of public officials.

    • Indian administrative culture historically influenced by:

      • Colonial legacy (hierarchy, secrecy)

      • Bureaucratic elitism

      • Patron-client relationships

    • Modern reforms aim to inculcate:

      • Ethics, service orientation, accountability, and efficiency.

    Corruption and Administrative Reforms

    • Corruption undermines trust and development.

    • Major anti-corruption measures:

      1. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013)

      2. CVC (Central Vigilance Commission) – statutory status (2003)

      3. RTI Act (2005) – citizen empowerment

      4. Whistle Blowers Protection Act (2014)

      5. Digital Governance – reduces human discretion and bribery.

    🟢 4. Institutional Mechanisms for Good Governance

    (i) Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

    • Ensures citizens’ right to access government records.

    • Promotes transparency and accountability.

    • Obligates public authorities to respond within 30 days.

    Key Features:

    • Appointment of Public Information Officers (PIOs).

    • Central and State Information Commissions.

    • RTI excludes information affecting national security and privacy.

    (ii) Consumer Protection Act, 2019

    • Replaced the 1986 Act.

    • Established Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions at three levels.

    • Recognizes six consumer rights, including right to safety, information, choice, and redressal.

    (iii) Citizen Charter (1997)

    • Initiated under Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).

    • Defines service standards, time limits, and grievance procedures for government offices.

    • Promotes responsive administration and citizen satisfaction.

    (iv) Grievance Redressal Mechanisms

    Institution Purpose
    Ombudsman Neutral officer investigating citizen complaints against maladministration
    Lokpal Anti-corruption body for central government (Act, 2013)
    Lokayukta State-level anti-corruption authority
    Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) Supervises vigilance administration in public sector

    Example:
    Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was the first Lokpal of India (2019).

    🟢 5. Grassroots Governance: Panchayati Raj Institutions

    73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

    • Provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).

    • Implemented under Part IX (Articles 243–243O).

    Structure:

    1. Gram Panchayat (village level)

    2. Panchayat Samiti (block level)

    3. Zila Parishad (district level)

    Key Features:

    • Direct elections every five years.

    • Reservation: 1/3rd for women; proportional for SC/STs (many states provide 50% for women).

    • Gram Sabha: Direct democracy forum of adult villagers.

    • State Finance Commission: Recommends fund devolution.

    • State Election Commission: Conducts PRI elections.

    Functions of PRIs

    • Rural development, agriculture, health, sanitation, education, roads, housing, social welfare.

    • Implementation of MNREGA, Swachh Bharat, PMAY, etc.

    Urban Governance – 74th Amendment Act, 1992

    • Empowered Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) — municipalities and corporations.

    • Focused on urban planning, housing, infrastructure, and environment management.

    🟢 6. Planning and Development

    Decentralised Planning

    • Promoted by Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) and Gadgil Formula.

    • Ensures local-level need-based development.

    Tools: District Planning Committees (DPCs) integrate local and state plans.

    Participatory Development

    • Involves citizens, NGOs, and community-based organizations (CBOs) in development planning.

    • Encourages bottom-up governance and ownership.

    Sustainable Development

    • Coined by Brundtland Commission (1987):

      “Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

    • In India, integrated in policies like:

      • National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

      • Swachh Bharat Mission

      • Jal Jeevan Mission

    E-Governance

    • Application of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in public administration.

    • Goals: transparency, efficiency, cost-effectiveness, and accessibility.

    Initiatives:

    • Digital India Mission (2015)

    • UMANG app, e-Seva, DigiLocker, MyGov, BharatNet, e-Kranti.

    • Advantages:

      • Reduces corruption

      • Empowers citizens

      • Enhances service delivery

    NITI Aayog (2015–Present)

    • Replaced Planning Commission (1950–2014).

    • Acts as policy think-tank under the Prime Minister.

    • Aims to promote cooperative and competitive federalism.

    • Functions:

      • Formulate vision documents.

      • Monitor SDG (Sustainable Development Goals).

      • Evaluate government schemes.

      • Encourage innovation (Atal Innovation Mission).

    🟢 7. Public Policy as an Instrument of Socio-Economic Development

    Meaning

    • Public policy is the intentional course of action chosen by government to achieve certain goals affecting society at large.

    Stages of Policy Process

    1. Agenda setting

    2. Formulation

    3. Implementation

    4. Evaluation and feedback

    Key Policies and Programs

    Policy Objective
    MGNREGA (2005) Guarantee of 100 days employment for rural poor
    National Health Mission (NHM) Universal healthcare and maternal-child health
    RTE Act (2009) Free and compulsory education (6–14 years)
    National Food Security Act (2013) Legal right to subsidized food grains
    Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Housing for all by 2024
    Jal Jeevan Mission (2019) Tap water to every household
    Ayushman Bharat (2018) Universal health insurance for poor families
    Swachh Bharat Mission (2014) Clean India and sanitation coverage

    🟢 8. Monitoring and Evaluation of Public Policy

    Monitoring

    • Continuous review of implementation and progress.

    • Uses tools like Management Information Systems (MIS), progress reports, and field visits.

    Evaluation

    • Assessment of outcomes, efficiency, and social impact.

    • Conducted by NITI Aayog, CAG, independent agencies, and NGOs.

    Innovative Mechanisms for Accountability

    Mechanism Description
    Jan Sunwai (Public Hearing) Citizens directly question officials in public forums (e.g., Rajasthan model).
    Social Audit Community examines implementation of schemes like MNREGA.
    RTI Act (2005) Citizen’s legal right to demand information.
    Performance Audit Evaluates outcomes rather than expenditure.

    🟢 9. Challenges to Good Governance in India

    1. Bureaucratic inefficiency and red-tapism.

    2. Political interference and corruption.

    3. Low citizen awareness.

    4. Digital divide in e-governance.

    5. Coordination between Centre, states, and local bodies.

    🟢 10. Way Forward

    • Strengthen ethical governance and civil service reforms.

    • Promote citizen participation in policy design.

    • Institutionalize social audit and e-transparency.

    • Ensure inclusive and sustainable development through cooperative federalism.

    • Empower Panchayati Raj Institutions for true decentralization.

    🟢 Summary Table

    Theme Key Concept Examples
    Governance Interaction among state, market, society RTI, PPP, Civil Society
    Good Governance Transparency, participation, accountability UNDP framework
    Accountability Answerability of public officials Parliament, Judiciary, CAG
    Institutional Mechanisms RTI, Lokpal, CVC, Citizen Charter Anti-corruption laws
    Grassroots Governance Decentralization through PRIs 73rd & 74th Amendments
    Planning & Development Decentralized and participatory planning NITI Aayog, DPCs
    E-Governance ICT in administration Digital India, UMANG
    Public Policy Socio-economic welfare MGNREGA, RTE, PMAY
    Evaluation Measuring effectiveness Social audit, Jan Sunwai

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-9 Public Administration MCQs

    Part A: Meaning, Evolution & Nature of Public Administration (Q1–15)

    Q1. Who is regarded as the father of Public Administration?
    (A) Max Weber
    (B) Woodrow Wilson
    (C) Luther Gulick
    (D) Herbert Simon
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Woodrow Wilson’s essay “The Study of Administration” (1887) is considered the foundation of Public Administration as an academic discipline.

    Q2. Public Administration is primarily concerned with:
    (A) Private business management
    (B) Implementation of public policies
    (C) Legislative processes
    (D) Party politics
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: It deals with execution and management of government policies and public services.

    Q3. The phrase “Politics-Administration Dichotomy” was introduced by:
    (A) Max Weber
    (B) Woodrow Wilson
    (C) Herbert Simon
    (D) Elton Mayo
    Answer: (B)

    Q4. The emphasis of classical public administration was on:
    (A) Human behavior
    (B) Efficiency and structure
    (C) Decision-making
    (D) Equity and justice
    Answer: (B)

    Q5. The behavioral approach in Public Administration emerged in:
    (A) 1880s
    (B) 1930s
    (C) 1950s
    (D) 1990s
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Influenced by psychology and sociology, focusing on human relations in organizations.

    Q6. The Minnowbrook Conference (1968) is associated with:
    (A) New Public Administration
    (B) Comparative Public Administration
    (C) Scientific Management
    (D) Bureaucratic Theory
    Answer: (A)

    Q7. Public Administration differs from private administration mainly in:
    (A) Scope and accountability
    (B) Decision-making
    (C) Communication
    (D) Finance
    Answer: (A)

    Q8. “Administration is the most obvious part of government” — who said this?
    (A) L.D. White
    (B) Woodrow Wilson
    (C) Max Weber
    (D) Fayol
    Answer: (B)

    Q9. The term “Public Administration” means:
    (A) Government by people
    (B) Management of public affairs
    (C) Political campaigns
    (D) Public opinion
    Answer: (B)

    Q10. In the modern era, Public Administration is viewed as:
    (A) Bureaucratic control only
    (B) Cooperative and citizen-centric governance
    (C) Economic monopoly
    (D) Military structure
    Answer: (B)

    Q11. “POSDCORB” stands for:
    (A) Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting
    (B) Planning, Ordering, Staffing, Decision, Control, Reviewing, Budget
    (C) Programming, Organizing, Supervision, Direction, Control, Reform, Budget
    (D) None of the above
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Coined by Luther Gulick to describe managerial functions.

    Q12. The term “comparative administration” gained prominence after:
    (A) Second World War
    (B) American Revolution
    (C) Cold War
    (D) Great Depression
    Answer: (A)

    Q13. The post-1990s Public Administration emphasizes:
    (A) Rule-following
    (B) Market-oriented efficiency and accountability
    (C) Centralization
    (D) Political neutrality
    Answer: (B)

    Q14. Public administration is a part of:
    (A) Private sector
    (B) Executive branch of government
    (C) Judiciary
    (D) Legislature
    Answer: (B)

    Q15. The focus of Development Administration is on:
    (A) Maintenance of law and order
    (B) Economic and social development
    (C) Judicial reform
    (D) Political campaigning
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part B: Approaches to Public Administration (Q16–30)

    Q16. Systems theory views administration as:
    (A) Mechanical process
    (B) Closed structure
    (C) Interrelated system of inputs and outputs
    (D) Isolated unit
    Answer: (C)

    Q17. The ecological approach was developed by:
    (A) Chester Barnard
    (B) Herbert Simon
    (C) Fred W. Riggs
    (D) Elton Mayo
    Answer: (C)

    Q18. Riggs’ Prismatic–Sala model explains:
    (A) Industrialized countries
    (B) Developing societies
    (C) Socialist states
    (D) Bureaucratic organizations only
    Answer: (B)

    Q19. In decision-making theory, Herbert Simon emphasized:
    (A) Complete rationality
    (B) Bounded rationality
    (C) Irrationality
    (D) Group behavior
    Answer: (B)

    Q20. In systems theory, “feedback” means:
    (A) Ignoring past actions
    (B) Response that influences future actions
    (C) Hierarchical control
    (D) Bureaucratic rigidity
    Answer: (B)

    Q21. The main focus of decision-making approach is:
    (A) Structure
    (B) Process of choosing alternatives
    (C) Rules and hierarchy
    (D) Authority
    Answer: (B)

    Q22. Ecological approach highlights the link between:
    (A) Politics and Economics
    (B) Administration and Environment
    (C) Government and Business
    (D) Politics and Judiciary
    Answer: (B)

    Q23. Riggs used the term “Sala” to refer to:
    (A) Pure traditional system
    (B) Industrialized society
    (C) Transitional mixed system
    (D) Modern democratic model
    Answer: (C)

    Q24. Decision-making theory is associated with:
    (A) Dwight Waldo
    (B) Herbert Simon
    (C) F.W. Taylor
    (D) Max Weber
    Answer: (B)

    Q25. Systems theory treats organization as:
    (A) Static structure
    (B) Dynamic adaptive entity
    (C) Machine
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (B)

    Q26. “Administration is influenced by environment” — is principle of:
    (A) Ecological approach
    (B) Bureaucratic theory
    (C) Human relations
    (D) Classical theory
    Answer: (A)

    Q27. Decision-making is the heart of:
    (A) Bureaucracy
    (B) Administration
    (C) Management
    (D) Leadership
    Answer: (B)

    Q28. “Bounded rationality” limits decision-making due to:
    (A) Time, information, cognitive limits
    (B) Law and order
    (C) Organizational hierarchy
    (D) Economic control
    Answer: (A)

    Q29. Riggs’ “Prismatic” societies show:
    (A) Fusion of traditional and modern elements
    (B) Only industrial structures
    (C) Fully modern systems
    (D) Tribal systems
    Answer: (A)

    Q30. The feedback mechanism in administration ensures:
    (A) Resistance to change
    (B) Control and learning
    (C) Hierarchical rigidity
    (D) Isolation
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part C: Theories and Concepts (Q31–50)

    Q31. Scientific Management was developed by:
    (A) Max Weber
    (B) F.W. Taylor
    (C) Fayol
    (D) Elton Mayo
    Answer: (B)

    Q32. Taylor’s main objective was:
    (A) Job satisfaction
    (B) Maximum efficiency and productivity
    (C) Employee welfare
    (D) Rule-following
    Answer: (B)

    Q33. Rational Choice Theory assumes:
    (A) Emotions drive behavior
    (B) People act to maximize self-interest
    (C) Administrative neutrality
    (D) Cultural factors dominate
    Answer: (B)

    Q34. “Social equity” is the core of:
    (A) New Public Administration
    (B) Bureaucratic theory
    (C) Development Administration
    (D) Human Relations theory
    Answer: (A)

    Q35. The main advocate of Development Administration:
    (A) Peter Drucker
    (B) Edward Weidner
    (C) Riggs
    (D) Simon
    Answer: (B)

    Q36. Comparative Public Administration studies:
    (A) One nation only
    (B) Comparative administrative systems
    (C) Private management
    (D) Bureaucratic rules
    Answer: (B)

    Q37. New Public Management (NPM) emphasizes:
    (A) Market principles and efficiency
    (B) Centralization
    (C) Bureaucratic rigidity
    (D) Hierarchical control
    Answer: (A)

    Q38. The term “Governance” replaced “Government” because:
    (A) It is more authoritative
    (B) It includes non-state actors
    (C) It excludes public sector
    (D) It means only law enforcement
    Answer: (B)

    Q39. Christopher Hood is associated with:
    (A) NPA
    (B) NPM
    (C) Development Administration
    (D) Comparative Administration
    Answer: (B)

    Q40. New Public Management was influenced by:
    (A) Keynesian model
    (B) Neo-liberal reforms
    (C) Socialist planning
    (D) Communist ideas
    Answer: (B)

    Q41. “Administrative man” concept was given by:
    (A) Dwight Waldo
    (B) Herbert Simon
    (C) Max Weber
    (D) Taylor
    Answer: (B)

    Q42. The classical theory of organization focused on:
    (A) Efficiency and structure
    (B) Emotions and behavior
    (C) Environment
    (D) Politics
    Answer: (A)

    Q43. In NPM, citizens are considered as:
    (A) Subjects
    (B) Clients or customers
    (C) Subordinates
    (D) Administrators
    Answer: (B)

    Q44. Bureaucratic theory was propounded by:
    (A) Weber
    (B) Mayo
    (C) Fayol
    (D) Taylor
    Answer: (A)

    Q45. Weberian bureaucracy is characterized by:
    (A) Nepotism
    (B) Rule-based hierarchy
    (C) Arbitrary authority
    (D) Informal behavior
    Answer: (B)

    Q46. The term “span of control” means:
    (A) Number of subordinates a manager can supervise effectively
    (B) Financial control
    (C) Time management
    (D) Legal control
    Answer: (A)

    Q47. Elton Mayo’s experiments were conducted at:
    (A) Harvard
    (B) Hawthorne Plant, Western Electric
    (C) MIT
    (D) Oxford
    Answer: (B)

    Q48. The Hawthorne experiments established the importance of:
    (A) Economic incentives only
    (B) Social and psychological factors
    (C) Political interference
    (D) Bureaucratic control
    Answer: (B)

    Q49. Development administration is characterized by:
    (A) Status quo orientation
    (B) Change and innovation
    (C) Bureaucratic rigidity
    (D) Profit motive
    Answer: (B)

    Q50. The New Public Administration emerged as a reaction against:
    (A) Classical bureaucracy
    (B) Liberalization
    (C) Political participation
    (D) NPM
    Answer: (A)

    🟢 Part D: Leadership, Motivation, Communication, and Conflict (Q51–85)

    Q51. Leadership is the ability to:
    (A) Give orders only
    (B) Influence and guide others
    (C) Control the environment
    (D) Avoid responsibility
    Answer: (B)

    Q52. Democratic leadership emphasizes:
    (A) Participation and consultation
    (B) Strict control
    (C) Secrecy
    (D) Autocracy
    Answer: (A)

    Q53. “Theory X and Theory Y” were proposed by:
    (A) Maslow
    (B) Herzberg
    (C) McGregor
    (D) Mayo
    Answer: (C)

    Q54. According to Maslow, the highest human need is:
    (A) Safety
    (B) Love
    (C) Esteem
    (D) Self-actualization
    Answer: (D)

    Q55. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory divides factors into:
    (A) Internal and external
    (B) Hygiene and motivation
    (C) Monetary and non-monetary
    (D) Positive and negative
    Answer: (B)

    Q56. Expectancy theory was given by:
    (A) Peter Drucker
    (B) Vroom
    (C) McGregor
    (D) Taylor
    Answer: (B)

    Q57. Communication in organizations is effective when:
    (A) One-way only
    (B) Two-way with feedback
    (C) Secretive
    (D) Hierarchical only
    Answer: (B)

    Q58. Chester Barnard emphasized communication as:
    (A) Central to cooperative systems
    (B) Optional activity
    (C) Legal requirement only
    (D) Technical formality
    Answer: (A)

    Q59. Downward communication flows from:
    (A) Subordinates to superiors
    (B) Superiors to subordinates
    (C) Peer to peer
    (D) None
    Answer: (B)

    Q60. Mary Parker Follett considered conflict as:
    (A) Destructive always
    (B) Natural and constructive
    (C) Avoidable
    (D) Bureaucratic failure
    Answer: (B)

    Q61. Follett’s method for resolving conflict effectively is:
    (A) Domination
    (B) Compromise
    (C) Integration
    (D) Suppression
    Answer: (C)

    Q62. Integration aims at:
    (A) Win–lose outcome
    (B) Win–win creative solution
    (C) Avoidance
    (D) Domination
    Answer: (B)

    Q63. Leadership style depends on situation, according to:
    (A) Fiedler
    (B) Mayo
    (C) Taylor
    (D) Weber
    Answer: (A)

    Q64. Motivation improves:
    (A) Efficiency and job satisfaction
    (B) Bureaucratic control
    (C) Law enforcement
    (D) Political campaigns
    Answer: (A)

    Q65. Barnard’s communication principle stresses:
    (A) Clear channels and feedback
    (B) Silence
    (C) Authority and fear
    (D) Rules only
    Answer: (A)

    Q66. Horizontal communication occurs between:
    (A) Superior and subordinate
    (B) Employees of same level
    (C) Government and citizens
    (D) Administration and judiciary
    Answer: (B)

    Q67. Informal communication network is also known as:
    (A) Grapevine
    (B) Bureaucratic order
    (C) Command chain
    (D) Reporting system
    Answer: (A)

    Q68. “Authority should follow communication” was emphasized by:
    (A) Weber
    (B) Barnard
    (C) Taylor
    (D) Simon
    Answer: (B)

    Q69. Conflict management enhances:
    (A) Efficiency and cooperation
    (B) Anarchy
    (C) Domination
    (D) Resentment
    Answer: (A)

    Q70. According to Drucker, management should focus on:
    (A) Work rules
    (B) Objectives and performance
    (C) Supervision
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (B)

    Q71. MBO stands for:
    (A) Management by Objectives
    (B) Management by Operations
    (C) Management by Organization
    (D) Management by Output
    Answer: (A)

    Q72. Peter Drucker introduced MBO in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1954
    (C) 1968
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (B)

    Q73. MBO emphasizes:
    (A) Participation and goal setting
    (B) Command and control
    (C) Political loyalty
    (D) Legalism
    Answer: (A)

    Q74. Motivation theory emphasizing needs hierarchy:
    (A) Herzberg
    (B) Maslow
    (C) McGregor
    (D) Drucker
    Answer: (B)

    Q75. Follett’s idea of “integration” promotes:
    (A) Cooperation through understanding
    (B) Bureaucratic control
    (C) Subordination
    (D) Power hierarchy
    Answer: (A)

    Q76. Upward communication flows from:
    (A) Employees to managers
    (B) Managers to employees
    (C) Citizens to politicians
    (D) Judiciary to legislature
    Answer: (A)

    Q77. Two-way communication improves:
    (A) Feedback and efficiency
    (B) Delays
    (C) Control
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (A)

    Q78. “Informal organization” was highlighted by:
    (A) Weber
    (B) Barnard
    (C) Taylor
    (D) Gulick
    Answer: (B)

    Q79. Conflict, according to Follett, is a sign of:
    (A) Organizational failure
    (B) Diversity of ideas and growth potential
    (C) Discipline collapse
    (D) Poor control
    Answer: (B)

    Q80. According to Drucker, performance must be:
    (A) Measured and accountable
    (B) Ignored
    (C) Political
    (D) Legalistic
    Answer: (A)

    Q81. Communication breakdown leads to:
    (A) Misunderstanding and inefficiency
    (B) Productivity
    (C) Motivation
    (D) Teamwork
    Answer: (A)

    Q82. Barnard viewed authority as:
    (A) Derived from subordinates’ acceptance
    (B) Legal command
    (C) Coercive power
    (D) Political mandate
    Answer: (A)

    Q83. Motivation is essential for:
    (A) Efficient human behavior in organization
    (B) Legal framework
    (C) Administrative hierarchy
    (D) Decision-making only
    Answer: (A)

    Q84. MBO aims to integrate:
    (A) Personal goals with organizational goals
    (B) Private with public administration
    (C) Rules with values
    (D) Authority with politics
    Answer: (A)

    Q85. Leadership is most effective when it:
    (A) Adjusts to environment and followers
    (B) Imposes strict control
    (C) Avoids feedback
    (D) Ignores motivation
    Answer: (A)

    Part E: Liberalisation, Globalisation, and Changing Nature (Q86–Q100)

    Q86. Liberalisation in India began in:
    (A) 1985
    (B) 1991
    (C) 1997
    (D) 2004
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Economic liberalisation began with the 1991 New Economic Policy, which reduced controls, encouraged private participation and FDI.

    Q87. One important administrative reform introduced after liberalisation is:
    (A) Increased licensing requirements
    (B) E-governance and IT automation
    (C) Complete centralization of power
    (D) Reduced transparency
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Post-1991 reforms accelerated e-governance, MIS and digital public services to improve efficiency and transparency.

    Q88. Public–Private Partnerships (PPP) are an example of:
    (A) Purely government-run service delivery
    (B) Market mechanisms in public service provision
    (C) Complete privatization without regulation
    (D) Judicial reforms
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: PPPs combine public oversight with private sector efficiency in delivering public goods.

    Q89. New Public Management (NPM) response to globalization emphasizes:
    (A) Bigger bureaucracies
    (B) Managerialism, performance measurement, and customer orientation
    (C) Ideological conformity
    (D) Elimination of private sector role
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: NPM borrows private-sector management techniques to make public services more efficient and accountable.

    Q90. A key risk of globalization for public administration is:
    (A) Greater autonomy for local governments
    (B) Reduced policy space due to international agreements
    (C) Increase in public sector job security
    (D) Stronger traditional bureaucracy
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Global commitments (trade, investment treaties) can constrain domestic policy choices and regulatory freedom.

    Q91. Information Management in modern public administration primarily seeks to:
    (A) Hide information from citizens
    (B) Support decision-making through accurate data and MIS
    (C) Replace human decision-makers entirely
    (D) Increase paperwork and manual records
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Effective information systems (MIS, dashboards, data analytics) enable evidence-based policy and faster decisions.

    Q92. Citizen Charter is an initiative aimed at:
    (A) Privatizing public services
    (B) Defining service standards and ensuring accountability to citizens
    (C) Making government opaque
    (D) Increasing red tape
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Citizen Charters specify service norms, timelines and grievance redressal to improve public service delivery.

    Q93. Globalisation has led to the increased role of which actors in governance?
    (A) Only central ministries
    (B) Multilateral institutions, NGOs, and transnational corporations
    (C) Traditional village councils only
    (D) Only the judiciary
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Globalisation expanded the governance ecosystem beyond the state to include international and non-state actors.

    Q94. Under liberalisation, accountability mechanisms shifted to include:
    (A) Only internal audits
    (B) Performance contracts, audits, citizen feedback and market competition
    (C) Elimination of audits
    (D) Sole reliance on political patronage
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: New accountability tools include performance appraisal, independent audits, customer satisfaction surveys and RTI.

    Q95. One organizational challenge created by liberalisation is:
    (A) Reduced need for human resources
    (B) Pressure to adapt skills, continuous training and flexible structures
    (C) Increase in rigid hierarchy
    (D) Elimination of coordination needs
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Liberalisation and technology require capacity building, training and more adaptable organizational forms.

    Q96. E-governance contributes to good governance by:
    (A) Reducing access to services
    (B) Increasing transparency, reducing corruption and improving delivery speed
    (C) Removing citizen participation
    (D) Making government slower
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Digital platforms (portals, mobile apps, digital payments) reduce intermediaries and improve transparency.

    Q97. In the liberalised era, measuring public sector outcomes focuses more on:
    (A) Inputs only (budget & staff)
    (B) Outputs and outcomes (results, impact)
    (C) Rituals and ceremonies
    (D) Historical precedent
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Emphasis shifted from inputs to measurable outputs and outcomes (service quality, impact).

    Q98. Organizational communication in the era of globalisation must handle:
    (A) Only local language communication
    (B) Complex multi-stakeholder, cross-cultural, and digital interactions
    (C) Exclusively top-down orders
    (D) Only written memos
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Modern organizations need multilingual, multicultural and digital channels for effective coordination.

    Q99. Management by Objectives (MBO) helps organizations in liberalised settings by:
    (A) Removing performance measurement
    (B) Aligning individual goals with organizational strategic targets and improving accountability
    (C) Promoting secrecy
    (D) Increasing bureaucratic red tape
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: MBO fosters clarity of goals, measurable targets and participative planning—useful for performance culture.

    Q100. The overall effect of liberalisation and globalisation on public administration is:
    (A) Return to closed, inward-looking administration
    (B) Transition toward market-oriented, technology-enabled, citizen-centric governance with new accountability demands
    (C) Complete privatization of all government functions
    (D) Elimination of administrative ethics
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Reforms led to a hybrid model: state still provides public goods but uses market mechanisms, technology and participatory practices to enhance effectiveness and accountability.

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit–9 Public Administration

    1. Meaning and Evolution of Public Administration

    Meaning

    • Public Administration is the implementation of government policies and the management of public affairs.

    • It refers to the organization, direction, and supervision of public programs and services.

    • It includes both policy-making and policy-execution functions.

    Key Thinkers: Woodrow Wilson, Max Weber, F.W. Taylor, Luther Gulick, Herbert Simon.

    Evolution of Public Administration

    Period Approach Focus / Features
    1887–1930 (Classical Era) Traditional / Administrative Management Efficiency, hierarchy, structure (e.g., Taylor, Fayol, Gulick).
    1930–1950 (Human Relations Era) Behavioral Approach Emphasis on people, motivation, leadership (Elton Mayo).
    1950–1970 (Modern Era) Systems and Decision-Making Theories Simon, Easton, and others introduced scientific and systemic analysis.
    1970s–1990s (NPA & CPA) New Public Administration (NPA) and Comparative Public Administration (CPA) Values, equity, ethics, development focus.
    1990s onwards (NPM and Governance) New Public Management (NPM) and Governance approach Efficiency, accountability, decentralization, globalization.

    Public vs. Private Administration

    Basis Public Administration Private Administration
    Objective Public welfare, service Profit-making
    Accountability To public and legislature To owners/shareholders
    Scope Broad – includes law, order, welfare Narrow – economic production
    Decision Process Democratic and slow Quick and flexible
    Control Political and legal Managerial and financial

    🟢 2. Approaches to the Study of Public Administration

    (i) Systems Theory

    • Introduced by David Easton and Chester Barnard.

    • Administration is viewed as a system of interrelated parts (inputs → process → outputs → feedback).

    • Helps understand environmental influence and dynamic relationships in governance.

    (ii) Decision-Making Approach

    • Developed by Herbert Simon (Administrative Behavior, 1947).

    • Decision-making is the core of administration.

    • Introduced concept of “bounded rationality” — decisions are rational but limited by available information, time, and human capacity.

    • Emphasizes scientific analysis and rational choice in administration.

    (iii) Ecological Approach

    • Introduced by Fred W. Riggs.

    • Studies the relationship between administration and its environment (social, cultural, political, and economic).

    • Riggs’ “Prismatic-Sala Model” analyzed developing countries where modern and traditional systems coexist.

    • Helps explain administrative diversity among nations.

    🟢 3. Major Theories and Concepts in Public Administration

    (i) Scientific Management Theory

    • Developed by Frederick Winslow Taylor (1911).

    • Focus: Efficiency, standardization, and productivity.

    • Principles:

      1. Scientific study of work.

      2. Selection and training of workers.

      3. Cooperation between management and labour.

      4. Division of responsibility between managers and workers.

    (ii) Rational Choice Theory

    • Based on economic and behavioral principles.

    • Assumes individuals act rationally to maximize self-interest.

    • Applied in public choice theory and policy-making (e.g., Buchanan and Tullock).

    (iii) New Public Administration (NPA)

    • Emerged in the 1960s (Minnowbrook Conference, 1968).

    • Key advocates: Dwight Waldo, Frank Marini, George Frederickson.

    • Focus: Relevance, equity, social justice, ethics, citizen participation.

    • Rejects value-neutrality — administration must pursue social equity.

    (iv) Development Administration

    • Originated in post-colonial developing countries.

    • Focus on economic growth, nation-building, modernization.

    • Key thinker: Edward Weidner.

    • Features:

      • Goal-oriented administration.

      • Strong political-administrative link.

      • Participation and innovation.

    (v) Comparative Public Administration (CPA)

    • Popularized by Ferrel Heady, Fred Riggs, and Nicholas Henry.

    • Compares administrative systems across countries.

    • Focus: context, environment, culture, and institutional differences.

    • Instrumental in studying developing nations’ bureaucracy.

    (vi) New Public Management (NPM)

    • Emerged in 1980s–1990s under the influence of liberalization and globalization.

    • Major focus: efficiency, accountability, performance, and market orientation.

    • Promoted by scholars like Christopher Hood, Osborne and Gaebler.

    • Features:

      • Decentralization and autonomy.

      • Contracting out and privatization.

      • Customer orientation.

      • Performance-based management.

    (vii) Changing Nature of Public Administration

    • Post-1990s: Globalisation, liberalisation, and technology transformed public administration.

    • Focus shifted from rule-bound bureaucracy → result-oriented governance.

    • E-governance, citizen charter, and transparency are key components.

    🟢 4. Theories and Principles of Organization

    (i) Scientific Management (Taylor)

    • Emphasized scientific methods, time-motion studies, and task specialization for efficiency.

    (ii) Bureaucratic Theory (Max Weber)

    • Weber’s bureaucracy is based on:

      • Hierarchy of authority

      • Division of labour

      • Rule-based operation

      • Impersonality

      • Merit-based recruitment

    • Ensures efficiency, predictability, and accountability.

    (iii) Human Relations Theory (Elton Mayo)

    • Origin: Hawthorne Experiments (1924–32).

    • Emphasized worker morale, motivation, and group behavior.

    • Administration is not just technical but also social and psychological.

    🟢 5. Managing the Organization

    Theories of Leadership

    Type Description Example
    Autocratic Leader takes all decisions Military leadership
    Democratic Participative style Cabinet system
    Laissez-faire Freedom to subordinates Research teams
    Situational / Contingency Leadership depends on context Fiedler’s theory

    Theories of Motivation

    Theory Thinker Main Idea
    Hierarchy of Needs Abraham Maslow Human needs arranged from basic (food) to self-actualization.
    Two-Factor Theory Frederick Herzberg Hygiene and motivators affect satisfaction differently.
    Theory X and Y Douglas McGregor X – people dislike work; Y – people find work natural and creative.
    Expectancy Theory Vroom Motivation depends on expected reward outcomes.

    🟢 6. Organisational Communication

    Meaning

    Communication is the process of transmitting information and understanding between people in an organization.

    Theories and Principles

    Chester Barnard’s Theory of Communication

    • Communication is the foundation of cooperation and coordination in organizations.

    • Principles:

      1. Clear channels of communication.

      2. Authentic and reliable messages.

      3. Informal communication complements formal communication.

      4. Feedback is essential for effectiveness.

    Information Management in the Organization

    • Involves collection, storage, analysis, and dissemination of information for decision-making.

    • Modern administration uses MIS (Management Information Systems) and E-Governance tools to enhance transparency.

    🟢 7. Managing Conflict in the Organization

    Mary Parker Follett’s Theory of Conflict

    • Follett viewed conflict as natural and constructive, not harmful.

    • Suggested “integration” as the best method to resolve conflict.

    • Three methods of conflict resolution:

      1. Domination – one wins, other loses.

      2. Compromise – both give up something.

      3. Integration – both find a creative, win–win solution.

    🟢 8. Management by Objectives (MBO)

    Concept by Peter Drucker

    • Introduced in his book “The Practice of Management” (1954).

    • MBO means setting clear, measurable goals agreed upon by both management and employees.

    Features

    1. Participative goal setting.

    2. Performance evaluation based on results.

    3. Feedback and review.

    4. Integration of individual and organizational goals.

    Benefits

    • Improves motivation, coordination, and accountability.

    • Encourages efficiency and innovation.

    🟢 9. Changing Nature of Public Administration in Liberalisation and Globalisation

    • Shift from government to governance.

    • Introduction of market mechanisms and public–private partnerships (PPP).

    • Increased emphasis on transparency, efficiency, and e-governance.

    • Citizens viewed as customers/partners rather than subjects.

    • Administrative reforms: Citizen’s Charter, Right to Information (RTI), digital governance.

    🟢 Summary Table

    Concept Key Thinker / Era Core Idea
    Scientific Management F.W. Taylor Efficiency and standardization
    Bureaucratic Theory Max Weber Rational, rule-based organization
    Human Relations Elton Mayo Motivation and group behavior
    Decision-Making Herbert Simon Rational but bounded decision-making
    Ecological Approach Fred Riggs Administration–environment relation
    Development Administration Edward Weidner Modernization and nation-building
    Comparative Public Administration Ferrel Heady Contextual and cross-national analysis
    NPM Osborne & Gaebler Efficiency and market orientation
    Conflict Management Mary Parker Follett Integration and cooperation
    MBO Peter Drucker Goal-oriented management

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-8 Political Processes in India-MCQs

    Part A: State, Economy and Development (1–15)

    Q1. The Indian State is best described as:
    (A) Capitalist
    (B) Socialist
    (C) Welfare and Developmental
    (D) Authoritarian
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The Indian State combines democracy and welfare, aiming at social justice and development.

    Q2. The Planning Commission of India was established in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1950
    (C) 1952
    (D) 1956
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Planning Commission was formed in 1950 under Jawaharlal Nehru to coordinate Five-Year Plans.

    Q3. The Nehru–Mahalanobis Model emphasized:
    (A) Agriculture
    (B) Heavy industries
    (C) Small-scale industries
    (D) Services
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) focused on rapid industrialization through heavy industries.

    Q4. The New Economic Policy (NEP) was introduced in:
    (A) 1980
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1991
    (D) 1995
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The NEP of 1991 introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).

    Q5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Liberalization?
    (A) De-licensing
    (B) Import liberalization
    (C) Privatization of PSUs
    (D) Increased state control
    Answer: (D)
    Explanation: Liberalization reduces government control, encouraging market freedom.

    Q6. Who replaced the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog?
    (A) Manmohan Singh
    (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (C) Narendra Modi
    (D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: NITI Aayog was established in 2015 under Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

    Q7. The term “Human Development” was popularized by:
    (A) Amartya Sen
    (B) Mahbub-ul-Haq
    (C) Gunnar Myrdal
    (D) Adam Smith
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) concept for UNDP in 1990.

    Q8. The focus of Amartya Sen’s theory is on:
    (A) Capital accumulation
    (B) Income distribution
    (C) Human capabilities and freedoms
    (D) Industrial growth
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Sen’s “Capability Approach” emphasizes expanding human choices and freedoms.

    Q9. The Indian economy after 1991 is described as:
    (A) Closed economy
    (B) Mixed economy
    (C) Market-oriented economy
    (D) Command economy
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: NEP reforms shifted India towards a market-oriented economic model.

    Q10. The Green Revolution in India was introduced in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1952
    (C) 1965
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Green Revolution began in 1965 under Lal Bahadur Shastri focusing on food grain self-sufficiency.

    Q11. Who coined the term “License Raj”?
    (A) Indira Gandhi
    (B) Rajiv Gandhi
    (C) C. Rajagopalachari
    (D) Manmohan Singh
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari criticized the excessive bureaucracy of state control as “License Raj”.

    Q12. NITI Aayog’s approach is based on:
    (A) Centralized planning
    (B) Cooperative federalism
    (C) Command economy
    (D) Socialist economy
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: NITI Aayog promotes coordination between the Centre and States through cooperative federalism.

    Q13. The first Five-Year Plan in India emphasized:
    (A) Industry
    (B) Agriculture and irrigation
    (C) Trade
    (D) Services
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The first plan (1951–56) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and rural development.

    Q14. Economic inequality in India increased mainly after:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) LPG reforms
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Land reforms
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 1991 LPG reforms led to growth but widened the gap between rich and poor.

    Q15. Human Development Index (HDI) measures:
    (A) Income and wealth only
    (B) Education, health, income
    (C) Population growth
    (D) Industrial growth
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: HDI combines life expectancy, education, and per capita income.

    🟢 Part B: Globalisation (16–25)

    Q16. Globalisation means:
    (A) National isolation
    (B) Integration of national economies
    (C) Expansion of state control
    (D) De-industrialization
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Globalisation integrates economies and societies through trade, capital, and technology.

    Q17. Globalisation in India began after:
    (A) 1980 reforms
    (B) 1991 reforms
    (C) 2001 WTO entry
    (D) 2014 digital policy
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The 1991 NEP initiated the process of integrating India into the global economy.

    Q18. One major consequence of globalisation is:
    (A) Decline in inequality
    (B) Decline in FDI
    (C) Job insecurity and inequality
    (D) State expansion
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Globalisation increased growth but created job insecurity and income inequality.

    Q19. The WTO was established in:
    (A) 1945
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1995
    (D) 2001
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995 replacing GATT.

    Q20. A key social impact of globalisation is:
    (A) Strengthening of local traditions
    (B) Cultural homogenisation
    (C) Isolationism
    (D) Reduction in communication
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Globalisation leads to the spread of global culture, reducing diversity in some cases.

    Q21. India’s integration with the global economy was accelerated by:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) New Economic Policy 1991
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Swadeshi movement
    Answer: (B)

    Q22. Which sector benefited the most from globalisation in India?
    (A) Agriculture
    (B) Manufacturing
    (C) Services
    (D) Mining
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: IT and service sectors saw rapid growth due to liberalized policies and global demand.

    Q23. One major political effect of globalisation is:
    (A) Decline of regional parties
    (B) Rise of corporate influence
    (C) Strengthening of socialism
    (D) State control over economy
    Answer: (B)

    Q24. The slogan “Think globally, act locally” refers to:
    (A) Environmentalism and globalisation
    (B) Nationalism
    (C) Federalism
    (D) Communalism
    Answer: (A)

    Q25. The process of globalisation increased the importance of:
    (A) Local economies
    (B) Non-state actors and MNCs
    (C) Central government
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part C: Identity Politics (26–40)

    Q26. Identity politics in India is mainly based on:
    (A) Economic class
    (B) Caste, religion, region, language
    (C) Race
    (D) Urban–rural division
    Answer: (B)

    Q27. The Mandal Commission dealt with:
    (A) Religious minorities
    (B) OBC reservation
    (C) Scheduled Tribes
    (D) Women’s rights
    Answer: (B)

    Q28. The Mandal Commission report was implemented in:
    (A) 1979
    (B) 1985
    (C) 1990
    (D) 1995
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: V.P. Singh implemented the Mandal recommendations in 1990.

    Q29. Dalit politics is associated with:
    (A) Marxism
    (B) Ambedkarite ideology
    (C) Gandhian philosophy
    (D) Liberalism
    Answer: (B)

    Q30. The term “Bahujan” refers to:
    (A) Minorities
    (B) Upper castes
    (C) Majority of oppressed classes
    (D) Industrial workers
    Answer: (C)

    Q31. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) draws ideological inspiration from:
    (A) Liberalism
    (B) Marxism
    (C) Hindutva
    (D) Gandhism
    Answer: (C)

    Q32. The Sachar Committee dealt with the conditions of:
    (A) SCs
    (B) STs
    (C) Muslims
    (D) OBCs
    Answer: (C)

    Q33. Tribal movements in India mainly demand:
    (A) Urbanization
    (B) Autonomy and land rights
    (C) Nationalization
    (D) Privatization
    Answer: (B)

    Q34. Linguistic reorganisation of states was based on the report of:
    (A) Sarkaria Commission
    (B) Fazl Ali Commission
    (C) Punchhi Commission
    (D) Mandal Commission
    Answer: (B)

    Q35. The Dravidian movement originated in:
    (A) Maharashtra
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Assam
    (D) Bihar
    Answer: (B)

    Q36. The term “communalism” refers to:
    (A) Cooperation between religions
    (B) Political use of religion
    (C) Atheism
    (D) Cultural assimilation
    Answer: (B)

    Q37. The concept of “politics of presence” is associated with:
    (A) Caste system
    (B) Gender representation
    (C) Regionalism
    (D) Religion
    Answer: (B)

    Q38. OBCs were granted constitutional recognition through:
    (A) Article 341
    (B) Article 342
    (C) Mandal Commission
    (D) Constitution (First Amendment)
    Answer: (C)

    Q39. The rise of regional parties in India is mainly due to:
    (A) Class conflict
    (B) Regional disparities
    (C) Bureaucratic control
    (D) Decline of coalition politics
    Answer: (B)

    Q40. Identity politics became prominent in India during:
    (A) Nehru era
    (B) Post-1970s
    (C) Pre-independence
    (D) 1940s
    Answer: (B)

    Part D: Social Movements (41–55)

    Q41. Social movements are best defined as:
    (A) Political parties contesting elections
    (B) Collective efforts for social or political change
    (C) Bureaucratic organizations
    (D) Governmental policies
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Social movements are organized collective actions aimed at social transformation.

    Q42. The Dalit movement primarily aims at:
    (A) Religious reform
    (B) Caste-based equality and dignity
    (C) Women’s rights
    (D) Economic liberalization
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Dalit movement, led by Ambedkar, seeks equality, social justice, and the end of untouchability.

    Q43. The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded by:
    (A) B.R. Ambedkar
    (B) Kanshi Ram
    (C) Mayawati
    (D) Jagjivan Ram
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Kanshi Ram founded BSP in 1984 to represent the Bahujans — Dalits, OBCs, and minorities.

    Q44. The Chipko Movement was primarily concerned with:
    (A) Labour rights
    (B) Forest conservation
    (C) Tribal autonomy
    (D) Political representation
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Chipko Movement (1970s, Uttarakhand) aimed to protect forests from commercial exploitation.

    Q45. Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
    (A) Medha Patkar
    (B) Arundhati Roy
    (C) Anna Hazare
    (D) Vandana Shiva
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Medha Patkar led this movement against large dams and displacement of people.

    Q46. The Tebhaga Movement was related to:
    (A) Factory workers
    (B) Farmers and sharecroppers
    (C) Industrial labourers
    (D) Women’s rights
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Tebhaga (1946–47, Bengal) demanded two-thirds share of crops for sharecroppers.

    Q47. Which movement is associated with “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan”?
    (A) Women’s movement
    (B) Peasant movement
    (C) Labour movement
    (D) Environmental movement
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan during food crisis to motivate farmers and soldiers.

    Q48. The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded in:
    (A) 1920
    (B) 1947
    (C) 1950
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: AITUC (1920) was India’s first national trade union, affiliated with communist ideology.

    Q49. The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) was founded by:
    (A) Ela Bhatt
    (B) Medha Patkar
    (C) Vandana Shiva
    (D) Aruna Roy
    Answer: (A)
    Explanation: Ela Bhatt founded SEWA (1972) to empower self-employed women workers.

    Q50. The anti-corruption movement (2011) led to the formation of:
    (A) NITI Aayog
    (B) Janata Party
    (C) Aam Aadmi Party
    (D) National Front
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Anna Hazare’s 2011 movement inspired Arvind Kejriwal to form AAP in 2012.

    Q51. The slogan “Garibi Hatao” was first given by:
    (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (B) Indira Gandhi
    (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    (D) Rajiv Gandhi
    Answer: (B)

    Q52. The Naxalite movement started in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1952
    (C) 1967
    (D) 1975
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: It began in 1967 in Naxalbari, West Bengal, as a peasant armed rebellion.

    Q53. The women’s movement in India gained momentum during:
    (A) 1920s
    (B) 1940s
    (C) 1970s
    (D) 1990s
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: The post-1970 period saw rise in feminist and rights-based movements.

    Q54. The Right to Information (RTI) movement was initiated by:
    (A) SEWA
    (B) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
    (C) Greenpeace India
    (D) AITUC
    Answer: (B)

    Q55. Which movement combined gender and environmental issues?
    (A) Naxalite
    (B) Chipko
    (C) Tebhaga
    (D) Telangana
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part E: Civil Society (56–65)

    Q56. Civil society refers to:
    (A) Political parties
    (B) Military organizations
    (C) Non-state voluntary associations
    (D) Bureaucracy
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: Civil society is the sphere between state and family where citizens organize voluntarily.

    Q57. NGOs in India mainly work for:
    (A) Political campaigns
    (B) Public welfare and development
    (C) Foreign diplomacy
    (D) Profit-making
    Answer: (B)

    Q58. The RTI Act was passed in:
    (A) 2002
    (B) 2005
    (C) 2008
    (D) 2010
    Answer: (B)

    Q59. Which organization is known for working on child rights in India?
    (A) CRY
    (B) NASSCOM
    (C) WWF
    (D) FICCI
    Answer: (A)

    Q60. Non-party political formations refer to:
    (A) Electoral coalitions
    (B) Movements outside party politics
    (C) Political alliances
    (D) Bureaucratic groups
    Answer: (B)

    Q61. The concept of “participatory democracy” is strengthened by:
    (A) Bureaucracy
    (B) Civil society and NGOs
    (C) Political centralization
    (D) Media monopoly
    Answer: (B)

    Q62. Aruna Roy is associated with:
    (A) Green Revolution
    (B) RTI and rural empowerment
    (C) Women’s reservation
    (D) Nationalization
    Answer: (B)

    Q63. The term “third sector” is often used for:
    (A) Private corporations
    (B) Civil society organizations
    (C) Political parties
    (D) Bureaucrats
    Answer: (B)

    Q64. Social Action Groups mainly work for:
    (A) Profits
    (B) Social justice and human rights
    (C) Political campaigns
    (D) Economic liberalization
    Answer: (B)

    Q65. Civil society acts as a ______ between citizens and the state.
    (A) Barrier
    (B) Bridge
    (C) Substitute
    (D) Controller
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part F: Regionalisation of Indian Politics (66–78)

    Q66. The linguistic reorganisation of states took place in:
    (A) 1947
    (B) 1956
    (C) 1962
    (D) 1971
    Answer: (B)

    Q67. The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was headed by:
    (A) K.M. Munshi
    (B) Fazl Ali
    (C) G.B. Pant
    (D) Nehru
    Answer: (B)

    Q68. The first linguistic state of India was:
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Maharashtra
    (D) Kerala
    Answer: (A)

    Q69. Telangana was created as the ____ state of India.
    (A) 28th
    (B) 29th
    (C) 30th
    (D) 31st
    Answer: (B)

    Q70. The creation of new states in 2000 included:
    (A) Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
    (B) Goa, Mizoram, Meghalaya
    (C) Tripura, Manipur, Sikkim
    (D) Haryana, Punjab, Delhi
    Answer: (A)

    Q71. Regionalism often arises due to:
    (A) Economic equality
    (B) Regional disparities
    (C) Cultural homogeneity
    (D) Centralization of power
    Answer: (B)

    Q72. The term “sons of the soil” relates to:
    (A) Caste movements
    (B) Regional movements
    (C) Environmentalism
    (D) Labour movements
    Answer: (B)

    Q73. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) emerged in:
    (A) Andhra Pradesh
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) Karnataka
    (D) Kerala
    Answer: (B)

    Q74. The Bodo movement is associated with:
    (A) Assam
    (B) Bihar
    (C) Odisha
    (D) West Bengal
    Answer: (A)

    Q75. The demand for Vidarbha state is from:
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Maharashtra
    (C) Madhya Pradesh
    (D) Karnataka
    Answer: (B)

    Q76. Regional parties primarily represent:
    (A) National ideology
    (B) Local and regional interests
    (C) Bureaucracy
    (D) Elite classes
    Answer: (B)

    Q77. Regionalisation of politics has led to:
    (A) One-party dominance
    (B) Coalition governments
    (C) Central dictatorship
    (D) Military rule
    Answer: (B)

    Q78. The movement for Gorkhaland is centered in:
    (A) Assam
    (B) Tamil Nadu
    (C) West Bengal
    (D) Sikkim
    Answer: (C)

    🟢 Part G: Gender and Politics (79–87)

    Q79. The 73rd and 74th Amendments provide:
    (A) Women’s 33% reservation in local bodies
    (B) Reservation in Parliament
    (C) Reservation for minorities
    (D) Job quotas for women
    Answer: (A)

    Q80. The Women’s Reservation Bill (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) was passed in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2010
    (C) 2023
    (D) 2024
    Answer: (C)

    Q81. Representation of women in Lok Sabha (2024) is around:
    (A) 5%
    (B) 10%
    (C) 15%
    (D) 25%
    Answer: (C)

    Q82. The concept of “politics of presence” was given by:
    (A) Iris Marion Young
    (B) Amartya Sen
    (C) Mahbub-ul-Haq
    (D) Simone de Beauvoir
    Answer: (A)

    Q83. The “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” scheme focuses on:
    (A) Employment
    (B) Health and education of girls
    (C) Urban development
    (D) Rural roads
    Answer: (B)

    Q84. The first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state was:
    (A) Sucheta Kriplani
    (B) Indira Gandhi
    (C) Jayalalithaa
    (D) Sheila Dikshit
    Answer: (A)

    Q85. Which article ensures equality before law in India?
    (A) Article 12
    (B) Article 14
    (C) Article 19
    (D) Article 32
    Answer: (B)

    Q86. The first all-women political party in India was:
    (A) Mahila Congress
    (B) National Women’s Party
    (C) Women Power Party
    (D) Stree Shakti Party
    Answer: (B)

    Q87. Women’s participation in politics strengthens:
    (A) Authoritarianism
    (B) Democracy and inclusion
    (C) Elitism
    (D) Populism
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part H: Ideology & Political Parties (88–94)

    Q88. The Indian National Congress follows:
    (A) Right-wing ideology
    (B) Centrist ideology
    (C) Communist ideology
    (D) Monarchical ideology
    Answer: (B)

    Q89. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) believes in:
    (A) Capitalism
    (B) Liberalism
    (C) Socialism and Marxism
    (D) Gandhian economics
    Answer: (C)

    Q90. The BJP’s ideological mentor is:
    (A) RSS
    (B) CPI
    (C) INC
    (D) BSP
    Answer: (A)

    Q91. The Bahujan Samaj Party’s ideology is based on:
    (A) Marxism
    (B) Ambedkarism and social justice
    (C) Liberalism
    (D) Feminism
    Answer: (B)

    Q92. The Aam Aadmi Party’s focus is on:
    (A) Religious politics
    (B) Governance and anti-corruption
    (C) Socialist revolution
    (D) Agrarian reform
    Answer: (B)

    Q93. National parties must be recognized in at least:
    (A) One state
    (B) Two states
    (C) Four states
    (D) Five states
    Answer: (D)

    Q94. Regional parties represent:
    (A) All-India interests
    (B) Local cultural or economic identities
    (C) Central government interests
    (D) Judiciary
    Answer: (B)

    🟢 Part I: Electoral Politics (95–100)

    Q95. The Election Commission of India is established under:
    (A) Article 324
    (B) Article 356
    (C) Article 370
    (D) Article 14
    Answer: (A)

    Q96. Universal adult franchise in India is given to citizens aged:
    (A) 18 and above
    (B) 21 and above
    (C) 25 and above
    (D) 16 and above
    Answer: (A)

    Q97. Model Code of Conduct is enforced by:
    (A) Parliament
    (B) Election Commission
    (C) Supreme Court
    (D) Political parties
    Answer: (B)

    Q98. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) was introduced in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2010
    (C) 2013
    (D) 2015
    Answer: (C)

    Q99. Coalition politics in India became prominent after:
    (A) 1967
    (B) 1977
    (C) 1989
    (D) 1999
    Answer: (C)
    Explanation: After 1989, no single party got a majority, leading to coalition governments.

    Q100. The NOTA option was introduced in Indian elections in:
    (A) 2009
    (B) 2013
    (C) 2015
    (D) 2018
    Answer: (B)
    Explanation: The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to introduce NOTA in 2013.

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit–8 Political Processes in India

    1. State, Economy and Development

    1.1 Nature of the Indian State

    • The Indian State is sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic — as declared in the Preamble.

    • It emerged after independence as a post-colonial, developmental, and welfare state.

    • It is a mixed-economy model combining both capitalist and socialist features.

    • The Indian state is:

      • Interventionist – It regulates the economy, manages resources, and ensures welfare.

      • Democratic – Based on rule of law, popular participation, and equality.

      • Pluralistic – Accommodates diverse groups, religions, and languages.

    • Challenges include poverty, inequality, corruption, regional imbalance, and communalism.

    1.2 Development Planning Model

    • Planning in India began with the Planning Commission (1950) and Five-Year Plans (1951–2017).

    • It aimed at achieving rapid industrialization, agricultural growth, employment generation, and self-reliance.

    • India adopted a mixed economy, combining state-led planning with private sector participation.

    • Key models:

      • Nehru-Mahalanobis Model (Second Plan, 1956–61) – focused on heavy industries.

      • Green Revolution (1960s–70s) – agricultural modernization using HYV seeds, fertilizers, irrigation.

      • Anti-poverty and Employment Programs – like IRDP, MGNREGA, etc.

    • NITI Aayog (2015) replaced the Planning Commission, focusing on cooperative federalism and policy think-tank approach.

    1.3 New Economic Policy (1991)

    • Introduced due to Balance of Payment Crisis under P.V. Narasimha Rao and Dr. Manmohan Singh.

    • Shift from state-controlled economy to market-oriented economy.

    • Core features – Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).

    Reform Meaning Examples
    Liberalization Reducing government controls on business De-licensing industries, easing imports
    Privatization Allowing private sector to own industries Disinvestment in PSUs
    Globalization Integrating with global economy FDI, MNCs, trade liberalization

    Impact:

    • GDP growth increased, inflation controlled, forex reserves grew.

    • But led to jobless growth, inequality, rural distress, and corporate dominance.

    1.4 Growth and Human Development

    • Economic growth: increase in output/income (measured by GDP).

    • Human development: expansion of human capabilities — education, health, and standard of living.

    • Amartya Sen’s Capability Approach emphasizes freedom and opportunities.

    • India’s Human Development Index (HDI) is improving but still low due to inequality, gender gap, and poor health outcomes.

    • Policies promoting human development:

      • National Education Policy (NEP 2020)

      • Ayushman Bharat

      • Skill India

      • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

    🟢 2. Process of Globalisation

    Meaning:

    Globalisation is the integration of the Indian economy and society with the world through trade, investment, communication, and technology.

    Economic Implications:

    • Rise in foreign investment (FDI/FII).

    • Expansion of services sector, especially IT and outsourcing.

    • Privatization of public enterprises and reduction in subsidies.

    • Widening income inequality between skilled and unskilled workers.

    Social Implications:

    • Spread of consumer culture and western lifestyle.

    • Increased urbanization and migration.

    • Greater access to global education, health, and communication.

    • However, traditional values and local industries face challenges.

    Political Implications:

    • Decline of state control over the economy.

    • Strengthening of corporate influence in politics.

    • Rise of new social movements demanding accountability.

    🟢 3. Identity Politics

    Identity politics means mobilization of people based on social identities — such as caste, religion, language, region, or tribe.

    3.1 Religion

    • Religion became a political mobilizing factor (e.g., Ayodhya movement).

    • Communalism: politicization of religion leading to conflict (e.g., Hindu-Muslim riots).

    • Secularism is a core constitutional principle, but communal polarization remains a challenge.

    3.2 Caste

    • Caste transformed from social hierarchy to political resource.

    • Rise of Dalit and OBC politics post-Mandal Commission (1990).

    • Political parties like BSP, RJD, SP represent caste-based interests.

    • Reservation policy ensured representation in education and jobs.

    3.3 Tribe

    • Tribal communities mobilized for land rights, forest access, and autonomy.

    • Led to formation of states like Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.

    • Movements like Narmada Bachao Andolan voiced tribal displacement issues.

    3.4 Region & Language

    • Regional identity led to demands for statehood (e.g., Telangana, Gorkhaland).

    • Linguistic reorganization (1956) based on state languages.

    • Regional parties (DMK, TDP, TMC, BJD) express regional aspirations.

    🟢 4. Social Movements in India

    Social movements are organized collective efforts for social or political change.

    Movement Key Demands Major Leaders / Organizations
    Dalit Movement Equality, dignity, abolition of untouchability B.R. Ambedkar, BSP
    Tribal Movement Land rights, autonomy Jaipal Singh Munda, Shibu Soren
    Women’s Movement Equality, safety, representation AIWC, SEWA, Narmada Bachao Andolan
    Farmers’ Movement Better prices, subsidies, debt relief Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU)
    Labour Movement Better wages, job security AITUC, INTUC, BMS

    Recent Movements:

    • Narmada Bachao Andolan (environmental justice)

    • RTI movement (transparency)

    • Anti-corruption movement (2011)

    • Farmers’ protest (2020–21)

    🟢 5. Civil Society Groups

    • Civil Society = space between the State and the Individual, where people organize collectively.

    • Acts as a watchdog, ensures accountability, and promotes participatory democracy.

    Types:

    1. Non-party formations – not linked to political parties; issue-based (e.g., environmental or anti-corruption movements).

    2. NGOs (Non-Governmental Organizations) – provide services, advocate rights (e.g., CRY, PRATHAM, SEWA).

    3. Social Action Groups – mobilize for social justice, environment, or human rights (e.g., Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan).

    Role:

    • Strengthens democracy by ensuring citizen participation.

    • Highlights issues ignored by mainstream politics.

    • Challenges state policies that harm marginalized groups.

    🟢 6. Regionalisation of Indian Politics

    6.1 Reorganisation of Indian States

    • Based on linguistic principle (1956, States Reorganisation Act).

    • Later states formed on ethnic, cultural, and economic bases — Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh (2000), Telangana (2014).

    6.2 States as Political and Economic Units

    • States have become important political actors — control development, welfare schemes, and attract investment.

    • Regional leaders (like Mamata Banerjee, Naveen Patnaik) play key roles nationally.

    6.3 Regional Disparities

    • Unequal economic growth caused demands for more states.

    • Backward regions seek autonomy for better governance.

    6.4 Demand for New States

    • Examples: Vidarbha (Maharashtra), Gorkhaland (West Bengal), Bodoland (Assam).

    🟢 7. Gender and Politics in India

    Issues of Equality and Representation

    • Constitution guarantees equality (Art. 14–16) and non-discrimination (Art. 15).

    • Yet, women face patriarchy, underrepresentation, violence, and economic inequality.

    Political Participation

    • Women’s representation in Lok Sabha ~15% (2024).

    • Women’s Reservation Bill (2023) ensures 33% reservation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (implementation pending delimitation).

    • Panchayati Raj Institutions (73rd & 74th Amendments) ensure 33% reservation for women at local level.

    Women’s Movements:

    • Focus on legal reforms (Dowry Prohibition, Domestic Violence Act).

    • Movements like Chipko Movement combined environment and women’s activism.

    🟢 8. Ideology and Social Basis of Political Parties

    National Parties

    Party Ideology Social Base
    Indian National Congress (INC) Secular, centrist, developmental Urban middle class, minorities
    Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) Hindu nationalism, right-wing Upper castes, middle class, urban voters
    Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) Social justice, Ambedkarite ideology Dalits, OBCs
    Communist Parties (CPI, CPI-M) Marxism, socialism Working class, farmers

    State Parties

    Operate within one or a few states; represent regional identity or local interests.
    Examples:

    • DMK (Tamil Nadu) – Tamil identity

    • TMC (West Bengal) – Bengali pride

    • BJD (Odisha) – regional development focus

    • AAP (Delhi, Punjab) – governance and anti-corruption

    🟢 9. Electoral Politics in India

    Participation

    • Involves voting, campaigning, membership, and activism.

    • Voter turnout has been increasing; women voters nearly equal to men.

    Contestation

    • Multiparty system ensures political competition.

    • Election Commission ensures free and fair elections.

    Representation

    • Elected representatives represent the people’s will.

    • Reservation for SCs, STs, and women (local level) ensures inclusivity.

    Emerging Trends

    • Rise of regional parties and coalition politics.

    • Use of digital media, social networking, and targeted campaigning.

    • Decline of single-party dominance.

    • Increase in youth and women participation.

    • Money and muscle power still influence elections.

    🟢 Summary Chart

    Theme Key Aspects
    Nature of State Welfare, interventionist, democratic
    Development Planning From central planning to NITI Aayog
    NEP 1991 LPG reforms, globalization
    Identity Politics Caste, religion, tribe, region
    Social Movements Dalit, tribal, women, farmers, labour
    Civil Society NGOs, non-party formations
    Regionalisation Reorganization, new states, regional parties
    Gender & Politics Equality, representation, reservation
    Political Parties Ideologies and social bases
    Electoral Politics Participation, trends, challenges

  • NET/PS/Unit-7/Political Institutions in India/MCQs

    🏛️ Section 1: Making of the Indian Constitution (1–10)

    1. The Indian Constitution was adopted on:
    A. 15 August 1947
    B. 26 January 1950
    C. 26 November 1949
    D. 2 October 1950
    ✅ Answer: C
    Explanation: The Constitution was adopted on 26 Nov 1949 and came into force on 26 Jan 1950.*

    2. The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) is associated with:
    A. The formation of Constituent Assembly
    B. The Indian Independence Act
    C. Simon Commission
    D. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
    ✅ Answer: A

    3. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
    A. B.R. Ambedkar
    B. Rajendra Prasad
    C. Jawaharlal Nehru
    D. Vallabhbhai Patel
    ✅ Answer: B

    4. The Drafting Committee was chaired by:
    A. B.N. Rau
    B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    C. B.R. Ambedkar
    D. Rajendra Prasad
    ✅ Answer: C

    5. The major source of the Indian Constitution is:
    A. Government of India Act, 1919
    B. Government of India Act, 1935
    C. Indian Councils Act, 1892
    D. Simon Commission Report
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: About 70% of the Constitution draws from the 1935 Act.*

    6. The Nehru Report (1928) was significant because it:
    A. Proposed partition
    B. Suggested dominion status and Fundamental Rights
    C. Ended dyarchy
    D. Introduced communal award
    ✅ Answer: B

    7. The Karachi Resolution (1931) dealt with:
    A. Economic justice and Fundamental Rights
    B. Federalism
    C. Defense policy
    D. Partition
    ✅ Answer: A

    8. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on:
    A. 26 Jan 1949
    B. 26 Nov 1949
    C. 15 Aug 1948
    D. 26 Jan 1951
    ✅ Answer: B

    9. The Constitution of India was influenced most by:
    A. The American Constitution
    B. The British Parliamentary System
    C. The French Constitution
    D. The Soviet Constitution
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: India adopted the parliamentary form and cabinet responsibility from Britain.*

    10. The Constituent Assembly was formed under the:
    A. Indian Independence Act
    B. Cabinet Mission Plan
    C. Mountbatten Plan
    D. Nehru Report
    ✅ Answer: B

    📜 Section 2: Philosophy of the Constitution (11–20)

    11. The Preamble declares India as:
    A. Democratic Republic
    B. Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
    C. Federal Union
    D. Secular Monarchy
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) added “Socialist” and “Secular.”*

    12. The Preamble was derived from:
    A. U.S. Constitution
    B. Irish Constitution
    C. French Constitution
    D. Soviet Constitution
    ✅ Answer: A

    13. The words “Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity” are borrowed from:
    A. French Revolution
    B. American Bill of Rights
    C. Irish Constitution
    D. Russian Revolution
    ✅ Answer: A

    14. Fundamental Rights are justiciable because:
    A. They can be enforced by courts
    B. They are only moral codes
    C. They depend on Directive Principles
    D. They can be changed by states
    ✅ Answer: A

    15. “Right to Constitutional Remedies” is given under:
    A. Article 19
    B. Article 32
    C. Article 14
    D. Article 35
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: Article 32 allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly.*

    16. Directive Principles of State Policy are inspired by the:
    A. U.S. Constitution
    B. Irish Constitution
    C. French Constitution
    D. Russian Constitution
    ✅ Answer: B

    17. Fundamental Duties were added by the:
    A. 42nd Amendment, 1976
    B. 44th Amendment, 1978
    C. 52nd Amendment, 1985
    D. 73rd Amendment, 1992
    ✅ Answer: A

    18. DPSPs are:
    A. Enforceable by courts
    B. Non-justiciable guidelines
    C. Fundamental Rights
    D. Customs
    ✅ Answer: B

    19. The Article describing India as a “Union of States” is:
    A. Article 1
    B. Article 2
    C. Article 3
    D. Article 5
    ✅ Answer: A

    20. “Article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution” — who said this?
    A. Nehru
    B. B.R. Ambedkar
    C. Rajendra Prasad
    D. Gandhi
    ✅ Answer: B

    ⚖️ Section 3: Constitutionalism and Amendments (21–30)

    21. The doctrine of “Basic Structure” was established in:
    A. Golaknath Case (1967)
    B. Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
    C. Minerva Mills Case (1980)
    D. Shankari Prasad Case (1951)
    ✅ Answer: B

    22. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is also known as:
    A. Gandhian Amendment
    B. Mini Constitution
    C. Judicial Amendment
    D. Federal Amendment
    ✅ Answer: B

    23. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored:
    A. Right to Property
    B. Balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs
    C. Emergency powers
    D. Presidential rule
    ✅ Answer: B

    24. Who can initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill?
    A. President
    B. Parliament only
    C. State Legislatures
    D. Judiciary
    ✅ Answer: B

    25. The amending procedure is laid down in:
    A. Article 352
    B. Article 368
    C. Article 320
    D. Article 360
    ✅ Answer: B

    26. The term “Rule of Law” implies:
    A. Supremacy of law
    B. Supremacy of Parliament
    C. Supremacy of Executive
    D. Supremacy of Judiciary
    ✅ Answer: A

    27. The idea of “Judicial Review” in India is borrowed from:
    A. USA
    B. UK
    C. Canada
    D. France
    ✅ Answer: A

    28. “Separation of powers” means:
    A. Division between Centre and States
    B. Division among Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary
    C. Division between rural and urban areas
    D. Division of economy
    ✅ Answer: B

    29. The Indian Constitution is:
    A. Unitary
    B. Federal with strong unitary bias
    C. Confederal
    D. Loose federation
    ✅ Answer: B

    30. The 73rd and 74th Amendments deal with:
    A. Education
    B. Local government
    C. Judiciary
    D. Election reforms
    ✅ Answer: B

    🏢 Section 4: Executive & Legislature (31–45)

    31. The President of India is elected by:
    A. Direct vote
    B. Parliament only
    C. Electoral College (MPs + MLAs)
    D. Lok Sabha only
    ✅ Answer: C

    32. The real executive authority in India is:
    A. President
    B. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
    C. Parliament
    D. Judiciary
    ✅ Answer: B

    33. The President’s tenure is:
    A. 4 years
    B. 5 years
    C. 6 years
    D. 7 years
    ✅ Answer: B

    34. The Prime Minister is appointed by:
    A. Lok Sabha
    B. President
    C. Supreme Court
    D. Rajya Sabha
    ✅ Answer: B

    35. Collective responsibility of ministers means:
    A. All ministers are individually accountable
    B. All ministers are jointly accountable to Lok Sabha
    C. Only PM is accountable
    D. Judiciary is accountable
    ✅ Answer: B

    36. Money Bills can be introduced only in:
    A. Rajya Sabha
    B. Lok Sabha
    C. State Legislature
    D. Both Houses
    ✅ Answer: B

    37. The Parliament of India is:
    A. Unicameral
    B. Bicameral
    C. Federal Council
    D. Constitutional Convention
    ✅ Answer: B

    38. The Rajya Sabha is a:
    A. Permanent House
    B. Dissolvable House
    C. Temporary House
    D. Advisory Body
    ✅ Answer: A

    39. Parliamentary Committees ensure:
    A. Public accountability
    B. Judicial independence
    C. Executive privilege
    D. Party politics
    ✅ Answer: A

    40. The Public Accounts Committee is headed by:
    A. Prime Minister
    B. Finance Minister
    C. Speaker
    D. Member of Opposition
    ✅ Answer: D

    41. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by:
    A. Rajya Sabha
    B. Parliament
    C. Members of Lok Sabha
    D. Electoral College
    ✅ Answer: C

    42. The term of Lok Sabha is:
    A. 4 years
    B. 5 years
    C. 6 years
    D. 7 years
    ✅ Answer: B

    43. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
    A. 500
    B. 545
    C. 552
    D. 560
    ✅ Answer: C

    44. The President can dissolve:
    A. Rajya Sabha
    B. Lok Sabha
    C. Both Houses
    D. State Legislatures only
    ✅ Answer: B

    45. “Question Hour” is meant for:
    A. Passing bills
    B. Asking questions to government
    C. Judicial matters
    D. Budget discussion
    ✅ Answer: B

    ⚖️ Section 5: Judiciary & Federalism (46–60)

    46. The Supreme Court was established in:
    A. 1947
    B. 1950
    C. 1952
    D. 1962
    ✅ Answer: B

    47. Judicial Review ensures:
    A. Legislative supremacy
    B. Constitutional supremacy
    C. Executive authority
    D. Popular sovereignty
    ✅ Answer: B

    48. Judicial activism in India expanded mainly through:
    A. PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
    B. Constitutional Amendments
    C. Legislature
    D. Media
    ✅ Answer: A

    49. The High Court judges are appointed by:
    A. Chief Justice of India
    B. Governor
    C. President
    D. Prime Minister
    ✅ Answer: C

    50. Inter-State Council is provided under:
    A. Article 256
    B. Article 263
    C. Article 370
    D. Article 280
    ✅ Answer: B

    51. Finance Commission is constituted every:
    A. 3 years
    B. 5 years
    C. 7 years
    D. 10 years
    ✅ Answer: B

    52. GST Council promotes:
    A. Fiscal federalism
    B. Judicial review
    C. Cooperative federalism
    D. Emergency powers
    ✅ Answer: C

    53. “Quasi-federal” character of India means:
    A. Equal powers for all
    B. Federal structure with strong Centre
    C. Unitary state
    D. Presidential system
    ✅ Answer: B

    54. The Governor acts as:
    A. Nominal Head of State
    B. Real Head
    C. Federal judge
    D. Speaker
    ✅ Answer: A

    55. Chief Minister is appointed by:
    A. Governor
    B. Prime Minister
    C. President
    D. Legislative Council
    ✅ Answer: A

    56. Article 370 dealt with:
    A. Jammu & Kashmir’s special status
    B. Finance Commission
    C. Panchayati Raj
    D. President’s rule
    ✅ Answer: A

    57. NITI Aayog promotes:
    A. Planning and cooperative federalism
    B. Finance Commission’s role
    C. Judicial activism
    D. Political party coordination
    ✅ Answer: A

    58. In case of conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent subject:
    A. State law prevails
    B. Union law prevails
    C. Judiciary decides
    D. None
    ✅ Answer: B

    59. The doctrine of “basic structure” was reaffirmed in:
    A. Golaknath
    B. Minerva Mills (1980)
    C. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
    D. Shankari Prasad
    ✅ Answer: B

    60. Zonal Councils were created under:
    A. 42nd Amendment
    B. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
    C. Constitution itself
    D. NITI Aayog
    ✅ Answer: B

    🗳️ Section 6: Elections, Local Government & Commissions (61–70)

    61. Election Commission is established under:
    A. Article 320
    B. Article 324
    C. Article 326
    D. Article 328
    ✅ Answer: B

    62. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
    A. President
    B. Parliament
    C. Prime Minister
    D. Supreme Court
    ✅ Answer: A

    63. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted by:
    A. 42nd Amendment
    B. 44th Amendment
    C. 52nd Amendment (1985)
    D. 73rd Amendment
    ✅ Answer: C

    64. NOTA was introduced in:
    A. 2009
    B. 2013
    C. 2015
    D. 2019
    ✅ Answer: B

    65. Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized by:
    A. 42nd Amendment
    B. 52nd Amendment
    C. 73rd Amendment
    D. 74th Amendment
    ✅ Answer: C

    66. Urban Local Bodies are governed by:
    A. 73rd Amendment
    B. 74th Amendment
    C. 76th Amendment
    D. 80th Amendment
    ✅ Answer: B

    67. CAG of India audits:
    A. Private accounts
    B. Government expenditure
    C. Banks only
    D. RBI
    ✅ Answer: B

    68. NHRC was established in:
    A. 1990
    B. 1993
    C. 1995
    D. 2000
    ✅ Answer: B

    69. The National Commission for SCs is mentioned in:
    A. Article 330
    B. Article 338
    C. Article 340
    D. Article 342
    ✅ Answer: B

    70. The National Commission for Women was established in:
    A. 1992
    B. 1994
    C. 1998
    D. 2002
    ✅ Answer: A

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-7 Political Institutions in India

    🏛️ I. Making of the Indian Constitution

    1️⃣ Colonial Legacy

    • India’s Constitution did not emerge in a vacuum — it evolved through colonial constitutional developments.

    • Major British Acts influenced the structure and ideas of the Indian Constitution:

    Act Contribution
    Regulating Act (1773) First step in British administrative control.
    Charter Acts (1833, 1853) Introduced centralization and legislative councils.
    Indian Councils Acts (1861, 1892, 1909) Began Indian participation in legislation.
    Government of India Act (1919) Introduced dyarchy (division of powers) at provincial level.
    Government of India Act (1935) Provided federal structure, provincial autonomy — major source of Indian Constitution.

    ➡️ The 1935 Act served as the “blueprint” — about 70% of the Indian Constitution was borrowed from it.

    2️⃣ Contribution of the Indian National Movement

    • The freedom struggle shaped India’s constitutional vision:

      • Commitment to democracy, civil liberties, equality, and self-rule.

      • Documents like:

        • Nehru Report (1928): First attempt to draft a constitution by Indians.

        • Karachi Resolution (1931): Fundamental Rights and Economic Justice.

      • The National Movement envisioned a sovereign, democratic, and inclusive India.

    🧩 II. Constituent Assembly of India

    1️⃣ Composition

    • Formed in December 1946 under Cabinet Mission Plan.

    • Total Members: 389 (292 from provinces, 93 from princely states, 4 from chief commissioner provinces).

    • Chairman: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    • Drafting Committee Chairman: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

    • Key Members: Nehru, Patel, Azad, Krishnaswami Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Hansa Mehta.

    2️⃣ Ideological Moorings

    • Inspired by liberal democracy, social justice, and national integration.

    • Influences: Western liberalism + Indian nationalism + Gandhian ideals.

    3️⃣ Constitutional Debates

    • Fundamental Rights: Dispute over preventive detention and limitations.

    • Federalism: Debate over strong Centre vs. State autonomy.

    • Language Issue: Hindi adopted as official language (compromise formula).

    • Secularism: Equal respect for all religions.

    ➡️ Adopted: 26 November 1949
    ➡️ Enforced: 26 January 1950

    📜 III. Philosophy of the Constitution

    1️⃣ Preamble

    • The “soul of the Constitution” (Nehru’s Objectives Resolution, 1946).

    • Declares India as: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.

    • Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity are core values.

    • 42nd Amendment (1976) added Socialist and Secular.

    2️⃣ Fundamental Rights (Part III)

    • Inspired by U.S. Bill of Rights.

    • Articles 12–35 guarantee civil and political freedoms.

    Category    Articles
    Right to Equality 14–18
    Right to Freedom 19–22
    Right against Exploitation 23–24
    Right to Freedom of Religion 25–28
    Cultural and Educational Rights  29–30
    Right to Constitutional Remedies   32

    ➡️ Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.

    3️⃣ Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Arts. 36–51)

    • Inspired by Irish Constitution.

    • Non-justiciable guidelines to promote socio-economic justice.

    • Examples:

      • Equal pay for equal work (Art. 39).

      • Promotion of education (Art. 45).

      • Protection of environment (Art. 48A).

      • Panchayati Raj (Art. 40).

    4️⃣ Relationship Between FRs and DPSPs

    • FRs ensure political democracy,

    • DPSPs aim for social and economic democracy.

    • Landmark case: Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) – both are complementary.

    ⚖️ IV. Constitutionalism in India

    1️⃣ Democracy and Social Change

    • India’s constitutional democracy promotes:

      • Political participation (universal adult franchise).

      • Social justice (affirmative action for SCs, STs, OBCs).

      • Secularism and equality.

    2️⃣ National Unity

    • Federal but unitary in emergencies.

    • Common citizenship and single Constitution promote integration.

    3️⃣ Checks and Balances

    • Separation of powers between Executive, Legislature, Judiciary.

    • Instruments: Judicial review, Parliamentary control, Presidential assent.

    4️⃣ Basic Structure Doctrine

    • Evolved in Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973).

    • Parliament can amend Constitution but cannot alter its basic structure.

    • Basic features include:

      • Supremacy of the Constitution

      • Rule of Law

      • Judicial Review

      • Separation of Powers

      • Federalism

      • Secularism

      • Parliamentary democracy

    5️⃣ Constitutional Amendments

    • Article 368 empowers Parliament to amend.

    • Types:

      • Simple majority (Art. 5, 239A)

      • Special majority (most provisions)

      • Special + State ratification (federal provisions)

    • Major Amendments:

      • 42nd (1976): “Mini Constitution” – added Socialist, Secular, Fundamental Duties.

      • 44th (1978): Restored democratic balance post-Emergency.

      • 73rd & 74th (1992): Panchayati Raj & Urban Local Bodies.

    🏢 V. Union Executive

    1️⃣ The President (Articles 52–78)

    • Nominal head of state; Executive power vested in him.

    • Elected indirectly by Electoral College (MPs + MLAs).

    • Tenure: 5 years; eligible for re-election.

    • Powers:

      • Legislative: Summons Parliament, gives assent to bills.

      • Executive: Appoints PM, Governors, judges, etc.

      • Diplomatic: Represents India abroad.

      • Judicial: Pardoning powers (Art. 72).

      • Emergency Powers (Art. 352–360).

    2️⃣ Prime Minister & Council of Ministers

    • Real executive authority.

    • PM = Head of government, leader of majority in Lok Sabha.

    • Collective responsibility (Art. 75).

    • Cabinet = Core decision-making body.

    • PM advises President on all key appointments and dissolutions.

    🏛️ VI. Union Parliament

    1️⃣ Structure

    • Bicameral: Lok Sabha (House of People) + Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

    • Lok Sabha: Directly elected (5-year term).

    • Rajya Sabha: Permanent (1/3rd retire every 2 years).

    2️⃣ Role & Functions

    • Legislative: Makes laws on Union & Concurrent Lists.

    • Financial: Budget and Money Bills.

    • Executive control: No-confidence motion, question hour.

    • Constitutional: Amendments, impeachment.

    • Electoral: Elects President & Vice-President.

    3️⃣ Parliamentary Committees

    • Ensure accountability and efficiency.

    • Types:

      • Standing Committees: Public Accounts Committee (PAC), Estimates, Committee on Public Undertakings.

      • Ad hoc Committees: Formed for specific purposes.

    • PAC (headed by Opposition) scrutinizes government expenditure.

    ⚖️ VII. Judiciary in India

    1️⃣ Supreme Court

    • Articles 124–147; Chief Justice + other judges (appointed by President).

    • Jurisdiction:

      • Original: Centre–State disputes.

      • Appellate: Appeals from High Courts.

      • Advisory: Presidential references (Art. 143).

    • Judicial Review: Authority to declare laws unconstitutional.

    • Judicial Activism: Expanded through PIL (Public Interest Litigation).

    • Judicial Reforms: Collegium system, Lok Adalats, e-courts.

    2️⃣ High Courts & Subordinate Judiciary

    • Each state has a High Court (Articles 214–231).

    • Control over district and subordinate courts.

    • Ensures uniform justice and federal coherence.

    🏙️ VIII. Executive and Legislature in the States

    Institution Description
    Governor Constitutional head; appointed by President; holds office during President’s pleasure.
    Chief Minister Real executive; leader of state legislature’s majority party.
    State Legislature Unicameral (majority) or bicameral (few states).
    Legislative Council Upper House in some states (like Rajya Sabha).

    🇮🇳 IX. Federalism in India

    1️⃣ Nature of Indian Federalism

    • Quasi-federal – combination of federal and unitary features.

      • Federal: Division of powers, dual polity, independent judiciary.

      • Unitary: Strong Centre, emergency powers, single Constitution.

    2️⃣ Asymmetrical Federalism

    • Special provisions for certain states (Articles 370, 371–371J).

    • Designed to accommodate diversity.

    3️⃣ Intergovernmental Coordination

    • Inter-State Council (Art. 263): Coordination between Centre and States.

    • Finance Commission (Art. 280): Distribution of revenues.

    • NITI Aayog: Cooperative federalism and policy planning.

    4️⃣ Emerging Trends

    • Rise of coalition politics → bargaining federalism.

    • GST Council (2017) → cooperative fiscal federalism.

    • Demand for greater state autonomy.

    🗳️ X. Electoral Process and Election Commission of India

    1️⃣ Election Commission (Art. 324)

    • Independent constitutional body.

    • Composition: Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) + 2 Commissioners.

    • Functions:

      • Conducts free and fair elections for President, Parliament, State Assemblies.

      • Issues Model Code of Conduct.

      • Oversees political party recognition and symbols.

    2️⃣ Electoral Reforms

    • T.N. Seshan’s reforms: Strengthened EC independence.

    • 91st Amendment (2003): Limited size of ministries.

    • Anti-Defection Law (1985, 10th Schedule).

    • NOTA (2013).

    • Ongoing demands: state funding of elections, simultaneous polls, curbing criminalization.

    🏡 XI. Local Government Institutions

    1️⃣ Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment, 1992)

    • Three-tier structure:

      • Gram Panchayat → Block Samiti → Zila Parishad.

    • Constitutional Status: Part IX (Art. 243–243O).

    • Reserved seats for women (33%) and SC/STs.

    2️⃣ Urban Local Bodies (74th Amendment, 1992)

    • Municipalities, Corporations, Nagar Panchayats.

    • 12th Schedule: Lists 18 functions (urban planning, sanitation, water supply, etc.).

    🧾 XII. Constitutional and Statutory Bodies

    Institution Role
    Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) Audits government accounts; guardian of public purse.
    National Commission for SCs (Art. 338) Safeguards Scheduled Castes’ interests.
    National Commission for STs (Art. 338A) Protects Scheduled Tribes’ rights.
    National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Enforces protection of human rights (est. 1993).
    National Commission for Women (NCW) Works for women’s rights and empowerment.
    National Commission for Minorities (NCM) Ensures protection of religious and linguistic minorities.

    🧩 Summary Table

    Theme Key Focus Example
    Constitution Making Colonial + Nationalist legacy 1935 Act, Nehru Report
    Constituent Assembly Debates & Ideals Ambedkar, Nehru
    Philosophy FRs, DPSPs, Preamble Justice, Equality, Fraternity
    Constitutionalism Basic Structure, Democracy Kesavananda Case
    Executive President & PM Cabinet System
    Parliament Lok Sabha & Committees PAC
    Judiciary SC, Judicial Review PIL
    Federalism Strong Centre + Coordination GST Council
    Elections ECI, Reforms NOTA, MCC
    Local Govt 73rd & 74th Amendments Panchayati Raj
    Statutory Bodies Accountability NHRC, NCW, CAG

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-6 India’s Foreign Policy MCQs

    Section 1: Perspectives on India’s Foreign Policy (1–15)

    1. The basic objective of India’s foreign policy after independence was:
    A. Joining Western alliances
    B. Gaining colonial territories
    C. Preserving independence and promoting peace
    D. Expanding military bases
    ✅ Answer: C
    Explanation: India aimed for peace, sovereignty, and non-alignment after centuries of colonial rule.*

    2. India’s foreign policy after 1947 was deeply shaped by:
    A. Its colonial experience
    B. Its monarchy
    C. Its military power
    D. Its population
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s postcolonial identity influenced its emphasis on sovereignty, equality, and anti-imperialism.*

    3. “Strategic Autonomy” in India’s foreign policy means:
    A. Isolation from global affairs
    B. Dependence on superpowers
    C. Independent decision-making without bloc politics
    D. Permanent alignment with USA
    ✅ Answer: C

    4. India’s focus on economic diplomacy after 1991 is due to:
    A. Industrial stagnation
    B. Economic liberalization and globalization
    C. Military defeat
    D. Colonial rule
    ✅ Answer: B

    5. India’s foreign policy combines idealism with:
    A. Realism and pragmatism
    B. Isolationism
    C. Militarism
    D. Religious diplomacy
    ✅ Answer: A

    6. The term “postcolonial foreign policy” refers to:
    A. Relations after World War II
    B. Foreign policy of newly decolonized states
    C. Colonial diplomacy
    D. Pre-war negotiations
    ✅ Answer: B

    7. India’s identity as a “rising power” is reflected in:
    A. NAM only
    B. Active participation in BRICS, G-20, and SCO
    C. Isolationist policies
    D. Dependence on aid
    ✅ Answer: B

    8. South–South Cooperation refers to:
    A. North–South dialogue
    B. Cooperation among developing nations
    C. Cold War alliances
    D. UN reforms
    ✅ Answer: B

    9. India’s approach to global issues since 1990s can best be described as:
    A. Defensive
    B. Pragmatic multilateralism
    C. Isolationism
    D. Military expansionism
    ✅ Answer: B

    10. India’s post-1991 foreign policy increasingly linked diplomacy with:
    A. Spiritual goals
    B. Economic interests and market access
    C. Cultural revival
    D. Population control
    ✅ Answer: B

    11. The concept of “Vishwa Guru” in India’s diplomacy highlights:
    A. Cultural dominance
    B. India’s global moral and spiritual leadership
    C. Military leadership
    D. Technological superiority
    ✅ Answer: B

    12. India’s foreign policy after independence was largely formulated by:
    A. Mahatma Gandhi
    B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    C. Sardar Patel
    D. Rajendra Prasad
    ✅ Answer: B

    13. Economic reforms of 1991 led to:
    A. Isolation from global economy
    B. Stronger global engagement and foreign investment
    C. Military alliances
    D. Withdrawal from WTO
    ✅ Answer: B

    14. India’s postcolonial diplomacy emphasized:
    A. Anti-imperialism and peaceful coexistence
    B. Colonial expansion
    C. Arms race
    D. Regional dominance
    ✅ Answer: A

    15. India’s participation in UN peacekeeping operations reflects:
    A. Expansionism
    B. Commitment to collective security and peace
    C. Alliance-building
    D. Nationalistic isolation
    ✅ Answer: B

    ☮️ Section 2: Principles, Determinants & NAM (16–25)

    16. The “Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence” are known as:
    A. Panchsheel
    B. NAM principles
    C. Gandhian Diplomacy
    D. Global Charter
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: Formulated in 1954 by Nehru and Zhou Enlai.*

    17. Which of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel?
    A. Mutual respect for sovereignty
    B. Peaceful coexistence
    C. Mutual non-aggression
    D. Economic dependence
    ✅ Answer: D

    18. India’s Non-Aligned policy was aimed at:
    A. Isolation
    B. Avoiding Cold War blocs while promoting peace
    C. Joining NATO
    D. Supporting USSR
    ✅ Answer: B

    19. The first NAM Summit was held in:
    A. New Delhi
    B. Belgrade
    C. Cairo
    D. Jakarta
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: 1961 Belgrade Summit; leaders: Nehru, Tito, Nasser.*

    20. “Non-Alignment does not mean neutrality” — this was stated by:
    A. Nehru
    B. Krishna Menon
    C. Indira Gandhi
    D. Rajiv Gandhi
    ✅ Answer: A

    21. The historical context for NAM was:
    A. End of colonialism and rise of Cold War
    B. World War II alliances
    C. European integration
    D. Economic liberalization
    ✅ Answer: A

    22. Relevance of NAM today lies in:
    A. Supporting bipolar world
    B. Promoting multipolar, cooperative order
    C. Cold War ideology
    D. Political isolation
    ✅ Answer: B

    23. “Non-Alignment 2.0” (2012 report) emphasized:
    A. Complete neutrality
    B. India’s role as a responsible power balancing autonomy and engagement
    C. Withdrawal from global institutions
    D. Military alliance with Russia
    ✅ Answer: B

    24. Determinants of India’s foreign policy include all except:
    A. Geography
    B. Leadership
    C. Astrology
    D. Economy
    ✅ Answer: C

    25. The architect of India’s foreign policy was:
    A. Indira Gandhi
    B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    C. Rajiv Gandhi
    D. Vallabhbhai Patel
    ✅ Answer: B

    ☢️ Section 3: Nuclear Policy & Strategic Issues (26–35)

    26. India’s first nuclear test was conducted in:
    A. 1964
    B. 1974
    C. 1998
    D. 2001
    ✅ Answer: B
    Explanation: Pokhran-I (1974) under Indira Gandhi, termed “Peaceful Nuclear Explosion.”*

    27. Pokhran-II nuclear tests were conducted under:
    A. Indira Gandhi
    B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    C. Rajiv Gandhi
    D. Manmohan Singh
    ✅ Answer: B

    28. India’s nuclear doctrine is based on:
    A. First-use policy
    B. No-First-Use and Credible Minimum Deterrence
    C. Total disarmament
    D. Aggressive expansionism
    ✅ Answer: B

    29. India refused to sign the NPT because:
    A. It was discriminatory between nuclear and non-nuclear states
    B. It restricted civil nuclear energy
    C. It banned exports
    D. It was against NAM
    ✅ Answer: A

    30. India’s civil nuclear deal with the USA was signed in:
    A. 2000
    B. 2005
    C. 2008
    D. 2010
    ✅ Answer: C

    31. Which agreement established Panchsheel between India and China?
    A. 1954 Trade Agreement on Tibet
    B. 1962 Peace Pact
    C. 1971 Friendship Treaty
    D. 1988 Summit
    ✅ Answer: A

    32. “Nuclear India” became official in:
    A. 1962
    B. 1974
    C. 1998
    D. 2005
    ✅ Answer: C

    33. India’s “No First Use” policy implies:
    A. First strike on enemy
    B. Use only in retaliation to nuclear attack
    C. Disarmament
    D. None
    ✅ Answer: B

    34. Which Indian Prime Minister described nuclear weapons as “weapons of peace”?
    A. Nehru
    B. Indira Gandhi
    C. Vajpayee
    D. Manmohan Singh
    ✅ Answer: C

    35. India’s “credible minimum deterrence” means:
    A. Maximum stockpile
    B. Minimum number of nuclear weapons sufficient for deterrence
    C. No deterrence
    D. Use of chemical weapons
    ✅ Answer: B

    🌏 Section 4: Relations with Major Powers & Multipolar World (36–50)

    36. The Indo–Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was signed in:
    A. 1965
    B. 1971
    C. 1975
    D. 1980
    ✅ Answer: B

    37. During the 1971 Bangladesh War, which country supported India?
    A. USA
    B. USSR
    C. China
    D. UK
    ✅ Answer: B

    38. India’s Act East Policy aims primarily at:
    A. Africa
    B. Southeast Asia and Indo-Pacific
    C. Europe
    D. Latin America
    ✅ Answer: B

    39. India’s “Look East Policy” was launched by:
    A. Nehru
    B. Indira Gandhi
    C. P. V. Narasimha Rao
    D. Vajpayee
    ✅ Answer: C

    40. The “Gujral Doctrine” is based on:
    A. Nuclear cooperation
    B. Unilateral goodwill towards neighbours
    C. Strategic autonomy
    D. Military alliances
    ✅ Answer: B

    41. SAARC was established in:
    A. 1965
    B. 1971
    C. 1985
    D. 1991
    ✅ Answer: C

    42. Which country is not a member of SAARC?
    A. Myanmar
    B. Bhutan
    C. Nepal
    D. Maldives
    ✅ Answer: A

    43. The main obstacle in SAARC’s functioning has been:
    A. India–Pakistan conflict
    B. Economic disparities
    C. Geographical distance
    D. Cultural differences
    ✅ Answer: A

    44. BRICS represents:
    A. Developed economies
    B. Emerging economies
    C. Military bloc
    D. Trade union
    ✅ Answer: B

    45. SCO was founded to promote:
    A. Security and anti-terrorism cooperation in Eurasia
    B. Climate control
    C. Education exchange
    D. Tourism
    ✅ Answer: A

    46. India joined SCO in:
    A. 2000
    B. 2010
    C. 2017
    D. 2020
    ✅ Answer: C

    47. India’s partnership with the USA has strengthened through:
    A. Nuclear deal, QUAD, defense cooperation
    B. Cold War alliance
    C. Isolationism
    D. Disarmament
    ✅ Answer: A

    48. India–Russia cooperation includes:
    A. BrahMos missile project
    B. SAARC security pact
    C. Arctic treaty
    D. Climate finance
    ✅ Answer: A

    49. The EU is India’s:
    A. Smallest trade partner
    B. Largest regional trading partner
    C. Political rival
    D. Aid donor
    ✅ Answer: B

    50. India’s ties with GCC focus on:
    A. Defense manufacturing
    B. Energy security and diaspora welfare
    C. Political expansion
    D. Technology export
    ✅ Answer: B

    🏛️ Section 5: India in International Regimes (51–60)

    51. India advocates reform of:
    A. UN Security Council
    B. UNESCO
    C. ILO
    D. WHO
    ✅ Answer: A

    52. India is part of the G-4 group with:
    A. Japan, Germany, Brazil
    B. China, USA, Russia
    C. South Africa, France, UK
    D. Mexico, Canada, Australia
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: G4 supports mutual candidatures for permanent UNSC membership.*

    53. India’s negotiation strategy in WTO focuses on:
    A. Free trade for all
    B. Protecting farmers and food security
    C. Supporting Western trade rules
    D. Eliminating subsidies
    ✅ Answer: B

    54. In IMF, India demands:
    A. Reduction in voting rights
    B. Greater representation for developing countries
    C. Withdrawal from membership
    D. More aid from US
    ✅ Answer: B

    55. India’s stance in climate negotiations emphasizes:
    A. Equal responsibility for all nations
    B. Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR)
    C. Exemption from obligations
    D. No cooperation
    ✅ Answer: B

    56. The Paris Agreement (2015) India committed to:
    A. Zero emissions by 2030
    B. Reducing carbon intensity and promoting renewables
    C. Complete withdrawal
    D. Coal-only policy
    ✅ Answer: B

    57. India’s International Solar Alliance (ISA) promotes:
    A. Nuclear power
    B. Solar energy cooperation among tropical countries
    C. Wind energy
    D. Coal export
    ✅ Answer: B

    58. India’s major role in UN peacekeeping reflects its:
    A. Colonial legacy
    B. Commitment to global peace
    C. Expansionist policy
    D. Regional dominance
    ✅ Answer: B

    59. India’s WTO position represents:
    A. Developed nations’ interest
    B. Developing nations and food security
    C. Isolationism
    D. Western trade blocs
    ✅ Answer: B

    60. India’s approach to global institutions is best described as:
    A. Reformist and cooperative
    B. Revolutionary
    C. Isolationist
    D. Passive
    ✅ Answer: A

     Section 6: Contemporary Challenges (61–70)

    61. India’s “SAGAR” initiative stands for:
    A. South Asian Growth and Research
    B. Security and Growth for All in the Region
    C. Sea and Global Alliance for Reform
    D. South Asia Green Action Report
    ✅ Answer: B

    62. “Blue Economy” in India’s diplomacy refers to:
    A. Space exploration
    B. Sustainable ocean resource use
    C. Tourism
    D. Water pollution
    ✅ Answer: B

    63. India’s major source of crude oil imports is:
    A. Europe
    B. Middle East (Gulf)
    C. East Asia
    D. North America
    ✅ Answer: B

    64. Cyber security is vital because:
    A. India’s economy depends on digital infrastructure
    B. It reduces taxes
    C. It controls pollution
    D. It replaces diplomacy
    ✅ Answer: A

    65. India’s main concern in Indian Ocean is:
    A. Piracy and Chinese naval presence
    B. Earthquakes
    C. Tourism
    D. Fishing zones
    ✅ Answer: A

    66. India’s refugee policy is guided by:
    A. UN conventions only
    B. Humanitarian traditions and ad hoc decisions
    C. NATO directives
    D. Constitutional obligation
    ✅ Answer: B

    67. Indus Water Treaty (1960) was signed between:
    A. India and Bangladesh
    B. India and Pakistan
    C. India and China
    D. India and Nepal
    ✅ Answer: B

    68. India’s counterterrorism diplomacy focuses on:
    A. Bilateralism
    B. UN Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT)
    C. Sanctions
    D. Non-interference
    ✅ Answer: B

    69. Energy security is vital for India because:
    A. India imports over 80% of crude oil
    B. India exports oil
    C. India is fully renewable
    D. Oil prices are fixed
    ✅ Answer: A

    70. India’s growing participation in QUAD, G20, and BRICS signifies:
    A. Shift from non-alignment to multialignment
    B. Isolation
    C. Colonial dependence
    D. Neutrality
    ✅ Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s foreign policy today is “issue-based multialignment,” balancing multiple partners.*

  • UGC NET Political Science Unit-6 India’s Foreign Policy

    I. Perspectives on India’s Foreign Policy

    India’s foreign policy reflects its unique history, culture, geography, and global aspirations.
    It has evolved from postcolonial idealism to pragmatic engagement with the global economy and power politics.

    1️⃣ India as a Postcolonial State

    • After independence (1947), India emerged from centuries of British colonial rule.

    • It sought strategic autonomy — freedom from domination by any major power bloc.

    • India emphasized anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, and equality among nations.

    • This was visible in:

      • Support for decolonization movements in Asia and Africa.

      • Opposition to apartheid in South Africa.

      • Advocacy of Non-Alignment in the Cold War.

    Key Idea: India’s foreign policy is rooted in the colonial experience and a desire to maintain independence in global affairs.

    2️⃣ India as a Developing Nation

    • India’s main challenge after independence was economic underdevelopment.

    • Hence, foreign policy was linked to developmental goals:

      • Seeking foreign aid and technology without compromising sovereignty.

      • Promoting South–South cooperation with other developing countries.

      • Participating in the Group of 77 (G-77) for equitable global economic order.

    Core principle: Economic growth and social justice are integral to external relations.

    3️⃣ India as a Rising Power

    • In the 21st century, India is recognized as a rising power due to:

      • Rapid economic growth (world’s 5th largest economy).

      • Technological and defense advancements.

      • Global leadership roles (e.g., G-20, BRICS, UN peacekeeping).

    • India now aims to shape global rules rather than just follow them.

    Example: India’s leadership in International Solar Alliance (ISA) and Voice of Global South Summit (2023).

    4️⃣ India as an Emerging Political Economy

    • Economic liberalization (1991) transformed India’s foreign relations.

    • Shift from inward-looking to open, globalized economy.

    • Priorities now include:

      • Attracting investment.

      • Expanding exports.

      • Securing energy and technology.

      • Engaging with global markets (WTO, IMF, World Bank).

    Key concept: India’s diplomacy today balances economic interests with strategic partnerships.

    🇮🇳 II. Continuity and Change in India’s Foreign Policy

    1️⃣ Basic Principles (Continuity)

    Articulated by Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister:

    Principle Explanation
    Panchsheel (1954) Five principles of peaceful coexistence — mutual respect, non-interference, equality, mutual benefit, peaceful coexistence.
    Non-alignment Avoiding military alliances during the Cold War.
    Anti-colonialism & Anti-racism Support for liberation and equality movements.
    Peaceful coexistence Settlement of disputes through diplomacy.
    International law & UN Charter Commitment to rule-based international order.

    These principles continue to guide India, though interpreted pragmatically today.

    2️⃣ Determinants of India’s Foreign Policy

    India’s foreign policy decisions are influenced by:

    Determinant Description
    Geography Shared borders with China, Pakistan, and Indian Ocean location make security vital.
    History Colonial legacy and nonalignment mindset.
    Political system Democracy emphasizes public opinion and soft power.
    Economic interests Trade, technology, investment priorities.
    Leadership Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Vajpayee, Manmohan Singh, and Modi shaped key directions.
    International environment Cold War, globalization, U.S.-China rivalry.

    ☮️ III. Non-Alignment Movement (NAM)

    1️⃣ Historical Background

    • Emerged during the Cold War when the world was divided into:

      • Western bloc (U.S.-led)

      • Eastern bloc (Soviet-led)

    • India, under Nehru, chose an independent path — neither joining NATO nor the Soviet bloc.

    • NAM officially founded in 1961 (Belgrade Summit) by Nehru (India), Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Sukarno (Indonesia), Nkrumah (Ghana).

    2️⃣ Objectives of NAM

    • Preserve independence and sovereignty.

    • Promote peace, disarmament, and development.

    • Oppose colonialism and racism.

    • Support South–South cooperation.

    3️⃣ Relevance Today

    • NAM still represents strategic autonomy and multipolar cooperation.

    • India uses NAM as a platform for:

      • Climate justice

      • Reforming global institutions

      • Protecting developing nations’ interests.

    Contemporary meaning: “Issue-based alignment” — India engages flexibly, not rigidly non-aligned.

    ☢️ IV. India’s Nuclear Policy

    • India adopted a No First Use (NFU) policy — will not use nuclear weapons unless attacked first.

    • Peaceful Nuclear Explosion (1974) at Pokhran under Indira Gandhi.

    • Nuclear tests (1998) under Atal Bihari Vajpayee → declared India a nuclear weapons state.

    • Doctrine: Credible Minimum Deterrence + NFU.

    • India refuses to sign NPT and CTBT citing discriminatory nature.

    India’s goal: Nuclear capability for deterrence, not aggression.

    🌏 V. India’s Relations with Major Powers

    1️⃣ India–USA Relations

    • Strained during Cold War (India–USSR closeness, U.S.–Pakistan alliance).

    • Improved after 1991 economic reforms and end of Cold War.

    • Key developments:

      • Nuclear deal (2008) – recognized India’s nuclear status.

      • QUAD partnership (India–U.S.–Japan–Australia).

      • Cooperation in defense (COMCASA, LEMOA), technology, and climate.

    Current Status: Strategic partnership focusing on Indo-Pacific stability and countering China.

    2️⃣ India–USSR / Russia Relations

    • Historic friendship during Cold War; USSR supported India in 1971 war (Bangladesh liberation).

    • Post-Soviet era: Russia remains key defense partner.

    • Joint ventures: BrahMos missile, nuclear submarines, energy cooperation.

    • Despite India’s U.S. engagement, Russia remains a trusted partner.

    3️⃣ India–China Relations

    • Initially friendly under Panchsheel (1954) → later tension over Tibet and borders.

    • 1962 War: major setback.

    • Recent issues: Doklam (2017), Galwan Valley clash (2020).

    • Trade remains strong, but strategic distrust persists.

    • India balances China through QUAD, Indo-Pacific strategy, and ties with ASEAN.

    🌐 VI. India’s Engagement with a Multipolar World

    1️⃣ India–European Union (EU)

    • Major trade and investment partner.

    • Cooperation on climate change, digitalization, and global governance.

    • Negotiating Free Trade Agreement (FTA).

    2️⃣ BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa)

    • Focus on multipolarity, development, financial reform.

    • Created New Development Bank (NDB).

    • India uses BRICS for South–South solidarity.

    3️⃣ ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations)

    • Key partner in India’s Act East Policy.

    • Cooperation in trade, connectivity, and maritime security.

    • Example: India–ASEAN Free Trade Agreement (2009).

    4️⃣ Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

    • India joined in 2017 with Pakistan.

    • Platform for cooperation with China, Russia, Central Asia on terrorism and energy.

    5️⃣ African Union (AU) & SADC

    • Focus on capacity building, trade, and development projects.

    • India–Africa Forum Summits strengthen South–South partnership.

    6️⃣ Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)

    • Economic ties: energy imports, remittances from Indian diaspora.

    • Strategic interest in Middle East stability.

    🌏 VII. India’s Relations with Neighbourhood

    1️⃣ SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)

    • Formed in 1985 to promote regional cooperation.

    • Members: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives, Afghanistan.

    • India supports SAARC but progress hindered by India–Pakistan tensions.

    2️⃣ Gujral Doctrine (1996–97)

    Proposed by PM I.K. Gujral — principles for friendly relations with neighbours:

    • Unilateral concessions to smaller neighbours.

    • Non-interference and respect for sovereignty.

    • Mutual trust and cooperation.
      (Example: India–Bangladesh water-sharing agreements.)

    3️⃣ Look East / Act East Policy

    • Initiated by Narasimha Rao (1991); upgraded to “Act East” by Modi (2014).

    • Aim: Strengthen ties with ASEAN and East Asia.

    • Focus: Connectivity, trade, security in Indo-Pacific.

    4️⃣ Look West Policy

    • Strengthen relations with West Asia / Gulf region.

    • Objectives: Energy security, counterterrorism, diaspora welfare.

    🏛️ VIII. India’s Negotiation Strategies in International Regimes

    Institution India’s Role / Strategy
    United Nations Advocates reform of UN Security Council (India seeks permanent seat); contributes to peacekeeping missions.
    World Trade Organization (WTO) Leads developing countries in defending food security (e.g., opposition to Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights—TRIPS).
    International Monetary Fund (IMF) Seeks greater representation for emerging economies; contributes to global financial stability.
    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Emphasizes “Common but Differentiated Responsibilities” (CBDR); promotes climate justice and sustainable development.

    ⚠️ IX. Contemporary Challenges for India’s Foreign Policy

    1️⃣ Maritime Security

    • Protecting sea routes in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

    • India’s SAGAR vision – “Security and Growth for All in the Region.”

    • Countering China’s String of Pearls strategy.

    2️⃣ Energy Security

    • India imports over 80% of its oil.

    • Diversifying sources (Middle East, Russia, Africa) and promoting renewable energy.

    3️⃣ Environmental Security

    • Active role in Paris Climate Agreement (2015).

    • Leader of International Solar Alliance (ISA) for clean energy cooperation.

    4️⃣ Migrants and Refugees

    • Concern for Indian diaspora (Gulf, Africa).

    • Refugees from Tibet, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Afghanistan hosted in India.

    5️⃣ Water Resources

    • Transboundary river disputes (Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra).

    • Diplomatic management through Indus Water Treaty (1960) and bilateral mechanisms.

    6️⃣ International Terrorism

    • Major challenge from Pakistan-based groups.

    • India supports UN Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT).

    7️⃣ Cyber Security

    • Increasing cyber-attacks and data breaches.

    • India promotes global cyber governance and digital sovereignty.

    📘 Summary Table: Core Themes of India’s Foreign Policy

    Theme Key Idea / Policy Example
    Postcolonial Identity Anti-imperial, independent foreign policy Support to decolonization
    Developmental Focus Economic diplomacy G-77, South–South Cooperation
    Rising Power Global leadership BRICS, G-20, ISA
    Non-Alignment Autonomy from power blocs NAM (1961)
    Nuclear Policy Deterrence, NFU Pokhran tests (1974, 1998)
    Major Powers Strategic balance USA, Russia, China
    Regional Policy Neighbourhood First SAARC, Gujral Doctrine
    Act East Policy Engagement with ASEAN Connectivity, trade
    International Regimes Rule-based order WTO, UN, IMF
    Contemporary Issues Security, energy, terrorism SAGAR, Paris Accord